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NExT Community Medicine and Public Health (Preventive and Social Medicine) Syllabus

The Community Medicine and Public Health (Preventive and Social Medicine) syllabus for NExT in full: 5 chapters, 21 topics and 14 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Community Medicine and Public Health (Preventive and Social Medicine) flashcards with answers.

5Chapters
21Topics
14Sub-topics
50Flashcards

Community Medicine and Public Health (Preventive and Social Medicine) syllabus: all 5 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Epidemiology and Biostatistics

    5 topics
    • Concepts and Measurements in Epidemiology
      • Incidence, prevalence, morbidity and mortality rates
    • Epidemiological Study Designs
      • Cohort, case-control, RCT, cross-sectional
    • Screening and Diagnostic Tests
      • Sensitivity, specificity, predictive values
    • Biostatistics
      • Sampling, tests of significance, normal distribution
    • Investigation and Control of Epidemics
  2. Communicable and Non-Communicable Diseases

    4 topics
    • Epidemiology of Communicable Diseases
      • TB, malaria, dengue, COVID-19, HIV
    • Vaccine-Preventable Diseases and Cold Chain
    • Non-Communicable Diseases
      • Diabetes, hypertension, cancer, CVD prevention
    • Zoonoses and Emerging Infections
  3. National Health Programs and Policy

    4 topics
    • National Health Programs
      • NTEP, NVBDCP, NACO, NPCDCS
    • Maternal and Child Health Programs
      • RMNCH+A, JSY, ICDS
    • Health Policy and Health Systems
      • National Health Policy, Ayushman Bharat, HWCs
    • Health Care Delivery and Three-Tier System
  4. Environmental Health, Nutrition and Occupational Health

    4 topics
    • Water, Sanitation and Air Pollution
      • Water purification, waste disposal
    • Nutrition and Public Health
      • Balanced diet, nutritional assessment, deficiency disorders
    • Occupational Health and Diseases
      • Occupational hazards, ESI Act
    • Disaster Management and Entomology
  5. Demography, Social Sciences and Health Management

    4 topics
    • Demography and Family Planning
      • Demographic cycle, population dynamics, contraception
    • Social and Behavioral Sciences
      • Social determinants, health education, IEC
    • Health Information and Vital Statistics
    • International Health and SDGs

NExT Community Medicine and Public Health (Preventive and Social Medicine) flashcards — 50 questions with answers

  1. Define incidence rate and state its formula.

    Incidence rate = number of NEW cases of a disease occurring in a defined population during a specified period, divided by the total person-time at risk. It measures the rate of occurrence of new disease (force of morbidity).

  2. What is the formula for point prevalence, and how does it relate to incidence and duration?

    Point prevalence = (number of existing cases at a point in time / total population at that time). For chronic conditions in a steady state: Prevalence ≈ Incidence × mean Duration (P = I × D).

  3. Differentiate between the crude death rate and the standardized (age-adjusted) death rate.

    Crude death rate = total deaths/mid-year population × 1000; it is influenced by population age structure. The standardized rate removes the effect of differing age composition (by direct or indirect standardization), allowing valid comparison between populations.

  4. What are sensitivity and specificity of a screening test, and what does each measure?

    Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN) = ability to correctly identify those WITH disease (true positive rate). Specificity = TN/(TN+FP) = ability to correctly identify those WITHOUT disease (true negative rate).

  5. How do positive predictive value (PPV) and disease prevalence relate?

    PPV = TP/(TP+FP). PPV rises as disease prevalence rises (and as specificity rises). In low-prevalence populations, even a highly sensitive/specific test gives a low PPV (many false positives).

  6. What is the gold-standard analytical study design for establishing causation, and why?

    The randomized controlled trial (RCT). Randomization balances known and unknown confounders between groups, minimizing bias and allowing causal inference about the intervention's effect.

  7. Compare cohort and case-control studies in terms of direction and measure of association.

    Cohort: prospective from exposure to outcome; yields incidence and Relative Risk (RR). Case-control: retrospective from outcome (disease) back to exposure; yields the Odds Ratio (OR) as an estimate of RR. Case-control is better for rare diseases; cohort for rare exposures.

  8. Give the formula for Relative Risk (RR) and state what RR = 1, >1, and <1 indicate.

    RR = incidence in exposed / incidence in unexposed. RR = 1: no association; RR > 1: exposure increases risk; RR < 1: exposure is protective.

  9. What is attributable risk (AR) and how is it calculated?

    Attributable risk = incidence in exposed − incidence in unexposed. It indicates the excess risk of disease attributable to the exposure (useful for assessing intervention impact).

  10. Define a confounding variable and give two methods to control it.

    A confounder is associated with both the exposure and the outcome but is not an intermediate step in the causal pathway. Controlled at design by randomization, matching, restriction; at analysis by stratification and multivariable regression.

  11. What is the difference between validity (accuracy) and reliability (precision) of a test?

    Validity = how well the test measures what it is intended to measure (sensitivity, specificity). Reliability/reproducibility = consistency of results on repeated measurement (affected by observer and instrument variation).

  12. What is Yield in the context of a screening test?

    Yield = the number of new, previously unrecognized cases of disease detected and brought to treatment as a result of screening. It depends on sensitivity of the test, prevalence, and participation.

  13. State the measures of central tendency and which is preferred for skewed data.

    Mean, median, and mode. For skewed (non-normal) distributions the median is preferred because it is not distorted by extreme outliers.

  14. What is the standard error of the mean (SEM) and its formula?

    SEM measures the precision of the sample mean as an estimate of the population mean. SEM = standard deviation / √n. It decreases as sample size increases.

  15. Define Type I and Type II errors in hypothesis testing.

    Type I error (α) = rejecting a true null hypothesis (false positive). Type II error (β) = failing to reject a false null hypothesis (false negative). Power = 1 − β.

  16. Which statistical test compares means between two independent groups, and which compares proportions in a 2×2 table?

    Student's t-test (unpaired) compares means of two independent groups. The Chi-square test compares proportions/categorical data in a contingency table (use Fisher's exact test if expected cell counts are small).

  17. What is a p-value, and what does p < 0.05 conventionally mean?

    The p-value is the probability of obtaining results at least as extreme as observed if the null hypothesis were true. p < 0.05 conventionally indicates statistical significance (less than 5% probability the result is due to chance).

  18. What does a 95% confidence interval represent?

    A range that, on repeated sampling, would contain the true population parameter 95% of the time. For RR/OR, if the 95% CI includes 1.0, the association is not statistically significant.

  19. List the steps in the investigation of an epidemic.

    1) Verify the diagnosis; 2) Confirm the existence of an epidemic; 3) Define and identify cases (case definition); 4) Describe by time, place, person; 5) Formulate and test hypotheses; 6) Implement control measures; 7) Evaluate and report.

  20. Differentiate point-source, propagated, and continuous-source epidemic curves.

    Point-source (common source): single sharp peak within one incubation period. Propagated (person-to-person): series of progressively taller peaks one incubation period apart. Continuous common source: plateau-shaped curve over an extended period.

Show the other 30 Community Medicine and Public Health (Preventive and Social Medicine) flashcards
  1. What is the secondary attack rate and its formula?

    Secondary attack rate = number of new cases among contacts within one incubation period of the primary case / total susceptible contacts × 100. It measures infectiousness and person-to-person spread.

  2. Define basic reproduction number (R0) and herd immunity threshold.

    R0 = average number of secondary cases produced by one infectious case in a fully susceptible population. Herd immunity threshold = 1 − 1/R0; the proportion that must be immune to halt sustained transmission.

  3. What is the incubation period, and why is it epidemiologically important?

    Incubation period = time interval between entry of the pathogen (infection) and onset of clinical symptoms. It helps identify the time/source of exposure, define quarantine duration, and interpret epidemic curves.

  4. State the chemoprophylaxis drug and regimen used for close contacts of meningococcal meningitis.

    Rifampicin (600 mg twice daily for 2 days in adults) is the standard chemoprophylaxis; ciprofloxacin (single dose) or ceftriaxone are alternatives for close contacts.

  5. Which mosquito transmits malaria, dengue, and filaria respectively in India?

    Malaria – female Anopheles; Dengue (and chikungunya, Zika) – Aedes aegypti; Bancroftian filariasis – Culex quinquefasciatus (Brugian filaria – Mansonia).

  6. What is the cold chain, and what are the recommended storage temperatures for vaccines?

    Cold chain = the system of storing and transporting vaccines at recommended low temperatures from manufacture to administration. Vaccines are stored at +2°C to +8°C in refrigerators (ILR); some (OPV) kept frozen at −20°C in deep freezers at higher levels.

  7. Which vaccines are most heat-sensitive and which are most sensitive to freezing?

    Most heat-sensitive: OPV (most), then measles and BCG. Most freeze-sensitive (damaged by freezing): the adsorbed/liquid vaccines — DPT, DT, TT, Hepatitis B, and IPV.

  8. List the vaccines given at birth under India's Universal Immunization Programme (UIP).

    At birth: BCG, OPV-0 (zero dose), and Hepatitis B birth dose. (Some states also give the first dose of vaccines per the national schedule.)

  9. What is the difference between live attenuated and killed (inactivated) vaccines, with examples?

    Live attenuated vaccines (BCG, OPV, measles, MMR) contain weakened organisms, induce strong long-lasting immunity, usually single/few doses, contraindicated in immunocompromised/pregnancy. Killed/inactivated vaccines (IPV, Hepatitis B, rabies, cholera) are safer but need multiple doses/boosters.

  10. What does a Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) indicate?

    A VVM is a heat-sensitive label on the vial that changes color with cumulative heat exposure. When the inner square is the same color or darker than the outer ring, the vaccine has exceeded heat exposure and must be discarded.

  11. What is the open vial policy in immunization?

    Opened multidose vials of OPV, DPT, TT, Hepatitis B, and pentavalent (without preservative-related restriction concerns) may be used in subsequent sessions up to 28 days if cold chain maintained, VVM acceptable, expiry not passed, and no contamination. BCG and reconstituted measles/MMR must be discarded within 4 hours.

  12. List the major modifiable risk factors common to non-communicable diseases (NCDs).

    Tobacco use, harmful alcohol use, unhealthy diet (high salt/fat/sugar), and physical inactivity. These lead to intermediate risk factors: raised blood pressure, raised glucose, abnormal lipids, and overweight/obesity.

  13. Define Body Mass Index (BMI) and the WHO cut-offs (with Asian modification).

    BMI = weight (kg) / height (m²). WHO: underweight <18.5, normal 18.5–24.9, overweight 25–29.9, obese ≥30. Asian-Indian cut-offs: overweight ≥23, obese ≥25.

  14. Name the Indian national program for NCD prevention and screening.

    The National Programme for Prevention and Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NP-NCD, formerly NPCDCS) targets diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and common cancers (oral, breast, cervical), with population-based screening for those aged 30+.

  15. Define zoonosis and give three examples relevant to India.

    A zoonosis is a disease/infection naturally transmissible between vertebrate animals and humans. Examples: rabies (dog), plague (rodent/flea), brucellosis (cattle/goats), leptospirosis (rodent urine), Kyasanur Forest Disease (monkey/tick).

  16. Describe the categories of animal bite and corresponding rabies post-exposure prophylaxis.

    Category I (touching/licking intact skin): no PEP, wash. Category II (minor scratches/abrasions without bleeding): wound wash + anti-rabies vaccine. Category III (transdermal bites, licks on broken skin/mucosa, bat exposure): wound wash + vaccine + Rabies Immunoglobulin (RIG).

  17. List the five cleanliness/WASH interventions ('F-diagram' barriers) to prevent fecal-oral disease transmission.

    Barriers blocking fecal-oral spread via the 5 F's (Fluids, Fingers, Flies, Fields/Floors, Food): safe water supply, sanitary excreta disposal (latrines), hand washing, food hygiene, and fly/vector control.

  18. What are the permissible standards for residual chlorine and turbidity in drinking water?

    Free residual chlorine should be ≥0.5 mg/L after 1 hour of contact (minimum contact period 1 hour). Acceptable turbidity is ≤1 NTU (permissible up to 5 NTU). These ensure microbiological safety.

  19. Define the Orthotolidine (OT) test and its purpose in water treatment.

    The orthotolidine test estimates free and combined residual chlorine in water by producing a yellow color, used to ensure adequate chlorination for disinfection (free residual chlorine target ≥0.5 mg/L).

  20. Which air pollutant is the chief indicator of vehicular pollution health risk, and what is PM2.5?

    PM2.5 = particulate matter ≤2.5 micrometers; it penetrates deep into alveoli, causing respiratory and cardiovascular disease, and is a key indicator of harmful air pollution. CO and NO2 are also major vehicular pollutants.

  21. Define the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) and its formula.

    MMR = number of maternal deaths (during pregnancy or within 42 days of termination) per 100,000 live births. India's SDG target is to reduce MMR below 70 per 100,000 live births.

  22. Differentiate Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), Neonatal Mortality Rate, and Under-5 Mortality Rate.

    IMR = deaths under 1 year / 1000 live births. Neonatal MR = deaths within 28 days / 1000 live births. Under-5 MR = deaths under 5 years / 1000 live births. Neonatal deaths form the largest share of infant mortality in India.

  23. What are the components of the recommended antenatal care (ANC) package in India?

    At least 4 (now 8 per WHO) ANC visits; first visit in first trimester; TT/Td immunization; IFA (iron-folic acid) supplementation; weight/BP monitoring; abdominal exam; lab tests (Hb, urine, blood group, VDRL, HIV); and identification of high-risk pregnancies.

  24. Describe the components of IMNCI (Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness).

    IMNCI is a strategy to manage the major causes of childhood death—pneumonia (ARI), diarrhea, measles, malaria, malnutrition—plus newborn care, through assess-classify-treat protocols, improving health-worker skills, health systems, and family/community practices.

  25. What does ORS (oral rehydration solution) contain and its rationale (WHO low-osmolarity formula)?

    Low-osmolarity ORS contains sodium, potassium, chloride, citrate, and glucose (osmolarity ~245 mmol/L). Glucose-coupled sodium absorption restores fluid; the low-osmolarity formula reduces stool output, vomiting, and need for IV fluids.

  26. What are the three tiers of rural health care delivery in India and their population norms?

    Sub-centre (1 per 5000 plain / 3000 hilly-tribal) — most peripheral, staffed by ANM/HW; Primary Health Centre/PHC (1 per 30,000 plain / 20,000 hilly) — first medical-officer contact; Community Health Centre/CHC (1 per 1,20,000 plain / 80,000 hilly) — 30-bed referral with 4 specialists.

  27. What is the Ayushman Bharat scheme's two components?

    1) Health and Wellness Centres (now Ayushman Arogya Mandirs) delivering comprehensive primary care; 2) Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), providing health insurance cover of ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization to poor families.

  28. State the demographic cycle stages and where India currently falls.

    Stages: 1) High stationary (high birth & death rates); 2) Early expanding (death rate falls); 3) Late expanding (birth rate falls); 4) Low stationary (both low); 5) Declining. India is in the late expanding stage, with falling birth and low death rates.

  29. Define the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) and the replacement-level value.

    TFR = average number of children a woman would bear during her reproductive life (15–49 years) at current age-specific fertility rates. Replacement-level fertility = 2.1; India's TFR has reached ~2.0, at/below replacement.

  30. List the temporary (spacing) and permanent contraceptive methods promoted under India's Family Planning Programme.

    Spacing/temporary: condoms (Nirodh), oral pills (Mala-N/Chhaya), IUCD (Cu-T 380A, 375), and injectable Antara (DMPA). Permanent/terminal: male vasectomy (NSV) and female tubectomy/laparoscopic ligation.

NExT Community Medicine and Public Health (Preventive and Social Medicine) FAQ

What is in the NExT Community Medicine and Public Health (Preventive and Social Medicine) syllabus?

NExT Community Medicine and Public Health (Preventive and Social Medicine) is split into 5 chapters: Epidemiology and Biostatistics, Communicable and Non-Communicable Diseases, National Health Programs and Policy, Environmental Health, Nutrition and Occupational Health and Demography, Social Sciences and Health Management. Together they contain 21 topics and 14 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in NExT Community Medicine and Public Health (Preventive and Social Medicine)?

5 chapters, containing 21 topics and 14 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Epidemiology and Biostatistics, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for NExT Community Medicine and Public Health (Preventive and Social Medicine)?

Yes — a 50-card Community Medicine and Public Health (Preventive and Social Medicine) deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.