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GPAT Pathophysiology Syllabus
The Pathophysiology syllabus for GPAT in full: 9 chapters, 18 topics and 36 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 59 Pathophysiology flashcards with answers.
Pathophysiology syllabus: all 9 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Basic principles of cell injury and adaptation
1 topic- Cell Injury
- Causes of Cell Injury
- Cellular Adaptation
- Cell Injury
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Neoplastic diseases
1 topic- Introduction to Neoplasia
- Benign vs Malignant Tumors
- Carcinogenesis
- Introduction to Neoplasia
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Pathophysiology of common diseases
2 topics- Cardiovascular Diseases
- Hypertension
- Coronary Artery Disease
- Respiratory Diseases
- Asthma
- Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
- Cardiovascular Diseases
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Laboratory tests for Liver function tests and kidney function tests
2 topics- Liver Function Tests
- AST and ALT
- Bilirubin Levels
- Kidney Function Tests
- Creatinine Clearance Test
- Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
- Liver Function Tests
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Immunopathology including amyloidosis
2 topics- Immunopathology
- Autoimmune Diseases
- Hypersensitivity Reactions
- Amyloidosis
- Types of Amyloidosis
- Pathogenesis
- Immunopathology
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Infectious diseases
2 topics- Bacterial Infections
- Gram-positive Bacteria
- Gram-negative Bacteria
- Viral Infections
- RNA Viruses
- DNA Viruses
- Bacterial Infections
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Basic mechanisms of inflammation and repair
2 topics- Inflammatory Response
- Vascular Changes
- Cellular Events
- Tissue Repair
- Regeneration
- Fibrosis
- Inflammatory Response
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Disorders of fluid, electrolyte and acid-base balance
3 topics- Fluid Imbalance
- Dehydration
- Edema
- Electrolyte Imbalance
- Sodium Imbalance
- Potassium Imbalance
- Acid-Base Balance
- Respiratory Acidosis
- Metabolic Alkalosis
- Fluid Imbalance
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Disorders of homeostasis: white blood cells, lymphoid tissues, and red blood cells related diseases
3 topics- White Blood Cell Disorders
- Leukocytosis
- Leukopenia
- Lymphoid Tissue Disorders
- Lymphadenopathy
- Lymphoma
- Red Blood Cell Disorders
- Anemia
- Polycythemia
- White Blood Cell Disorders
GPAT Pathophysiology flashcards — 59 questions with answers
What is the difference between reversible and irreversible cell injury?
Reversible injury (cell swelling, fatty change) resolves if the stimulus is removed; irreversible injury involves severe mitochondrial damage, membrane breakdown, and influx of Ca2+, leading to cell death by necrosis or apoptosis.
Name the two main morphological patterns of cell death.
Necrosis (uncontrolled, with inflammation and membrane rupture) and apoptosis (programmed, energy-dependent cell death without inflammation).
List the major types of necrosis.
Coagulative, liquefactive, caseous, fat, gangrenous, and fibrinoid necrosis.
Which type of necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis?
Caseous necrosis (cheese-like appearance).
What is free radical-mediated cell injury and which key enzymes defend against it?
Injury from reactive oxygen species (e.g., superoxide, hydroxyl radical, H2O2) damaging lipids, proteins, and DNA. Defenses include superoxide dismutase, catalase, and glutathione peroxidase.
Define neoplasia.
An abnormal mass of tissue with uncoordinated, excessive growth that persists after the inciting stimulus is removed (an autonomous new growth).
What are the key differences between benign and malignant tumors?
Benign: well-differentiated, slow growth, encapsulated, no invasion or metastasis. Malignant: poorly differentiated (anaplastic), rapid growth, invasive, and metastasize.
Differentiate oncogenes from tumor suppressor genes.
Oncogenes promote cell growth and are activated/gain-of-function in cancer (e.g., RAS, MYC). Tumor suppressor genes inhibit growth and are inactivated/loss-of-function in cancer (e.g., TP53, RB).
What is metastasis and what are its main routes of spread?
Spread of tumor cells from a primary site to distant sites. Routes: lymphatic (typical of carcinomas), hematogenous (typical of sarcomas), and transcoelomic (across body cavities).
What is the morphological hallmark of atherosclerosis?
The atheromatous (fibrofatty) plaque in the intima of large and medium arteries, with a lipid core and fibrous cap.
What distinguishes myocardial infarction from angina pectoris?
Angina is reversible ischemic chest pain without myocyte death; myocardial infarction is irreversible ischemic necrosis of cardiac muscle due to prolonged coronary occlusion.
Which cardiac biomarkers are most specific for myocardial infarction and when do they rise?
Cardiac troponins I and T are most specific, rising within 3-12 hours, peaking at ~24 hours, and remaining elevated for 7-10 days. CK-MB rises early and normalizes in 2-3 days.
Differentiate left-sided from right-sided heart failure.
Left-sided failure causes pulmonary congestion and edema (dyspnea, orthopnea). Right-sided failure causes systemic venous congestion (peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, JVP elevation).
What is the pathological difference between emphysema and chronic bronchitis?
Emphysema is permanent enlargement of airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles with alveolar wall destruction. Chronic bronchitis is defined clinically as productive cough for 3 months in 2 consecutive years, with mucous gland hyperplasia.
What is the underlying pathophysiology of bronchial asthma?
Reversible airway obstruction from chronic airway inflammation, bronchial smooth muscle hyperreactivity, and excess mucus; often IgE-mediated (Type I hypersensitivity).
What characterizes restrictive vs obstructive lung disease on spirometry?
Obstructive: reduced FEV1/FVC ratio (<0.7), e.g., asthma/COPD. Restrictive: normal/increased FEV1/FVC but reduced FVC and total lung capacity, e.g., pulmonary fibrosis.
Name the main liver function tests grouped by what they assess.
Hepatocellular injury: ALT, AST. Cholestasis: ALP, GGT, bilirubin. Synthetic function: serum albumin, prothrombin time (PT/INR).
What does an AST:ALT (De Ritis) ratio greater than 2 typically suggest?
Alcoholic liver disease (AST > ALT). In most other hepatocellular injury, such as viral hepatitis, ALT > AST.
Differentiate conjugated (direct) from unconjugated (indirect) hyperbilirubinemia.
Unconjugated: water-insoluble, raised in hemolysis and Gilbert syndrome, not in urine. Conjugated: water-soluble, raised in biliary obstruction and hepatocellular disease, appears in urine (dark urine).
Which liver test best reflects acute hepatic synthetic function and why?
Prothrombin time (PT/INR), because clotting factors have short half-lives (especially factor VII); it changes faster than albumin, which has a ~20-day half-life.
Show the other 39 Pathophysiology flashcards
Which markers are used to assess kidney function and glomerular filtration?
Serum creatinine, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR); creatinine clearance directly estimates GFR.
Give the Cockcroft-Gault formula for creatinine clearance.
CrCl = [(140 - age) x weight (kg)] / (72 x serum creatinine in mg/dL); multiply by 0.85 for females.
What does an elevated BUN:creatinine ratio (>20:1) suggest?
Prerenal azotemia (e.g., dehydration, hypovolemia, reduced renal perfusion) with enhanced urea reabsorption.
What is the difference between nephrotic and nephritic syndrome?
Nephrotic: heavy proteinuria (>3.5 g/day), hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia. Nephritic: hematuria, RBC casts, hypertension, oliguria, and mild proteinuria.
List the four types (Gell and Coombs) of hypersensitivity reactions with one example each.
Type I: immediate/IgE-mediated (anaphylaxis); Type II: antibody-mediated cytotoxic (hemolytic anemia); Type III: immune complex (SLE, serum sickness); Type IV: delayed cell-mediated (TB skin test, contact dermatitis).
What is autoimmunity and name a prototypic systemic autoimmune disease.
Immune response against self-antigens due to loss of self-tolerance. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is the prototype, with anti-dsDNA and anti-Sm antibodies.
Differentiate primary from secondary immunodeficiency.
Primary: inherited/genetic defects in immune components (e.g., DiGeorge, SCID). Secondary (acquired): from infection (HIV/AIDS), drugs, malnutrition, or malignancy.
What is amyloidosis?
Extracellular deposition of abnormal, insoluble fibrillar protein (beta-pleated sheet structure) in tissues, leading to organ dysfunction.
How is amyloid identified histologically?
Stains pink with Congo red and shows apple-green birefringence under polarized light.
Differentiate AL from AA amyloidosis.
AL (primary): derived from immunoglobulin light chains, associated with plasma cell dyscrasias/multiple myeloma. AA (secondary): derived from serum amyloid-associated protein, linked to chronic inflammation.
What are the cardinal signs of acute inflammation?
Rubor (redness), calor (heat), tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), and functio laesa (loss of function).
List the major chemical mediators of inflammation and their key actions.
Histamine (vasodilation, increased permeability), prostaglandins (pain, fever, vasodilation), leukotrienes (chemotaxis, bronchoconstriction), bradykinin (pain), and cytokines TNF/IL-1 (systemic effects).
What are the steps of leukocyte extravasation in acute inflammation?
Margination, rolling (selectins), adhesion (integrins/ICAM), transmigration (diapedesis), and chemotaxis toward the injury site.
Differentiate acute from chronic inflammation by cell type and duration.
Acute: rapid onset, short duration, neutrophil predominance, exudate. Chronic: prolonged, dominated by macrophages, lymphocytes, and plasma cells, with tissue destruction and fibrosis.
What is granulomatous inflammation and name two causes.
Chronic inflammation with collections of activated epithelioid macrophages (granulomas), often with giant cells. Causes: tuberculosis and sarcoidosis.
Differentiate healing by primary intention from secondary intention.
Primary intention: clean, apposed wound edges (surgical incision), minimal scar. Secondary intention: large gaping wounds healing by granulation tissue, wound contraction, and a larger scar.
What are the phases of wound healing?
Hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation (granulation tissue, angiogenesis, re-epithelialization), and remodeling/maturation (collagen reorganization).
What is the difference between regeneration and repair (fibrosis)?
Regeneration restores normal tissue by proliferation of parenchymal cells (in labile/stable tissues). Repair replaces lost tissue with connective tissue (scar) when cells cannot regenerate or the framework is damaged.
Differentiate transudate from exudate.
Transudate: low protein, low specific gravity (<1.012), few cells, from hydrostatic/osmotic imbalance (e.g., heart failure). Exudate: high protein, high specific gravity (>1.020), many cells, from inflammation/increased permeability.
What is edema and list its main mechanisms.
Abnormal accumulation of fluid in interstitial spaces. Mechanisms: increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased plasma oncotic pressure (hypoalbuminemia), lymphatic obstruction, sodium retention, and increased vascular permeability.
Define hypernatremia and hyponatremia with their normal serum sodium range.
Normal serum Na+ is 135-145 mEq/L. Hyponatremia <135 mEq/L (causes confusion, seizures); hypernatremia >145 mEq/L (causes thirst, neurological signs).
What are the ECG and clinical features of hyperkalemia?
Serum K+ >5.0 mEq/L; ECG shows peaked T waves, widened QRS, and flattened P waves; can cause cardiac arrhythmias and arrest. Muscle weakness occurs.
State the normal serum potassium and calcium ranges.
Serum potassium: 3.5-5.0 mEq/L. Serum total calcium: 8.5-10.5 mg/dL (about 9-11 mg/dL).
What clinical sign is associated with hypocalcemia?
Neuromuscular irritability with tetany, including Chvostek sign (facial twitch on tapping) and Trousseau sign (carpal spasm with BP cuff inflation).
Give the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation for blood pH.
pH = 6.1 + log([HCO3-] / (0.03 x PaCO2)). Normal pH 7.35-7.45, with HCO3- ~24 mEq/L and PaCO2 ~40 mmHg.
Differentiate the four primary acid-base disorders by pH, PaCO2, and HCO3-.
Metabolic acidosis: low pH, low HCO3-. Metabolic alkalosis: high pH, high HCO3-. Respiratory acidosis: low pH, high PaCO2. Respiratory alkalosis: high pH, low PaCO2.
How is the anion gap calculated and what does a high value indicate?
Anion gap = Na+ - (Cl- + HCO3-); normal ~8-12 mEq/L. A high anion gap indicates metabolic acidosis from added acids (e.g., lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, renal failure, toxins).
Differentiate leukocytosis from leukopenia.
Leukocytosis is an elevated WBC count (>11,000/microL), often from infection or inflammation. Leukopenia is a low WBC count (<4,000/microL), e.g., from bone marrow suppression.
Differentiate acute from chronic leukemia.
Acute leukemia: rapid onset, proliferation of immature blasts, aggressive (AML, ALL). Chronic leukemia: slow onset, accumulation of more mature cells (CML, CLL).
What genetic abnormality is the hallmark of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?
The Philadelphia chromosome, t(9;22), producing the BCR-ABL fusion gene with constitutive tyrosine kinase activity.
Differentiate Hodgkin from non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
Hodgkin lymphoma: contiguous nodal spread, Reed-Sternberg cells present, often localized, better prognosis. Non-Hodgkin: noncontiguous/extranodal spread, no Reed-Sternberg cells, more variable.
What is the diagnostic cell of Hodgkin lymphoma?
The Reed-Sternberg cell, a large binucleate ('owl-eye') cell of B-cell origin.
What is multiple myeloma?
A malignant plasma cell neoplasm producing monoclonal immunoglobulin (M protein), causing lytic bone lesions, hypercalcemia, renal failure, anemia, and Bence Jones proteinuria.
Classify anemias based on red cell size (MCV).
Microcytic (MCV <80 fL): iron deficiency, thalassemia. Normocytic (80-100 fL): acute blood loss, anemia of chronic disease. Macrocytic (MCV >100 fL): B12/folate deficiency.
What causes sickle cell anemia and its key feature?
A point mutation (glutamate to valine) in the beta-globin gene producing HbS, which polymerizes when deoxygenated, causing sickling, vaso-occlusion, and hemolytic anemia.
Differentiate the bacterial structures targeted by Gram staining.
Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan wall and retain crystal violet (appear purple). Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer with an outer membrane and stain with safranin (appear pink).
What is the difference between an exotoxin and an endotoxin?
Exotoxins are secreted proteins from gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, highly potent and specific. Endotoxin is lipopolysaccharide (LPS) in the gram-negative outer membrane, released on lysis, causing fever, shock, and DIC.
What general features distinguish viral from bacterial infections pathologically?
Viruses are obligate intracellular pathogens causing cytopathic effects, inclusion bodies, and a predominantly lymphocytic/mononuclear response; bacterial infections typically provoke a neutrophilic (pus-forming) response.
What is the pathophysiology of HIV/AIDS?
HIV infects and depletes CD4+ T-helper cells (binding via gp120 to CD4 and CCR5/CXCR4), progressively destroying cell-mediated immunity and predisposing to opportunistic infections and malignancies when CD4 count falls (AIDS defined at CD4 <200/microL).
GPAT Pathophysiology FAQ
What is in the GPAT Pathophysiology syllabus?
GPAT Pathophysiology is split into 9 chapters: Basic principles of cell injury and adaptation, Neoplastic diseases, Pathophysiology of common diseases, Laboratory tests for Liver function tests and kidney function tests, Immunopathology including amyloidosis, Infectious diseases, Basic mechanisms of inflammation and repair, Disorders of fluid, electrolyte and acid-base balance and Disorders of homeostasis: white blood cells, lymphoid tissues, and red blood cells related diseases. Together they contain 18 topics and 36 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in GPAT Pathophysiology?
9 chapters, containing 18 topics and 36 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Disorders of fluid, electrolyte and acid-base balance, with 3 topics.
Are there flashcards for GPAT Pathophysiology?
Yes — a 59-card Pathophysiology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.