🇬🇧 General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) · subject
General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Patient Care, Consultation and Public Health Syllabus
The Patient Care, Consultation and Public Health syllabus for General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) in full: 4 chapters, 16 topics and 24 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Patient Care, Consultation and Public Health flashcards with answers.
Patient Care, Consultation and Public Health syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Consultation and Communication Skills
4 topics- Structured Consultation Models
- Calgary-Cambridge and patient-centred approaches
- Open and closed questioning
- Shared Decision-Making
- Eliciting patient ideas, concerns and expectations
- Communicating with Diverse Patients
- Health literacy and language barriers
- Reasonable adjustments and accessibility
- Counselling on Medicines
- Device technique demonstration
- Adherence support strategies
- Structured Consultation Models
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Responding to Symptoms and Self-Care
4 topics- Triage and Differential Assessment
- WWHAM and ASMETHOD frameworks
- Red flags and referral criteria
- Minor Ailments Management
- Common conditions amenable to OTC treatment
- Over-the-Counter Medicine Selection
- Cautions, interactions and limits on sale
- Referral and Onward Signposting
- Urgent versus routine referral
- Triage and Differential Assessment
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Public Health and Health Promotion
4 topics- Smoking Cessation
- NRT and pharmacological aids
- Sexual Health and Contraception
- Emergency hormonal contraception
- Routine contraceptive options
- Substance Misuse Services
- Opioid substitution and supervised consumption
- Needle exchange
- Screening and Lifestyle Advice
- Weight, alcohol and cardiovascular risk
- Smoking Cessation
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Special Patient Populations
4 topics- Pregnancy and Breastfeeding
- Teratogenicity and risk assessment
- Drugs in lactation
- Paediatrics
- Age-appropriate formulations and dosing
- Older People and Polypharmacy
- Deprescribing and STOPP/START criteria
- Falls and anticholinergic burden
- Renal and Hepatic Impairment
- Prescribing adjustments
- Pregnancy and Breastfeeding
General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Patient Care, Consultation and Public Health flashcards — 50 questions with answers
In the Calgary-Cambridge consultation model, what are the five sequential tasks (the 'main vertical' of the framework)?
1) Initiating the session, 2) Gathering information, 3) Physical examination, 4) Explanation and planning, and 5) Closing the session. These run alongside two continuous tasks: providing structure and building the relationship.
What does each letter stand for in the WWHAM mnemonic used to assess a patient requesting an OTC product?
W - Who is it for? W - What are the symptoms? H - How long have the symptoms been present? A - Action taken (any treatments tried)? M - Medication being taken (other medicines/conditions)?
What are the elements of the ASMETHOD mnemonic for symptom-based OTC consultations?
A - Age/Appearance; S - Self or someone else; M - Medication; E - Extra medicines; T - Time persisting; H - History; O - Other symptoms; D - Danger symptoms.
Define 'shared decision-making' (SDM) in a clinical consultation as described by NICE.
A collaborative process in which the clinician and patient work together to make decisions about tests, treatments and care, based on clinical evidence and the patient's informed preferences, balancing risks and expected outcomes with what matters most to the patient.
What three questions form the basis of the 'BRAN' / Ask 3 Questions approach to support shared decision-making?
What are the Benefits? What are the Risks? What are the Alternatives? (BRAN, sometimes with N = What if I do Nothing?) This helps patients weigh options.
In the consultation, what is meant by eliciting the patient's 'ICE'?
Ideas (what the patient thinks is going on), Concerns (what they are worried about), and Expectations (what they hope to get from the consultation). Exploring ICE underpins patient-centred and shared decision-making.
When communicating with a patient who has limited English proficiency, why should a professional interpreter be used rather than a family member?
A trained interpreter ensures accurate, impartial, confidential translation of clinical information and avoids errors, omissions, breaches of confidentiality, and conflicts of interest that can arise when family members (especially children) interpret.
What is the 'teach-back' (or 'show me') technique and why is it used when counselling patients?
The patient is asked to explain back in their own words, or demonstrate, what they have understood about their medicine or instructions. It checks comprehension and identifies misunderstandings without making the patient feel tested.
List the core points a pharmacist should cover when counselling a patient on a new medicine.
What the medicine is and what it is for; how and when to take it (dose, route, timing, with/without food); how long to take it; common and serious side effects and what to do; key interactions/foods/alcohol to avoid; how to store it; and what to do if a dose is missed.
What is the recommended advice if a patient misses a dose of a once-daily medicine and remembers later the same day versus close to the next dose?
Take the missed dose as soon as remembered; but if it is almost time for the next dose, skip the missed dose and continue as normal. Never double the dose to make up for a missed one.
Define 'triage' in the context of community pharmacy.
The process of rapidly assessing a patient's presenting symptoms to determine the urgency and appropriate level of care: self-care, pharmacy management, routine GP referral, urgent referral, or emergency (e.g. call 999).
What is the purpose of identifying 'red flag' symptoms during minor ailment assessment?
Red flags are warning features suggesting serious or potentially life-threatening pathology that require urgent referral rather than self-care or OTC treatment (e.g. unexplained weight loss, blood in stool/urine, severe pain, neurological deficit).
In England, what is the NHS Pharmacy First service designed to allow community pharmacists to do?
Assess and, where appropriate, supply prescription-only medicines under Patient Group Directions for seven common conditions, plus manage minor illness and provide urgent repeat medicine supply, reducing GP and urgent care demand.
Name the seven clinical conditions covered by the NHS Pharmacy First (England) clinical pathways.
Acute otitis media, acute sore throat, sinusitis, impetigo, infected insect bites, shingles, and uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTIs) in women aged 16-64.
For acute sore throat, what scoring tools are used in Pharmacy First to assess the likelihood of bacterial (streptococcal) infection?
The FeverPAIN score and the Centor criteria. Higher scores indicate greater likelihood of streptococcal infection and may support antibiotic supply; low scores favour self-care.
What five clinical features make up the FeverPAIN score for acute sore throat?
Fever (in last 24h), Purulence (pus on tonsils), Attend rapidly (within 3 days of onset), severely Inflamed tonsils, and No cough or coryza. Each scores 1 point (0-5).
What four criteria make up the Centor score for sore throat?
Tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, history of fever (>38C), and absence of cough. Each scores 1 point; a score of 3-4 suggests higher probability of streptococcal infection.
When selecting an OTC analgesic, why is ibuprofen generally avoided in a patient with a history of peptic ulcer or on warfarin?
NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase the risk of GI bleeding (direct mucosal damage plus antiplatelet effect) and potentiate the bleeding risk of warfarin, so paracetamol is usually preferred.
What is the maximum recommended OTC daily dose of paracetamol for an adult, and why does exceeding it cause harm?
4 g per day (typically 1 g up to four times daily). Excess saturates conjugation pathways, producing the toxic metabolite NAPQI, which depletes glutathione and causes hepatocellular necrosis.
What is the antidote for paracetamol overdose and how does it work?
N-acetylcysteine (NAC). It replenishes hepatic glutathione stores, allowing detoxification of the toxic metabolite NAPQI and preventing liver damage; it is most effective when given early.
Show the other 30 Patient Care, Consultation and Public Health flashcards
What is meant by 'signposting' versus 'referral' when a patient's needs cannot be met in the pharmacy?
Signposting directs a patient to another service or information source without a formal handover (e.g. to a website, helpline, or self-care). Referral is a formal recommendation/handover to another healthcare professional or service for assessment and management.
What is the structure of the '5 A's' framework for smoking cessation brief intervention?
Ask (about tobacco use), Advise (to quit), Assess (willingness to quit), Assist (with a quit plan/treatment), and Arrange (follow-up).
What is the 'Very Brief Advice' (VBA) model for smoking, and what are its three elements?
A 30-second evidence-based intervention: ASK and record smoking status; ADVISE on the best way to stop (with support and medication); ACT by offering referral to a stop-smoking service and/or pharmacotherapy.
Compare the mechanisms of nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, and bupropion in smoking cessation.
NRT supplies nicotine without tobacco toxins to reduce withdrawal/cravings; varenicline is a partial agonist at alpha-4 beta-2 nicotinic receptors (reduces cravings and blocks reward); bupropion is a noradrenaline/dopamine reuptake inhibitor that reduces cravings.
Why is combination NRT (e.g. a patch plus a faster-acting form) often recommended over a single product?
A long-acting patch provides steady baseline nicotine to control background cravings, while a fast-acting form (gum, lozenge, inhalator, spray) handles acute breakthrough cravings; the combination is more effective than a single product.
For emergency hormonal contraception, compare the time windows and mechanisms of levonorgestrel (LNG) and ulipristal acetate (UPA).
Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg is licensed up to 72 hours after unprotected sex and works mainly by delaying/inhibiting ovulation. Ulipristal acetate 30 mg is effective up to 120 hours; as a selective progesterone receptor modulator it can delay ovulation even after the LH surge has begun, making it more effective closer to ovulation.
What is the most effective form of emergency contraception, and within what timeframe must it be fitted?
The copper intrauterine device (Cu-IUD), which can be fitted up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse (or up to 5 days after the earliest estimated ovulation); it is over 99% effective and also provides ongoing contraception.
What interaction limits the use of ulipristal acetate with regular hormonal contraception, and how is it managed?
Ulipristal (a progesterone receptor modulator) can reduce the efficacy of progestogen-containing contraception, and progestogens reduce UPA's effect. Hormonal contraception should be started/restarted only 5 days after taking UPA, with condoms used in the interim.
Using the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), what UKMEC category means a contraceptive method's risks generally outweigh the benefits (use not usually recommended)?
UKMEC Category 3. (Category 1 = no restriction; 2 = benefits generally outweigh risks; 3 = risks usually outweigh benefits; 4 = unacceptable health risk, method must not be used.)
Why is the combined oral contraceptive pill (containing oestrogen) contraindicated in women with a history of venous thromboembolism or migraine with aura?
Oestrogen increases the risk of VTE and arterial thrombosis/ischaemic stroke. In women with prior VTE or migraine with aura (UKMEC 4), this risk is unacceptable, so progestogen-only or non-hormonal methods are preferred.
In sexual health, what does 'window period' mean for an HIV test?
The time between exposure to HIV and when a test can reliably detect infection. Modern 4th-generation antigen/antibody lab tests are reliable from about 45 days; results before the window closes may be falsely negative and need repeat testing.
What harm-reduction service do community pharmacies provide for people who inject drugs, and what is its purpose?
Needle and syringe programmes (NSP), which provide sterile injecting equipment and safe disposal to reduce transmission of blood-borne viruses (HIV, hepatitis B and C) and other injecting-related harm.
In opioid substitution therapy, compare methadone and buprenorphine in terms of receptor activity and overdose risk.
Methadone is a full mu-opioid receptor agonist with no ceiling on respiratory depression (higher overdose risk). Buprenorphine is a partial mu agonist with a ceiling effect on respiratory depression (safer in overdose) and high receptor affinity, which can precipitate withdrawal if given too soon after other opioids.
What is naloxone, and why is 'take-home naloxone' supplied to people at risk of opioid overdose?
Naloxone is a competitive mu-opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression. Take-home naloxone allows bystanders to treat an overdose while waiting for emergency services, reducing opioid-related deaths.
What lifestyle/screening service do pharmacies offer for cardiovascular risk, and what core measurements does an NHS Health Check include?
Pharmacies offer blood pressure checks and NHS Health Checks (for those aged 40-74). A Health Check assesses BMI, blood pressure, cholesterol, blood glucose/diabetes risk, smoking and alcohol use, physical activity and family history to estimate cardiovascular risk.
What are the UK 'low-risk' alcohol guidelines for adults?
Both men and women should drink no more than 14 units per week on a regular basis, spread over three or more days, with several drink-free days, and avoid 'saving up' units for a single session.
What is the standard advice on folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy, and the higher-risk dose?
400 micrograms daily before conception and until 12 weeks of pregnancy to reduce neural tube defects. A higher dose of 5 mg daily is recommended for higher-risk women (e.g. diabetes, BMI >30, on antiepileptics, previous NTD-affected pregnancy, sickle cell).
Why is sodium valproate contraindicated in pregnancy, and what programme governs its use in women of childbearing potential?
Valproate is highly teratogenic, causing congenital malformations and neurodevelopmental disorders. The Pregnancy Prevention Programme (valproate PPP) requires highly effective contraception and annual specialist review; it must not be used in pregnancy unless no alternative exists.
Which common medicines should be avoided in the third trimester of pregnancy, and why?
NSAIDs (e.g. ibuprofen) can cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus and oligohydramnios; ACE inhibitors/ARBs cause fetal renal damage and oligohydramnios. Both are best avoided, especially in the third trimester.
Why is aspirin generally avoided in children under 16, and what is the exception?
Aspirin is linked with Reye's syndrome (acute encephalopathy and liver failure) in children. It is contraindicated under 16 except for specific uses such as Kawasaki disease, where it is used under specialist supervision.
How are paediatric medicine doses most accurately calculated, and why is body weight preferred over age?
Doses are usually calculated per kilogram of body weight (mg/kg) or by body surface area, because children of the same age vary widely in weight; weight-based dosing gives a more accurate, individualised dose. Always check against the maximum adult dose.
State the formula relating an oral liquid dose volume to the prescribed dose and the medicine's concentration.
$$\text{Volume} = \frac{\text{Dose required (mg)}}{\text{Concentration (mg/mL)}}$$ For example, a 250 mg dose from a 125 mg/5 mL suspension needs $\frac{250}{25} = 10\ \text{mL}$.
Define 'polypharmacy' and distinguish 'appropriate' from 'problematic' polypharmacy.
Polypharmacy is the concurrent use of multiple medicines (often defined as 5 or more). Appropriate polypharmacy optimises therapy for complex/multiple conditions in line with evidence; problematic polypharmacy is when medicines cause more harm than benefit (interactions, poor adherence, increased adverse effects).
What is a 'structured medication review' (SMR) and what is its main aim in older people on multiple medicines?
A comprehensive, patient-centred clinical review of all of a patient's medicines, undertaken with the patient. It aims to optimise medicines use, deprescribe inappropriate or unnecessary drugs, reduce harm and adverse effects, and align treatment with the patient's goals.
Name two validated screening tools used to identify potentially inappropriate prescribing in older adults.
The STOPP/START criteria (Screening Tool of Older People's Prescriptions / Screening Tool to Alert to Right Treatment) and the Beers Criteria. They flag drugs to stop and drugs that should be considered/started in older people.
In older patients, why are anticholinergic medicines a concern, and what term describes their cumulative effect?
Anticholinergics cause confusion, falls, urinary retention, constipation, dry mouth and cognitive impairment, and are linked with increased dementia risk. The cumulative effect of multiple such drugs is the 'anticholinergic burden', which should be minimised in the elderly.
Which equations are used to estimate renal function, and which is preferred for drug dose adjustment of renally-cleared, narrow-therapeutic-index drugs?
eGFR (CKD-EPI or MDRD, reported per 1.73 m^2) is used to stage CKD, while the Cockcroft-Gault estimate of creatinine clearance is preferred for dosing many renally-cleared drugs (especially toxic/narrow-index drugs and in extremes of body weight).
State the Cockcroft-Gault equation for estimating creatinine clearance.
$$\text{CrCl} = \frac{(140 - \text{age}) \times \text{weight (kg)} \times F}{\text{serum creatinine (}\mu mol/L)} \times 1.23$$ where $F = 1.04$ for females and $1.23$ is replaced so that males use a factor of $1.23$ ($F=1$ female adjustment). In practice: multiply by 1.23 for men and 1.04 for women.
In renal impairment, which common analgesics and antidiabetic drugs require caution, and why?
NSAIDs reduce renal perfusion and can worsen kidney function; opioids like morphine accumulate active metabolites causing toxicity. Metformin risks lactic acidosis and should be reviewed/stopped at low eGFR (avoid if eGFR <30 mL/min/1.73 m^2).
In significant hepatic impairment, why must drugs such as warfarin, opioids, and statins be used with caution?
The liver synthesises clotting factors (enhancing warfarin's effect and bleeding risk), metabolises many drugs (so opioids and sedatives accumulate, risking encephalopathy), and is the site of statin metabolism and a target for hepatotoxicity, so reduced or avoided dosing and monitoring are needed.
General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Patient Care, Consultation and Public Health FAQ
What is in the General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Patient Care, Consultation and Public Health syllabus?
General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Patient Care, Consultation and Public Health is split into 4 chapters: Consultation and Communication Skills, Responding to Symptoms and Self-Care, Public Health and Health Promotion and Special Patient Populations. Together they contain 16 topics and 24 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Patient Care, Consultation and Public Health?
4 chapters, containing 16 topics and 24 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Consultation and Communication Skills, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Patient Care, Consultation and Public Health?
Yes — a 50-card Patient Care, Consultation and Public Health deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.