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NExT Medicine and Allied Specialties (General Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Radiology) Syllabus

The Medicine and Allied Specialties (General Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Radiology) syllabus for NExT in full: 6 chapters, 35 topics and 47 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 Medicine and Allied Specialties (General Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Radiology) flashcards with answers.

6Chapters
35Topics
47Sub-topics
52Flashcards

Medicine and Allied Specialties (General Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Radiology) syllabus: all 6 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Cardiovascular System

     6 topics
    • Ischemic Heart Disease
      • Stable angina, ACS, STEMI vs NSTEMI
      • Thrombolysis and primary PCI indications
      • Secondary prevention and antiplatelet therapy
    • Heart Failure
      • HFrEF vs HFpEF classification
      • GDMT: ARNI, beta-blockers, MRA, SGLT2 inhibitors
    • Arrhythmias and Conduction Disorders
      • Atrial fibrillation and CHA2DS2-VASc scoring
      • Heart blocks and pacemaker indications
    • Valvular Heart Disease and Rheumatic Fever
      • Mitral stenosis and Jones criteria
      • Aortic stenosis and regurgitation
    • Systemic Hypertension
      • Staging, secondary causes, hypertensive emergency
    • Infective Endocarditis
      • Duke criteria and prophylaxis

  2. Respiratory System

     6 topics
    • Obstructive Airway Disease
      • Bronchial asthma: GINA staging and management
      • COPD: GOLD grading and exacerbation
    • Pulmonary Tuberculosis
      • NTEP/RNTCP diagnostics and CBNAAT
      • DOTS regimens and drug-resistant TB
    • Pneumonia and Respiratory Infections
      • CAP, HAP, CURB-65 scoring
    • Interstitial Lung Disease
      • IPF, sarcoidosis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis
    • Pleural Effusion and Pneumothorax
      • Light's criteria, exudate vs transudate
    • Pulmonary Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension

  3. Gastroenterology, Hepatology and Nephrology

     6 topics
    • Acute and Chronic Liver Disease
      • Cirrhosis, portal hypertension, Child-Pugh and MELD
      • Viral hepatitis serology
    • Inflammatory and Functional Bowel Disorders
      • Crohn disease vs ulcerative colitis
      • Malabsorption and celiac disease
    • Peptic Ulcer Disease and GI Bleeding
      • H. pylori eradication, upper vs lower GI bleed
    • Acute Kidney Injury
      • Prerenal, intrinsic, postrenal; KDIGO staging
    • Chronic Kidney Disease
      • eGFR staging, dialysis indications, mineral bone disease
    • Glomerular Diseases
      • Nephritic vs nephrotic syndrome

  4. Endocrinology and Metabolism

     5 topics
    • Diabetes Mellitus
      • Diagnosis, classification, HbA1c targets
      • Oral agents, insulin, DKA and HHS
    • Thyroid Disorders
      • Hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, thyroid storm
    • Adrenal Disorders
      • Cushing syndrome, Addison disease, pheochromocytoma
    • Pituitary Disorders
      • Acromegaly, prolactinoma, diabetes insipidus
    • Calcium and Bone Metabolism
      • Hyper/hypoparathyroidism, osteoporosis

  5. Infectious Diseases, Hematology and Rheumatology

     6 topics
    • Tropical and Vector-borne Infections
      • Malaria, dengue, chikungunya, leptospirosis
      • Enteric fever and scrub typhus
    • HIV/AIDS
      • Staging, ART, opportunistic infections
    • Anemias
      • Iron deficiency, megaloblastic, hemolytic anemias
      • Thalassemia and sickle cell disease
    • Hematological Malignancies
      • Leukemias, lymphomas, multiple myeloma
    • Bleeding and Coagulation Disorders
      • ITP, hemophilia, DIC, von Willebrand disease
    • Connective Tissue Disorders
      • SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, vasculitides

  6. Neurology, Dermatology and Psychiatry

     6 topics
    • Cerebrovascular Disease
      • Ischemic vs hemorrhagic stroke, thrombolysis window
    • Seizure Disorders and Epilepsy
      • Classification, status epilepticus, antiepileptics
    • Neuromuscular and Demyelinating Disorders
      • Guillain-Barre, myasthenia gravis, multiple sclerosis
    • Common Dermatological Conditions
      • Psoriasis, eczema, vesiculobullous disorders
      • Leprosy classification and management
    • Mood and Psychotic Disorders
      • Depression, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia
    • Anxiety, Substance Use and Emergencies
      • Alcohol withdrawal, suicide risk assessment

NExT Medicine and Allied Specialties (General Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Radiology) flashcards — 52 questions with answers

  1. In ST-elevation MI (STEMI), what is the target door-to-balloon time for primary PCI, and the target door-to-needle time for fibrinolysis?

    Primary PCI: door-to-balloon ≤90 minutes. Fibrinolysis: door-to-needle ≤30 minutes.

  2. Name the four MONA(B) components of initial management of acute coronary syndrome.

    Morphine, Oxygen (if SpO2 <90%), Nitrates, Aspirin, plus Beta-blocker. Modern emphasis: dual antiplatelet (aspirin + P2Y12 inhibitor) and anticoagulation; oxygen only if hypoxic.

  3. Which ECG leads correspond to inferior wall MI, and which coronary artery is most often involved?

    Leads II, III, aVF; usually the right coronary artery (RCA).

  4. What cardiac biomarker is most sensitive and specific for myocardial infarction, and when does it rise, peak, and normalize?

    Cardiac troponin (I or T): rises in 3-4 hours, peaks at 18-24 hours, stays elevated up to 7-14 days.

  5. Define heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) versus preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) by LVEF cutoffs.

    HFrEF: LVEF ≤40%. HFpEF: LVEF ≥50%. HFmrEF (mildly reduced): LVEF 41-49%.

  6. Which four drug classes form the guideline-directed 'four pillars' of HFrEF therapy?

    ARNI/ACEi/ARB, beta-blockers, MRA (mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists), and SGLT2 inhibitors.

  7. What biomarker is used to diagnose and assess severity of heart failure, and how does obesity affect its level?

    BNP / NT-proBNP (elevated in HF). Levels are falsely lowered in obesity and raised in renal impairment, age, and AF.

  8. What is the first-line treatment for hemodynamically unstable tachyarrhythmia (with hypotension, ischemia, or shock)?

    Immediate synchronized DC cardioversion (defibrillation if pulseless VT/VF).

  9. In atrial fibrillation, what does the CHA2DS2-VASc score assess, and at what score is anticoagulation recommended in men?

    It estimates stroke risk in AF. Anticoagulation is recommended for men with score ≥2 (and women ≥3); consider at 1 (men).

  10. What ECG finding characterizes complete (third-degree) heart block?

    AV dissociation: P waves and QRS complexes are independent (no relationship), with atrial rate faster than the slower ventricular escape rate.

  11. What is the classic ECG triad of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?

    Short PR interval (<120 ms), delta wave (slurred QRS upstroke), and widened QRS.

  12. Which valvular lesion classically causes a mid-diastolic rumbling murmur with an opening snap, best heard at the apex?

    Mitral stenosis (most commonly rheumatic in origin).

  13. State the revised (modified) Jones criteria requirement for diagnosing a first episode of acute rheumatic fever.

    Evidence of preceding GAS infection PLUS either 2 major criteria OR 1 major + 2 minor criteria.

  14. List the five major Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever (mnemonic JONES).

    Joints (migratory polyarthritis), O (carditis - ❤), Nodules (subcutaneous), Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea.

  15. What murmur characterizes aortic stenosis, and what triad of symptoms indicates poor prognosis?

    Ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids. Triad: angina, syncope, and dyspnea/heart failure (SAD).

  16. Per current guidelines, define the blood pressure thresholds for hypertension stage 1 and stage 2 (ACC/AHA 2017).

    Stage 1: 130-139/80-89 mmHg. Stage 2: ≥140/≥90 mmHg. Normal: <120/<80.

  17. What is the first-line antihypertensive class for a young patient with hypertension and proteinuric diabetic nephropathy?

    ACE inhibitor or ARB (they reduce intraglomerular pressure and proteinuria).

  18. Name the most common cause of secondary hypertension and the screening test used.

    Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome); screened by the plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR).

  19. State the modified Duke criteria definition of definite infective endocarditis (clinical).

    2 major, OR 1 major + 3 minor, OR 5 minor criteria.

  20. List the classic peripheral immunologic/vascular signs of infective endocarditis.

    Osler nodes (painful, fingers/toes), Janeway lesions (painless, palms/soles), Roth spots (retina), splinter hemorrhages, and glomerulonephritis.

Show the other 32 Medicine and Allied Specialties (General Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Radiology) flashcards

  1. What spirometry ratio defines an obstructive ventilatory pattern, and how does COPD differ from asthma in reversibility?

    FEV1/FVC <0.70 defines obstruction. Asthma shows significant bronchodilator reversibility (≥12% and 200 mL improvement in FEV1); COPD obstruction is largely irreversible.

  2. What is the GOLD classification of COPD severity based on post-bronchodilator FEV1 % predicted?

    GOLD 1 (mild): FEV1 ≥80%; GOLD 2 (moderate): 50-79%; GOLD 3 (severe): 30-49%; GOLD 4 (very severe): <30%.

  3. What is the standard intensive-phase regimen for new drug-sensitive pulmonary TB and its duration?

    2 months of HRZE (isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol), followed by 4 months of HR (continuation phase).

  4. Match each first-line anti-TB drug to its key adverse effect: Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol.

    Isoniazid: peripheral neuropathy (give pyridoxine) + hepatitis. Rifampicin: orange secretions + hepatitis + enzyme induction. Pyrazinamide: hyperuricemia/gout + hepatitis. Ethambutol: optic neuritis (color vision).

  5. What is the most common causative organism of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), and the empirical treatment for outpatient CAP?

    Streptococcus pneumoniae. Outpatient empirical: amoxicillin (or a macrolide/doxycycline); add a macrolide for atypical coverage as needed.

  6. What does the CURB-65 score assess, and what are its components?

    Severity/mortality risk of CAP. Confusion, Urea >7 mmol/L, Respiratory rate ≥30, Blood pressure <90 systolic or ≤60 diastolic, age ≥65. Score ≥3 suggests hospital/ICU consideration.

  7. What is the characteristic HRCT finding of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF / usual interstitial pneumonia)?

    Subpleural, basal-predominant reticular opacities with honeycombing and traction bronchiectasis (UIP pattern).

  8. Differentiate transudative from exudative pleural effusion using Light's criteria.

    Exudate if any: pleural/serum protein >0.5, pleural/serum LDH >0.6, or pleural LDH >2/3 upper limit of normal serum LDH. Otherwise transudate.

  9. What is the immediate management of a tension pneumothorax?

    Emergency needle decompression (large-bore cannula, 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line or 5th ICS anterior axillary line), followed by chest tube insertion.

  10. What is the most common ECG finding in pulmonary embolism, and the classic (but rare) specific pattern?

    Sinus tachycardia is most common. The classic specific pattern is S1Q3T3 (S wave in lead I, Q wave and inverted T in lead III).

  11. What scoring system estimates the clinical pretest probability of PE, and what test is used to rule it out in low-probability patients?

    Wells score (or revised Geneva). A negative D-dimer rules out PE in low/intermediate pretest probability.

  12. List the components of the Child-Pugh score used to grade cirrhosis severity.

    Bilirubin, Albumin, INR (prothrombin time), Ascites, and Encephalopathy.

  13. What is the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) cutoff for portal hypertension, and what value indicates it?

    SAAG ≥1.1 g/dL indicates portal hypertension (e.g., cirrhosis); SAAG <1.1 g/dL suggests non-portal causes (e.g., TB, malignancy).

  14. Contrast the typical location and histology of Crohn's disease versus ulcerative colitis.

    Crohn's: any part of GI tract (mouth to anus), skip lesions, transmural inflammation, non-caseating granulomas. UC: continuous from rectum proximally, limited to colon, mucosal/submucosal inflammation, crypt abscesses.

  15. What are the Rome IV criteria-based features distinguishing irritable bowel syndrome (a functional disorder)?

    Recurrent abdominal pain ≥1 day/week (last 3 months) associated with ≥2 of: related to defecation, change in stool frequency, change in stool form. No alarm features/organic disease.

  16. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease, and the standard triple therapy for its eradication?

    Helicobacter pylori. Triple therapy: PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin (or metronidazole) for 14 days.

  17. Define acute kidney injury by the KDIGO creatinine and urine output criteria.

    Rise in serum creatinine ≥0.3 mg/dL within 48 h, OR ≥1.5x baseline within 7 days, OR urine output <0.5 mL/kg/h for ≥6 hours.

  18. Differentiate prerenal AKI from intrinsic (ATN) AKI using FENa and urine osmolality.

    Prerenal: FENa <1%, high urine osmolality (>500), high urine specific gravity (concentrated). ATN: FENa >2%, urine osmolality ~300 (isosthenuria), muddy brown casts.

  19. What GFR threshold defines CKD, and what are the stages by eGFR (mL/min/1.73m²)?

    CKD = GFR <60 for ≥3 months or kidney damage markers. Stages: G1 ≥90, G2 60-89, G3a 45-59, G3b 30-44, G4 15-29, G5 <15 (kidney failure).

  20. Distinguish nephrotic from nephritic syndrome by their defining features.

    Nephrotic: proteinuria >3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia. Nephritic: hematuria (RBC casts), hypertension, oliguria, mild proteinuria, azotemia.

  21. What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children, and its treatment?

    Minimal change disease; treated with corticosteroids (usually highly responsive).

  22. State the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus (any one).

    Fasting plasma glucose ≥126 mg/dL, OR 2-hour OGTT ≥200 mg/dL, OR HbA1c ≥6.5%, OR random glucose ≥200 mg/dL with symptoms.

  23. What is the biochemical triad of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

    Hyperglycemia (>250 mg/dL), high anion gap metabolic acidosis (pH <7.3, HCO3 <15-18), and ketonemia/ketonuria.

  24. Contrast the thyroid function test pattern in primary hypothyroidism versus primary hyperthyroidism.

    Primary hypothyroidism: high TSH, low free T4. Primary hyperthyroidism: low TSH, high free T4/T3.

  25. What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism, and its characteristic antibody and signs?

    Graves disease; TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb/TSI). Signs: diffuse goiter, ophthalmopathy (exophthalmos), and pretibial myxedema.

  26. Contrast the electrolyte and cortisol findings in Addison disease (primary adrenal insufficiency) versus Cushing syndrome.

    Addison: low cortisol, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, high ACTH, hyperpigmentation. Cushing: high cortisol, hypernatremia, hypokalemia, hypertension, hyperglycemia.

  27. What dynamic test confirms acromegaly, and what is the underlying hormone abnormality?

    Failure of growth hormone (GH) suppression after an oral glucose tolerance test, with elevated IGF-1. Caused by a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma.

  28. What is the relationship between calcium, phosphate, and PTH in primary hyperparathyroidism?

    High calcium, low phosphate, and high (or inappropriately normal) PTH. Most common cause is a parathyroid adenoma.

  29. What is the classic peripheral blood smear finding and treatment of falciparum malaria, the most severe vector-borne infection in India?

    Ring forms and banana-shaped gametocytes of Plasmodium falciparum. Severe malaria treated with IV artesunate (artemisinin-based).

  30. At what CD4 count is Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP) prophylaxis started in HIV, and which drug is used?

    CD4 <200 cells/mm³; prophylaxis with co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole).

  31. Classify anemias by MCV and give one cause of each: microcytic, normocytic, macrocytic.

    Microcytic (MCV<80): iron deficiency, thalassemia. Normocytic (80-100): anemia of chronic disease, acute blood loss. Macrocytic (>100): B12/folate deficiency, hypothyroidism.

  32. What malignant cell/feature distinguishes Hodgkin lymphoma, and what does the Philadelphia chromosome indicate?

    Hodgkin lymphoma: Reed-Sternberg cells. Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) BCR-ABL is diagnostic of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), treated with imatinib.

NExT Medicine and Allied Specialties (General Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Radiology) FAQ

What is in the NExT Medicine and Allied Specialties (General Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Radiology) syllabus?

NExT Medicine and Allied Specialties (General Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Radiology) is split into 6 chapters: Cardiovascular System, Respiratory System, Gastroenterology, Hepatology and Nephrology, Endocrinology and Metabolism, Infectious Diseases, Hematology and Rheumatology and Neurology, Dermatology and Psychiatry. Together they contain 35 topics and 47 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in NExT Medicine and Allied Specialties (General Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Radiology)?

6 chapters, containing 35 topics and 47 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Cardiovascular System, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for NExT Medicine and Allied Specialties (General Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Radiology)?

Yes — a 52-card Medicine and Allied Specialties (General Medicine, Dermatology, Psychiatry, Radiology) deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.