🇬🇧 General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) · subject
General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Law, Ethics and Professional Practice Syllabus
The Law, Ethics and Professional Practice syllabus for General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) in full: 4 chapters, 16 topics and 27 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Law, Ethics and Professional Practice flashcards with answers.
Law, Ethics and Professional Practice syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Medicines Legislation and Classification
4 topics- Legal Categories of Medicines
- GSL, P and POM classification
- Reclassification and switches
- Human Medicines Regulations 2012
- Sale and supply requirements
- Wholesale dealing and falsified medicines
- Prescription Requirements
- Legally valid prescription elements
- Prescriber types and scope
- Electronic prescriptions and repeats
- Record Keeping and Retention
- Prescription-only medicine registers
- Legal Categories of Medicines
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Controlled Drugs
4 topics- Misuse of Drugs Act and Schedules
- Schedules 1 to 5 classification
- Prescription Requirements for Controlled Drugs
- Handwriting, quantity in words and figures, validity period
- Safe Custody, Storage and Destruction
- CD cabinet and register requirements
- Witnessed destruction and denaturing
- Accountable Officer and CD Governance
- Reporting concerns and CD monitoring
- Misuse of Drugs Act and Schedules
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Professional Ethics and Standards
4 topics- GPhC Standards for Pharmacy Professionals
- The nine standards
- Person-centred care
- Consent, Capacity and Confidentiality
- Mental Capacity Act principles
- Gillick competence and young people
- Data protection and information governance
- Ethical Decision-Making
- Ethical frameworks and balancing duties
- Conscientious objection
- Raising Concerns and Duty of Candour
- Whistleblowing and safeguarding
- GPhC Standards for Pharmacy Professionals
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Pharmacy Governance and Regulation
4 topics- Registration and Fitness to Practise
- GPhC registration and revalidation
- Fitness to practise process
- Responsible Pharmacist Regulations
- Duties and absence rules
- Standard Operating Procedures and Audit
- Clinical governance pillars
- Veterinary and Special Categories
- Veterinary medicine cascade overview
- Unlicensed medicines and specials
- Registration and Fitness to Practise
General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Law, Ethics and Professional Practice flashcards — 51 questions with answers
What are the three legal categories of medicines in the UK?
General Sale List (GSL), Pharmacy medicines (P), and Prescription Only Medicines (POM).
What distinguishes a Pharmacy (P) medicine from a GSL medicine?
A P medicine can only be sold from a registered pharmacy under the supervision of a pharmacist, whereas a GSL medicine can be sold from any lawful retail outlet (e.g. supermarket) without pharmacist supervision.
What conditions must normally be met for a POM to be supplied lawfully?
It must be supplied against a valid prescription written by an appropriate practitioner (or under a PGD/exemption), from a registered pharmacy, by or under the supervision of a pharmacist.
Which legislation is the primary framework governing the licensing, sale and supply of medicines in the UK?
The Human Medicines Regulations 2012 (which consolidated and replaced most of the Medicines Act 1968).
Under the Human Medicines Regulations 2012, what is a 'wholesale dealer's licence' required for?
It is required to legally sell or supply medicinal products to anyone other than the end patient/consumer (i.e. business-to-business supply such as to another pharmacy or wholesaler).
List the core particulars that must appear on a valid POM prescription under the Human Medicines Regulations 2012.
Patient's name and address; signature (in ink) of the prescriber; prescriber's address; date; particulars indicating the prescriber's type; and for a child under 12, the age. The medicine, dose and quantity must also be stated.
For how long is a standard (non-CD) POM prescription valid from its appropriate date?
6 months from the appropriate date (the later of the date of signing or any indicated start date).
How long is a repeatable prescription for a non-controlled drug valid, and how must the first dispensing occur?
It is valid for 6 months; the first dispensing must take place within 6 months of the appropriate date (for oral contraceptives the limit is generally treated more flexibly but the same 6-month rule applies).
What is the difference between a written prescription and an electronic prescription's legal status under the Human Medicines Regulations 2012?
Both are valid; an electronic prescription must be created in electronic form, signed with an advanced electronic signature and transmitted as an electronic communication via an approved system (e.g. EPS).
What is the minimum legal retention period for POM prescription records (private prescription register/electronic equivalent)?
2 years from the date of the sale or supply (or from the date of the last entry where it is a record of repeated dispensing).
For how long must records relating to wholesale dealing (receipt and supply of medicines) be kept?
At least 5 years.
What is the legal record-keeping requirement for the supply of a Schedule 2 controlled drug?
Entry in the Controlled Drugs Register (CDR) within 24 hours, and the CDR must be retained for at least 2 years from the date of the last entry.
Which Act provides the primary criminal-law framework for controlling dangerous or harmful drugs in the UK?
The Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, supported by the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001.
Under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, what do the three classes A, B and C represent?
They classify controlled drugs by harm for the purpose of penalties: Class A (most harmful, e.g. heroin, cocaine, morphine), Class B (e.g. codeine, cannabis), Class C (e.g. benzodiazepines, anabolic steroids).
Describe the five Schedules of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001.
Schedule 1: no medicinal use, Home Office licence needed (e.g. LSD, raw cannabis). Schedule 2: full CD controls (e.g. morphine, diamorphine, methadone). Schedule 3: e.g. buprenorphine, temazepam, midazolam, tramadol. Schedule 4: Part I benzodiazepines/Part II anabolic steroids. Schedule 5: low-strength preparations with minimal controls.
Which Schedule of controlled drug requires safe custody, a CD register entry, AND a fully compliant CD prescription?
Schedule 2 (and certain Schedule 3 drugs such as temazepam are exempt from CD register requirements, while buprenorphine requires safe custody).
What specific particulars must a Schedule 2 or 3 controlled drug prescription contain in addition to standard prescription requirements?
The total quantity of the preparation (or number of dosage units) in both words and figures; the form and strength of the preparation; the dose to be taken; the prescriber's signature and date; and the patient's full name and address.
For how long is a Schedule 2, 3 or 4 controlled drug prescription valid from the appropriate date?
28 days from the appropriate date.
What is the maximum quantity of a Schedule 2, 3 or 4 CD that should normally be prescribed on a single prescription?
A quantity intended to last no more than 30 days (this is best practice/strong recommendation, not an absolute legal limit).
When a Schedule 2 or 3 CD prescription is dispensed by instalments, what is required and what is the maximum collection period?
An instalment direction specifying the amount per instalment and the interval; the first instalment must be dispensed within 28 days of the appropriate date, and the total treatment period for instalment prescriptions is generally up to 14 days (for addiction treatment under FP10MDA/instalment forms).
Show the other 31 Law, Ethics and Professional Practice flashcards
Which controlled drugs are subject to Safe Custody Regulations requirements?
All Schedule 1 and Schedule 2 drugs (with a few exceptions), and Schedule 3 drugs such as buprenorphine, temazepam (temazepam itself is exempt), diethylpropion, and flunitrazepam must be kept in a locked cabinet meeting BS legal specifications.
What are the legal specifications for a controlled drugs cabinet under the Safe Custody Regulations?
It must be a locked safe, cabinet or room constructed and maintained to prevent unauthorised access (the Misuse of Drugs (Safe Custody) Regulations 1973 specify minimum construction standards).
How must out-of-date or unwanted Schedule 2 controlled drug stock be destroyed in a pharmacy?
It must be denatured/rendered irretrievable and witnessed by an authorised person (e.g. an Accountable Officer or authorised witness such as a GPhC inspector or police), with the destruction recorded in the CD register.
Do patient-returned controlled drugs require an authorised witness for destruction?
No; patient-returned CDs can be destroyed by a pharmacist (denatured) and a record made in a separate patient-returned CD record, but this entry is not made in the running CD register and an authorised witness is not legally required (though good practice recommends a second signature).
What is the role of the Accountable Officer (AO) in controlled drug governance?
The AO is a senior person responsible for the safe, appropriate and effective management and use of controlled drugs within their organisation, including monitoring, auditing, and reporting concerns to the Local Intelligence Network.
Which regulations introduced the role of the CD Accountable Officer?
The Controlled Drugs (Supervision of Management and Use) Regulations 2013 (in England/Scotland; equivalent arrangements elsewhere).
What is a Local Intelligence Network (LIN) in the context of CD governance?
A network coordinated by Accountable Officers that shares information and concerns about the management and use of controlled drugs to identify and act on risks or malpractice.
Name the GPhC's standards document that all pharmacists and pharmacy technicians must meet.
The Standards for Pharmacy Professionals (2017), comprising nine standards.
State the nine GPhC Standards for Pharmacy Professionals.
1) Provide person-centred care; 2) Work in partnership with others; 3) Communicate effectively; 4) Maintain, develop and use professional knowledge and skills; 5) Use professional judgement; 6) Behave professionally; 7) Respect and maintain confidentiality and privacy; 8) Speak up when there are concerns; 9) Demonstrate leadership.
What does 'person-centred care' (Standard 1) require of a pharmacy professional?
Adapting care to the individual's needs, values and preferences, obtaining consent, considering the whole person, and empowering them to make decisions about their own health.
What three elements are required for consent to be legally valid?
It must be given voluntarily, by a person with capacity, who is appropriately informed about the nature and purpose of the intervention.
Under the Mental Capacity Act 2005, what are the two stages of the test for capacity?
Stage 1: Is there an impairment of, or disturbance in, the functioning of the mind or brain? Stage 2 (functional test): Is the person unable to understand, retain, weigh/use the information, or communicate the decision?
What are the five statutory principles of the Mental Capacity Act 2005?
1) Presumption of capacity; 2) Support people to make their own decisions; 3) Unwise decisions do not mean lack of capacity; 4) Acts for those lacking capacity must be in their best interests; 5) Choose the least restrictive option.
What is Gillick competence / Fraser guidelines used for?
To assess whether a child under 16 has sufficient maturity and understanding to consent to their own treatment (Gillick competence); Fraser guidelines specifically apply to contraceptive/sexual health advice for under-16s.
When may a pharmacist lawfully disclose confidential patient information without consent?
When required by law (e.g. court order, notifiable disease), when there is an overriding public interest (e.g. risk of serious harm to the patient or others), or to safeguard a child or vulnerable adult.
What four common steps underpin an ethical decision-making framework in pharmacy?
Identify the ethical dilemma/relevant facts; consider the options and relevant standards/law; weigh the benefits, risks and duties (the patient's best interests); make and document a justifiable decision, then review the outcome.
What are the four key biomedical ethics principles (Beauchamp and Childress)?
Autonomy, Beneficence, Non-maleficence, and Justice.
What is the difference between beneficence and non-maleficence?
Beneficence is the duty to act in the patient's best interest and do good; non-maleficence is the duty to avoid causing harm ('first, do no harm').
What does GPhC Standard 8 ('speak up') require when you have concerns about safety?
You must raise concerns promptly if patients or the public are, or may be, at risk, even if it is not easy, and escalate them appropriately until they are addressed.
What is the professional 'duty of candour'?
The duty to be open and honest with patients (and colleagues/organisations) when something goes wrong with their care that has caused, or could cause, harm or distress, including offering an apology and explanation.
Distinguish the professional duty of candour from the statutory duty of candour.
The professional duty applies to individual registrants under GPhC/regulatory standards for all errors/near-misses; the statutory duty (Health and Social Care Act 2008 regulations) applies to organisations and is triggered only by a defined notifiable safety incident causing moderate/severe harm or death.
What legislation protects employees who 'blow the whistle' on wrongdoing?
The Public Interest Disclosure Act 1998 (PIDA), which protects workers who make qualifying disclosures in the public interest from detriment or dismissal.
What are the GPhC's requirements for registration as a pharmacist in Great Britain?
Completion of an accredited MPharm degree and foundation training year, passing the GPhC registration assessment, meeting fitness-to-practise/health and character requirements, and paying the registration fee.
What is 'fitness to practise' and what can trigger a GPhC investigation?
Fitness to practise means having the skills, knowledge, character and health to practise safely and effectively. Triggers include misconduct, deficient professional performance, criminal convictions, ill health, or a determination by another regulator.
What sanctions can the GPhC's Fitness to Practise Committee impose?
No action, advice/warning, conditions on practice, suspension from the register, or removal (erasure) from the register; interim measures (interim suspension/conditions) can also be applied during investigation.
Under the Responsible Pharmacist Regulations 2008, what must each registered pharmacy have?
A Responsible Pharmacist (RP) in charge of the pharmacy, who must secure the safe and effective running of the pharmacy in relation to the retail sale/supply of medicines.
What three things must a Responsible Pharmacist establish, maintain and operate?
A record (the RP record showing who the RP is and the times in charge), the pharmacy procedures (SOPs), and a notice displaying the RP's name and registration number.
For how long may a Responsible Pharmacist be absent from the pharmacy, and under what conditions?
Up to a maximum of 2 hours during the pharmacy's operating hours; during absence the RP remains contactable and able to return, arrangements are in place, and no POM/P sale or supply requiring a pharmacist may take place.
What is the purpose of Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) in a pharmacy?
To document the agreed, safe and consistent method for carrying out tasks (e.g. dispensing), define responsibilities, support training and audit, and reduce errors. They must be reviewed regularly and accessible to staff.
What is the purpose of a clinical audit cycle in pharmacy practice?
To systematically review practice against defined standards, identify gaps, implement change, and re-audit to confirm improvement — a continuous quality-improvement loop (set standards, observe practice, compare, change, re-audit).
How may veterinary medicines be supplied, and what classification system applies?
Under the Veterinary Medicines Regulations; categories are POM-V (vet prescription only), POM-VPS (prescribed by vet/pharmacist/SQP), NFA-VPS (non-food animal, by vet/pharmacist/SQP), and AVM-GSL (general sale). Records of POM-V/POM-VPS supplies must be kept for 5 years.
General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Law, Ethics and Professional Practice FAQ
What is in the General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Law, Ethics and Professional Practice syllabus?
General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Law, Ethics and Professional Practice is split into 4 chapters: Medicines Legislation and Classification, Controlled Drugs, Professional Ethics and Standards and Pharmacy Governance and Regulation. Together they contain 16 topics and 27 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Law, Ethics and Professional Practice?
4 chapters, containing 16 topics and 27 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Medicines Legislation and Classification, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for General Pharmaceutical Council Registration Assessment (GPhC Assessment) Law, Ethics and Professional Practice?
Yes — a 51-card Law, Ethics and Professional Practice deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.