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GPAT Biochemistry Syllabus
The Biochemistry syllabus for GPAT in full: 9 chapters and 18 topics, every one listed below, plus 52 Biochemistry flashcards with answers.
Biochemistry syllabus: all 9 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Cell
2 topics- Cell Structure
- Cell Function
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Lipids
2 topics- Types of Lipids
- Lipid Metabolism
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Enzymes
2 topics- Enzyme Classification
- Enzyme Kinetics
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Nucleic acids
2 topics- DNA Structure and Function
- RNA Structure and Function
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Vitamins
2 topics- Fat-Soluble Vitamins
- Water-Soluble Vitamins
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Biological oxidations & reductions
2 topics- Redox Reactions
- Oxidation-Reduction in Metabolism
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Carbohydrates
2 topics- Monosaccharides
- Polysaccharides
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Proteins
2 topics- Protein Structure
- Protein Synthesis
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Hereditary diseases
2 topics- Genetic Disorders
- Inherited Metabolic Disorders
GPAT Biochemistry flashcards — 52 questions with answers
What is the defining feature that distinguishes eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells?
Eukaryotic cells have a membrane-bound nucleus and membrane-bound organelles, whereas prokaryotic cells lack a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.
Which organelle is known as the 'powerhouse of the cell' and what is its main function?
The mitochondrion; it generates ATP via oxidative phosphorylation (the electron transport chain) and is the site of the citric acid cycle.
What is the structural model that describes the plasma membrane, and what are its two main components?
The fluid mosaic model; a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins (integral and peripheral), interspersed with cholesterol and carbohydrates.
Which cell organelle is responsible for protein synthesis, and what are its two subunits in eukaryotes?
The ribosome; in eukaryotes it consists of a 60S large subunit and a 40S small subunit (together forming an 80S ribosome).
What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum versus the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
Rough ER (studded with ribosomes) synthesizes and processes proteins; smooth ER synthesizes lipids/steroids, detoxifies drugs, and stores calcium.
What is the primary role of the Golgi apparatus in the cell?
It modifies, sorts, packages, and ships proteins and lipids received from the ER into vesicles for secretion or delivery to other organelles.
What enzymes do lysosomes contain and what is their function?
Lysosomes contain hydrolytic (acid hydrolase) enzymes that digest macromolecules, worn-out organelles (autophagy), and foreign material; they function at acidic pH (~4.5-5).
What is the general structure of a triacylglycerol (triglyceride)?
A glycerol backbone esterified to three fatty acid chains; it is the major storage form of energy in adipose tissue.
How do saturated fatty acids differ structurally from unsaturated fatty acids?
Saturated fatty acids have no C=C double bonds (straight chains, solid at room temp); unsaturated fatty acids have one or more C=C double bonds (kinked chains, liquid at room temp).
What are phospholipids and what is their key structural feature?
Amphipathic lipids with a hydrophilic phosphate-containing head and two hydrophobic fatty acid tails; they form the bilayer of cell membranes.
Which lipid is the precursor of steroid hormones, bile acids, and vitamin D, and contains a four-ring structure?
Cholesterol (a sterol with the cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene/steroid nucleus).
What is beta-oxidation and where does it occur?
The catabolic process that breaks down fatty acids into acetyl-CoA, removing 2 carbons per cycle; it occurs in the mitochondrial matrix and produces FADH2 and NADH.
How many ATP (net) are produced from the complete oxidation of one molecule of palmitate (C16)?
129 ATP by the older count (or ~106 ATP using current P/O ratios); palmitate yields 8 acetyl-CoA, 7 FADH2, and 7 NADH after activation costs 2 ATP.
What molecule shuttles long-chain fatty acids across the inner mitochondrial membrane for beta-oxidation?
Carnitine, via the carnitine shuttle using enzymes CPT-I and CPT-II.
What are ketone bodies, and which three compounds are they?
Water-soluble fuels made from acetyl-CoA in the liver during fasting/starvation: acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, and acetone.
What are the six classes of enzymes in the EC (Enzyme Commission) classification?
Oxidoreductases, Transferases, Hydrolases, Lyases, Isomerases, and Ligases.
Which enzyme class catalyzes hydrolysis reactions (bond cleavage by adding water)?
Hydrolases (EC class 3); examples include lipases, proteases, and phosphatases.
Which enzyme class catalyzes the transfer of electrons (oxidation-reduction reactions)?
Oxidoreductases (EC class 1); examples include dehydrogenases and oxidases.
What does the Michaelis-Menten equation state, and what is its form?
It relates reaction velocity to substrate concentration: v = (Vmax [S]) / (Km + [S]), describing the kinetics of a single-substrate enzyme reaction.
What does the Michaelis constant (Km) represent?
Km is the substrate concentration at which reaction velocity is half of Vmax; a low Km indicates high affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.
Show the other 32 Biochemistry flashcards
How does a competitive inhibitor affect Km and Vmax?
It increases the apparent Km (lowers affinity) but Vmax remains unchanged, because the inhibitor competes at the active site and can be overcome by excess substrate.
How does a non-competitive inhibitor affect Km and Vmax?
It decreases Vmax but Km is unchanged, because it binds at a site other than the active site and is not overcome by increasing substrate.
What is the purpose of the Lineweaver-Burk plot?
It is a double-reciprocal plot (1/v vs 1/[S]) that linearizes the Michaelis-Menten equation; the y-intercept = 1/Vmax and the x-intercept = -1/Km.
What is the structure of DNA according to the Watson-Crick model?
A right-handed double helix of two antiparallel polynucleotide strands held by complementary base pairing (A-T, G-C), with a sugar-phosphate backbone.
State Chargaff's rules for DNA base composition.
In DNA, the amount of adenine equals thymine (A=T) and guanine equals cytosine (G=C); thus purines = pyrimidines.
How many hydrogen bonds form between A-T and between G-C base pairs?
Adenine-Thymine form 2 hydrogen bonds; Guanine-Cytosine form 3 hydrogen bonds (making GC-rich DNA more stable).
What is the function of DNA, and in which direction is it synthesized?
DNA stores and transmits genetic (hereditary) information; it is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction by DNA polymerase.
What are the three main types of RNA and their functions?
mRNA (carries genetic code to ribosomes), tRNA (carries amino acids to the ribosome), and rRNA (structural/catalytic component of ribosomes).
How does RNA differ chemically from DNA?
RNA contains ribose sugar (vs deoxyribose), uracil instead of thymine, and is usually single-stranded; DNA is double-stranded with deoxyribose and thymine.
What is the anticodon, and on which RNA is it found?
A three-nucleotide sequence on tRNA that base-pairs with the complementary codon on mRNA during translation.
Name the four fat-soluble vitamins.
Vitamins A, D, E, and K.
What is the active form of vitamin A in vision, and what deficiency does it cause?
Retinal (11-cis-retinal forms rhodopsin); deficiency causes night blindness and xerophthalmia.
What is the main function of vitamin K, and its deficiency effect?
It is a cofactor for gamma-carboxylation of clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X); deficiency causes impaired blood clotting/bleeding.
What is the principal function of vitamin E?
It acts as a lipid-soluble antioxidant, protecting cell membranes and polyunsaturated fatty acids from free-radical oxidation.
List the water-soluble vitamins of the B-complex group and vitamin C.
B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin), B3 (niacin), B5 (pantothenic acid), B6 (pyridoxine), B7 (biotin), B9 (folate), B12 (cobalamin), and vitamin C (ascorbic acid).
Which vitamin deficiency causes beriberi, and what coenzyme does it form?
Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency causes beriberi; thiamine forms the coenzyme thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP).
What deficiency does vitamin C cause, and what is its key biochemical role?
Deficiency causes scurvy; vitamin C is required for hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen synthesis and acts as an antioxidant.
Which vitamin deficiency causes pernicious anemia and is linked to intrinsic factor?
Vitamin B12 (cobalamin); its absorption requires intrinsic factor secreted by gastric parietal cells.
What is a redox (oxidation-reduction) reaction?
A reaction involving the transfer of electrons; the species that loses electrons is oxidized (reducing agent) and the species that gains electrons is reduced (oxidizing agent).
What are the major electron carriers (coenzymes) in metabolic redox reactions?
NAD+/NADH, NADP+/NADPH, and FAD/FADH2 (and FMN); they shuttle electrons between metabolic reactions and the electron transport chain.
In oxidative phosphorylation, what is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain?
Molecular oxygen (O2), which is reduced to water at Complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase).
What is the general formula of monosaccharides and a common example?
(CH2O)n; e.g., glucose, fructose, and galactose are hexoses with the formula C6H12O6.
What distinguishes an aldose from a ketose monosaccharide?
An aldose has an aldehyde group (e.g., glucose); a ketose has a ketone group (e.g., fructose).
What is the difference between glucose and galactose / glucose and fructose as isomers?
Glucose and galactose are epimers (differ at C-4); glucose and fructose are functional-group isomers (aldose vs ketose), both being C6H12O6.
Name three important polysaccharides and their roles.
Starch (plant energy storage), glycogen (animal energy storage), and cellulose (plant structural component).
How do the glycosidic linkages in starch/glycogen differ from those in cellulose?
Starch and glycogen have alpha-1,4 (and alpha-1,6 branch) linkages digestible by humans; cellulose has beta-1,4 linkages that humans cannot digest.
What are the four levels of protein structure?
Primary (amino acid sequence), secondary (alpha-helix/beta-sheet from H-bonding), tertiary (3D folding of a polypeptide), and quaternary (assembly of multiple subunits).
What type of bond stabilizes the primary structure of a protein, and which stabilize tertiary structure?
Peptide (covalent) bonds stabilize primary structure; tertiary structure is stabilized by H-bonds, disulfide bridges, ionic bonds, and hydrophobic interactions.
What are the three stages of protein synthesis (translation)?
Initiation (ribosome assembles at start codon AUG), elongation (peptide chain grows codon by codon), and termination (release at a stop codon).
What is the start codon and which amino acid does it code for in eukaryotes?
AUG is the start codon; it codes for methionine.
What is sickle cell anemia and its molecular basis?
An inherited disorder caused by a single point mutation in the beta-globin gene (Glu to Val at position 6), producing HbS that polymerizes and distorts red cells into a sickle shape.
What is phenylketonuria (PKU) and which enzyme is deficient?
An inherited metabolic disorder caused by deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase, leading to accumulation of phenylalanine and intellectual disability if untreated.
GPAT Biochemistry FAQ
What is in the GPAT Biochemistry syllabus?
GPAT Biochemistry is split into 9 chapters: Cell, Lipids, Enzymes, Nucleic acids, Vitamins, Biological oxidations & reductions, Carbohydrates, Proteins and Hereditary diseases. Together they contain 18 topics.
How many chapters are in GPAT Biochemistry?
9 chapters, containing 18 topics. The largest chapter is Cell, with 2 topics.
Are there flashcards for GPAT Biochemistry?
Yes — a 52-card Biochemistry deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.