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GPAT Human Anatomy and Physiology Syllabus
The Human Anatomy and Physiology syllabus for GPAT in full: 13 chapters, 30 topics and 9 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 63 Human Anatomy and Physiology flashcards with answers.
Human Anatomy and Physiology syllabus: all 13 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Cell Physiology
3 topics- Cell Structure and Function
- Cellular Metabolism
- Cellular Transport Mechanisms
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Endocrine Glands
2 topics- Hormones and their Functions
- Endocrine Disorders
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Reproductive System
2 topics- Male Reproductive System
- Anatomy of Male Reproductive System
- Physiology of Male Reproductive System
- Female Reproductive System
- Anatomy of Female Reproductive System
- Physiology of Female Reproductive System
- Male Reproductive System
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Gastrointestinal Tract
2 topics- Digestive System
- Mouth and Oral Cavity
- Esophagus and Stomach
- Small and Large Intestine
- Accessory Organs of Digestion
- Liver and Pancreas
- Gallbladder
- Digestive System
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Respiratory System
2 topics- Anatomy of Respiratory System
- Physiology of Respiratory System
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Autonomic Nervous System
2 topics- Sympathetic Nervous System
- Parasympathetic Nervous System
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Cardiovascular System
2 topics- Heart and Blood Vessels
- Blood Circulation
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Lymphatic System
2 topics- Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Vessels
- Immune Response
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The Blood
2 topics- Blood Composition
- Blood Types
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Sense Organs
4 topics- Vision and Eye Structure
- Hearing and Ear Structure
- Taste and Smell
- Touch and Skin Receptors
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Skeletal System
2 topics- Bone Structure and Function
- Joints and Movement
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Central Nervous System
3 topics- Brain Anatomy
- Spinal Cord and Nerves
- Neurotransmitters
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Urinary System
2 topics- Kidney Structure and Function
- Urine Formation and Excretion
GPAT Human Anatomy and Physiology flashcards — 63 questions with answers
What is the function of mitochondria in a cell?
They are the powerhouse of the cell, producing ATP via oxidative phosphorylation (aerobic respiration).
Which organelle is the site of protein synthesis, and which type is bound to the rough ER?
Ribosomes synthesize proteins; ribosomes attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum produce proteins for secretion or membranes.
What are the three stages of cellular (aerobic) respiration and where does each occur?
Glycolysis (cytoplasm), Krebs/citric acid cycle (mitochondrial matrix), and the electron transport chain/oxidative phosphorylation (inner mitochondrial membrane).
How many net ATP molecules are produced from the complete aerobic oxidation of one glucose molecule (classical estimate)?
About 36-38 ATP (commonly cited as 38).
What is the difference between passive and active transport across the cell membrane?
Passive transport moves substances down a concentration gradient without energy (e.g., diffusion, osmosis); active transport moves substances against the gradient and requires ATP (e.g., Na+/K+ pump).
What does the sodium-potassium (Na+/K+) pump do, and what is its stoichiometry?
It actively pumps 3 Na+ out of the cell and 2 K+ in, using one ATP, maintaining the resting membrane potential.
Define osmosis.
The passive movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a region of lower solute concentration to higher solute concentration.
What is the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis?
Endocytosis brings substances into the cell by engulfing them in vesicles; exocytosis expels substances out of the cell by fusing vesicles with the membrane.
Which gland is called the 'master gland' and what regulates it?
The anterior pituitary; it is regulated by the hypothalamus via releasing and inhibiting hormones.
Which hormone lowers blood glucose and which raises it, and where are they produced?
Insulin lowers blood glucose and glucagon raises it; both are produced by the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas (beta and alpha cells respectively).
What hormone does the thyroid gland produce and what is its main function?
Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate basal metabolic rate; the thyroid also produces calcitonin to lower blood calcium.
What causes Diabetes mellitus type 1 versus type 2?
Type 1 results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells causing insulin deficiency; type 2 results from insulin resistance with relative insulin deficiency.
What endocrine disorders result from excess and deficiency of growth hormone in adults and children?
Excess causes gigantism (children) or acromegaly (adults); deficiency causes dwarfism in children.
What conditions are caused by hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism?
Hyperthyroidism causes Graves' disease (weight loss, tachycardia); hypothyroidism causes myxedema in adults and cretinism in children.
What is the primary function of the testes in the male reproductive system?
To produce sperm (spermatogenesis) and secrete testosterone.
Where does sperm mature and what is the function of the seminal vesicles?
Sperm mature in the epididymis; the seminal vesicles secrete fructose-rich fluid that nourishes sperm and forms much of the semen volume.
What are the main functions of the ovaries?
To produce ova (oogenesis) and secrete the female sex hormones estrogen and progesterone.
What are the four phases of the menstrual cycle and which hormone triggers ovulation?
Menstrual, follicular (proliferative), ovulation, and luteal (secretory) phases; ovulation is triggered by a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH).
What is the correct order of the segments of the digestive tract from mouth to anus?
Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, ileum), large intestine (colon), rectum, anus.
Where is most nutrient absorption carried out and by what structures?
In the small intestine, through villi and microvilli that greatly increase surface area.
Show the other 43 Human Anatomy and Physiology flashcards
What are the accessory organs of digestion and one key function of each?
Salivary glands (secrete amylase), liver (produces bile), gallbladder (stores/concentrates bile), and pancreas (secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate).
What is the function of bile and where is it produced and stored?
Bile emulsifies fats to aid digestion; it is produced by the liver and stored/concentrated in the gallbladder.
List the pathway of air through the respiratory system from nose to alveoli.
Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli.
Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs and by what process?
In the alveoli, by simple diffusion across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
What muscles drive inspiration and what happens to the diaphragm during it?
The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles; the diaphragm contracts and flattens, increasing thoracic volume and drawing air in.
What is tidal volume?
The volume of air inhaled or exhaled in a single normal (quiet) breath, approximately 500 mL in adults.
What is the general effect of the sympathetic nervous system on the body?
It produces the 'fight or flight' response: increased heart rate, dilated pupils, bronchodilation, and inhibited digestion.
What is the main neurotransmitter released by postganglionic sympathetic neurons?
Noradrenaline (norepinephrine), except at sweat glands where acetylcholine is used.
What is the general effect of the parasympathetic nervous system?
It produces the 'rest and digest' response: decreased heart rate, constricted pupils, and stimulated digestion.
What neurotransmitter is used by all parasympathetic neurons and which cranial nerve carries most parasympathetic output?
Acetylcholine; the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) carries about 75% of parasympathetic fibers.
What are the four chambers of the heart and which side pumps oxygenated blood?
Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle; the left side pumps oxygenated blood to the body.
What are the three main types of blood vessels and their roles?
Arteries carry blood away from the heart, veins return blood to the heart, and capillaries are sites of exchange between blood and tissues.
Describe the path of blood through pulmonary circulation.
Right ventricle to pulmonary artery to lungs (oxygenation) to pulmonary veins to left atrium.
What is the difference between systemic and pulmonary circulation?
Systemic circulation carries oxygenated blood from the left heart to the body and returns deoxygenated blood; pulmonary circulation carries deoxygenated blood from the right heart to the lungs and returns oxygenated blood.
What are the main functions of the lymphatic system?
To drain excess interstitial fluid, absorb dietary fats (via lacteals), and house immune cells that fight infection.
What is the role of lymph nodes?
They filter lymph, trap pathogens and foreign particles, and house lymphocytes that mount immune responses.
What is the difference between innate and adaptive immunity?
Innate immunity is nonspecific and immediate (skin, phagocytes, inflammation); adaptive immunity is specific, develops over time, and provides memory (B and T lymphocytes).
What is the difference between humoral and cell-mediated immunity?
Humoral immunity is mediated by B cells producing antibodies against extracellular pathogens; cell-mediated immunity uses T cells to destroy infected or abnormal cells.
What are the main components of blood and their approximate proportions?
Plasma (~55%) and formed elements (~45%): red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
What is the main function of red blood cells and the protein involved?
To transport oxygen (and some carbon dioxide), using the protein hemoglobin.
What is the function of platelets (thrombocytes)?
They are essential for blood clotting (hemostasis) by aggregating and releasing clotting factors at sites of injury.
In the ABO blood group system, which is the universal donor and which is the universal recipient?
Type O negative is the universal donor; type AB positive is the universal recipient.
What antigens and antibodies are present in blood type A?
Blood type A has A antigens on red cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma.
What is the function of the retina and which cells detect light?
The retina is the light-sensitive layer of the eye; rods detect dim light/black-and-white and cones detect color and detail.
What part of the eye controls the amount of light entering and which structure focuses light onto the retina?
The iris (via the pupil) controls light entry; the lens (with the cornea) focuses light onto the retina.
What are the three small bones (ossicles) of the middle ear and their function?
Malleus, incus, and stapes; they amplify and transmit sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear.
Which structure of the inner ear is responsible for hearing and which for balance?
The cochlea is responsible for hearing; the semicircular canals (and vestibule) are responsible for balance/equilibrium.
What are the five basic taste sensations detected by taste buds?
Sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami.
Why are taste and smell considered chemical senses, and where are smell receptors located?
Both detect dissolved or airborne chemical molecules; smell (olfactory) receptors are located in the olfactory epithelium in the upper nasal cavity.
Name three types of sensory receptors in the skin and what each detects.
Meissner's corpuscles (light touch), Pacinian corpuscles (deep pressure/vibration), and free nerve endings (pain and temperature).
What are the two main types of bone tissue and how do they differ?
Compact (cortical) bone is dense and forms the outer layer; spongy (cancellous) bone is porous, lighter, and found at bone ends and contains red marrow.
What are the functions of the skeletal system?
Support, protection of organs, movement (with muscles), mineral storage (calcium and phosphorus), and blood cell production (hematopoiesis).
What are the main types of synovial joints? Give an example of each.
Ball-and-socket (hip/shoulder), hinge (elbow/knee), pivot (atlas-axis), gliding (wrist), saddle (thumb), and condyloid (wrist/knuckles).
What are the four major lobes of the cerebrum and one function of each?
Frontal (movement, reasoning), parietal (sensation), temporal (hearing, memory), and occipital (vision).
What is the function of the cerebellum and the medulla oblongata?
The cerebellum coordinates movement and balance; the medulla oblongata controls vital autonomic functions like heart rate and breathing.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are there and what are the two types of nerve roots?
31 pairs of spinal nerves; the dorsal (posterior) root carries sensory input and the ventral (anterior) root carries motor output.
What is a reflex arc?
The neural pathway that mediates a reflex action: receptor, sensory neuron, integration center (spinal cord), motor neuron, and effector, allowing a rapid involuntary response.
What is the function of the neurotransmitter dopamine, and which disease is linked to its deficiency?
Dopamine regulates movement, reward, and motivation; its deficiency in the substantia nigra causes Parkinson's disease.
What is the difference between excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters? Give an example of each.
Excitatory neurotransmitters (e.g., glutamate) increase the likelihood of a nerve impulse; inhibitory ones (e.g., GABA) decrease it.
What is the functional unit of the kidney and roughly how many are in each kidney?
The nephron; there are about 1 million nephrons per kidney.
What are the three main processes of urine formation?
Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion.
Where does glomerular filtration occur and what hormone regulates water reabsorption?
Filtration occurs in the glomerulus (within Bowman's capsule); antidiuretic hormone (ADH/vasopressin) regulates water reabsorption in the collecting ducts.
What is the normal pathway of urine from kidney to elimination?
Nephron/collecting ducts to renal pelvis to ureter to urinary bladder to urethra.
GPAT Human Anatomy and Physiology FAQ
What is in the GPAT Human Anatomy and Physiology syllabus?
GPAT Human Anatomy and Physiology is split into 13 chapters: Cell Physiology, Endocrine Glands, Reproductive System, Gastrointestinal Tract, Respiratory System, Autonomic Nervous System, Cardiovascular System, Lymphatic System, The Blood, Sense Organs, Skeletal System, Central Nervous System and Urinary System. Together they contain 30 topics and 9 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in GPAT Human Anatomy and Physiology?
13 chapters, containing 30 topics and 9 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Sense Organs, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for GPAT Human Anatomy and Physiology?
Yes — a 63-card Human Anatomy and Physiology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.