Examius

🇬🇧 UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) · subject

UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Medicine and Long-Term Conditions Syllabus

The Medicine and Long-Term Conditions syllabus for UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) in full: 7 chapters, 36 topics and 100 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Medicine and Long-Term Conditions flashcards with answers.

7Chapters
36Topics
100Sub-topics
51Flashcards

Medicine and Long-Term Conditions syllabus: all 7 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Cardiovascular and Respiratory Medicine

     6 topics
    • Ischaemic heart disease and heart failure
      • Stable angina and secondary prevention
      • Heart failure diagnosis and management
      • Cardiovascular risk assessment (QRISK)
    • Arrhythmias and hypertension
      • Atrial fibrillation and anticoagulation
      • Conduction disorders and heart block
      • Hypertension diagnosis and stepwise management
    • Valvular, vascular and structural disease
      • Aortic and mitral valve disease
      • Infective endocarditis
      • Peripheral and venous thromboembolic disease
    • Airways disease
      • Asthma diagnosis and stepwise management
      • COPD and long-term oxygen therapy
      • Bronchiectasis
    • Respiratory infection and pleural disease
      • Pneumonia (CURB-65)
      • Tuberculosis
      • Pleural effusion and pneumothorax
    • Lung cancer, interstitial and sleep disorders
      • Lung cancer and pulmonary nodules
      • Interstitial and occupational lung disease
      • Sleep-disordered breathing

  2. Gastroenterology, Hepatology and Renal Medicine

     5 topics
    • Upper and lower GI disorders
      • Peptic ulcer disease and H. pylori
      • Reflux, dyspepsia and alarm symptoms
      • Coeliac disease and irritable bowel syndrome
    • Inflammatory and bleeding GI disease
      • Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis
      • Upper and lower gastrointestinal bleeding
    • Liver and pancreaticobiliary disease
      • Cirrhosis and its complications
      • Viral, alcohol-related and fatty liver disease
      • Acute and chronic pancreatitis
      • Jaundice and gallstone disease
    • Acute and chronic kidney disease
      • Acute kidney injury and its causes
      • Chronic kidney disease staging and complications
      • Dialysis and transplantation principles
    • Glomerular disease and electrolyte disorders
      • Nephrotic and nephritic syndromes
      • Sodium and potassium disturbances
      • Acid-base disorders
      • Urinary tract infection and renal stones

  3. Endocrinology and Metabolic Medicine

     5 topics
    • Diabetes mellitus
      • Type 1 and type 2 diagnosis and management
      • Diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state
      • Microvascular and macrovascular complications
      • Hypoglycaemia
    • Thyroid disease
      • Hyperthyroidism and thyroid storm
      • Hypothyroidism and myxoedema
      • Thyroid nodules and cancer
    • Adrenal disorders
      • Addison's disease and adrenal crisis
      • Cushing's syndrome
      • Phaeochromocytoma and Conn's syndrome
    • Pituitary and calcium disorders
      • Hypopituitarism and pituitary tumours
      • Diabetes insipidus and SIADH
      • Hyper- and hypocalcaemia and parathyroid disease
    • Lipid disorders and obesity

  4. Neurology

     6 topics
    • Cerebrovascular disease
      • Acute stroke and thrombolysis/thrombectomy
      • Transient ischaemic attack
      • Intracranial haemorrhage
    • Headache disorders
      • Migraine and tension-type headache
      • Cluster headache
      • Secondary headaches and red flags
    • Seizures and epilepsy
      • Classification and diagnosis
      • Anti-epileptic management
      • Status epilepticus
    • Neurodegenerative and movement disorders
      • Parkinson's disease
      • Dementia subtypes
      • Motor neurone disease
    • Neuromuscular and demyelinating disease
      • Multiple sclerosis
      • Guillain-Barre syndrome and myasthenia gravis
      • Peripheral neuropathies
    • CNS infection and raised intracranial pressure
      • Meningitis and encephalitis
      • Space-occupying lesions

  5. Musculoskeletal, Rheumatology and Immunology

     5 topics
    • Inflammatory arthritis
      • Rheumatoid arthritis
      • Seronegative spondyloarthropathies
      • Crystal arthropathies (gout and pseudogout)
    • Connective tissue disease and vasculitis
      • Systemic lupus erythematosus
      • Giant cell arteritis and polymyalgia rheumatica
      • Systemic sclerosis and Sjogren's syndrome
    • Degenerative and metabolic bone disease
      • Osteoarthritis
      • Osteoporosis and fracture risk
      • Osteomalacia and Paget's disease
    • Soft tissue and regional pain
      • Mechanical back pain and red flags
      • Common joint and tendon disorders
    • Septic arthritis and bone infection

  6. Haematology, Oncology and Infectious Diseases

     5 topics
    • Anaemia and haematological malignancy
      • Iron, B12 and folate deficiency anaemia
      • Haemolytic anaemia
      • Leukaemias, lymphomas and myeloma
    • Haemostasis, thrombosis and transfusion
      • Bleeding disorders and thrombocytopenia
      • Thrombophilia and anticoagulation
      • Blood components and transfusion reactions
    • Principles of oncology
      • Cancer pathways and staging
      • Oncological emergencies
      • Systemic anti-cancer therapy and radiotherapy principles
    • Infection and antimicrobials
      • Antimicrobial stewardship and resistance
      • Healthcare-associated infection and infection control
    • Systemic, viral and travel-related infection
      • HIV and opportunistic infections
      • Viral hepatitis and mononucleosis
      • Malaria and the returning traveller with fever

  7. Dermatology

     4 topics
    • Inflammatory skin disease
      • Eczema and dermatitis
      • Psoriasis
      • Acne and rosacea
    • Skin cancer and lesions
      • Melanoma
      • Basal and squamous cell carcinoma
      • Benign lesions and the urgent referral pathway
    • Skin infection and infestation
      • Cellulitis and erysipelas
      • Fungal and viral skin infection
      • Scabies
    • Dermatological emergencies
      • Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis
      • Erythroderma and necrotising fasciitis

UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Medicine and Long-Term Conditions flashcards — 51 questions with answers

  1. What ECG changes occur in the evolution of an acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), and what is the gold-standard diagnostic biomarker?

    Sequence: hyperacute peaked T waves → ST elevation → pathological Q waves → T-wave inversion → ST normalisation. The gold-standard biomarker is high-sensitivity cardiac troponin (T or I), which rises within 3-6 hours and peaks at ~12-24 hours.

  2. State the New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification of heart failure.

    Class I: no symptoms with ordinary activity. Class II: slight limitation, symptoms with ordinary activity. Class III: marked limitation, symptoms with less-than-ordinary activity. Class IV: symptoms at rest. Higher class = worse prognosis.

  3. Which four drug classes form the prognostic foundation ('four pillars') of guideline-directed therapy for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?

    1) ACE inhibitor/ARB or ARNI (sacubitril-valsartan), 2) beta-blocker, 3) mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (e.g. spironolactone/eplerenone), 4) SGLT2 inhibitor (e.g. dapagliflozin). All reduce mortality.

  4. In atrial fibrillation, what does each component of the CHA2DS2-VASc score represent and what does it determine?

    Congestive heart failure (1), Hypertension (1), Age ≥75 (2), Diabetes (1), Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism (2), Vascular disease (1), Age 65-74 (1), Sex category female (1). It estimates stroke risk to guide anticoagulation.

  5. What are the thresholds for diagnosing hypertension using clinic and ambulatory (ABPM) blood pressure under NICE staging?

    Stage 1: clinic $\geq 140/90$ mmHg and ABPM $\geq 135/85$. Stage 2: clinic $\geq 160/100$ and ABPM $\geq 150/95$. Severe (stage 3): clinic systolic $\geq 180$ or diastolic $\geq 120$ mmHg.

  6. Contrast the murmurs of aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation, including character, location and radiation.

    Aortic stenosis: ejection systolic murmur, loudest at right upper sternal edge, radiates to the carotids, with a slow-rising pulse. Mitral regurgitation: pansystolic murmur, loudest at the apex, radiates to the axilla.

  7. What is the classic clinical triad of severe symptomatic aortic stenosis, and what does it indicate?

    Syncope, Angina, and Dyspnoea (heart failure). Onset of any of these in severe AS indicates poor prognosis and is an indication for valve replacement (surgical or TAVI).

  8. Describe the typical presentation of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) rupture and the screening/threshold for elective repair.

    Ruptured AAA: sudden severe abdominal/back pain, pulsatile expansile mass, hypotension/collapse. UK screens men at age 65. Elective repair is considered when diameter $\geq 5.5$ cm, growth $> 1$ cm/year, or symptomatic.

  9. How is the severity of airflow obstruction in COPD graded by spirometry (GOLD/post-bronchodilator FEV1)?

    Diagnosis requires post-bronchodilator $\frac{FEV_1}{FVC} < 0.7$. Severity by FEV1 % predicted: Stage 1 mild $\geq 80\%$; Stage 2 moderate 50-79%; Stage 3 severe 30-49%; Stage 4 very severe $< 30\%$.

  10. What is the stepwise pharmacological management of chronic asthma in adults per current BTS/NICE guidance?

    Start with low-dose ICS/formoterol as combined reliever and maintenance (MART). Escalate to low-dose then moderate-dose MART, then add LAMA or refer. Inhaled corticosteroid is the cornerstone anti-inflammatory; SABA-only treatment is no longer recommended.

  11. State the CURB-65 score components and how the total guides management of community-acquired pneumonia.

    Confusion, Urea $> 7$ mmol/L, Respiratory rate $\geq 30$, Blood pressure $< 90$ systolic or $\leq 60$ diastolic, age $\geq 65$. Score 0-1: home; 2: consider admission; $\geq 3$: hospital/consider ICU.

  12. What pleural fluid biochemistry distinguishes an exudate from a transudate (Light's criteria)?

    Exudate if any: pleural/serum protein $> 0.5$; pleural/serum LDH $> 0.6$; pleural LDH $> \frac{2}{3}$ upper limit of normal serum LDH. Transudates (protein $< 25$ g/L) suggest heart failure, cirrhosis; exudates suggest infection/malignancy.

  13. Differentiate small cell lung cancer (SCLC) from non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) in terms of behaviour and treatment.

    SCLC: central, highly aggressive, strongly smoking-associated, often metastatic at presentation, causes paraneoplastic syndromes (SIADH, ectopic ACTH, Lambert-Eaton); chemo/radiotherapy is mainstay (rarely surgical). NSCLC (adeno, squamous, large cell): slower, may be resectable if early; targeted therapy for mutations.

  14. What are the classic features of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) on examination and imaging?

    Progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, fine bibasal end-inspiratory 'velcro' crackles, and finger clubbing. High-resolution CT shows a usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP) pattern: bibasal subpleural reticulation and honeycombing. Spirometry is restrictive (reduced FVC, preserved/raised $\frac{FEV_1}{FVC}$).

  15. Define obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) and the first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe disease.

    OSA: repetitive upper-airway collapse during sleep causing apnoeas/hypopnoeas, with daytime somnolence (assessed by Epworth Sleepiness Scale) confirmed on polysomnography. First-line for moderate-severe disease is continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), plus weight loss and avoidance of alcohol/sedatives.

  16. What are the alarm ('red flag') symptoms of dyspepsia that warrant urgent upper GI endoscopy (ALARMS)?

    Anaemia (iron deficiency), Loss of weight, Anorexia, Recent onset/progressive symptoms, Melaena/haematemesis, Swallowing difficulty (dysphagia). Also age $> 55$ with new persistent dyspepsia. These raise concern for upper GI malignancy.

  17. Compare ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease in distribution, depth, and histology.

    Ulcerative colitis: continuous inflammation from rectum proximally, limited to colon, mucosal-only, crypt abscesses, no granulomas. Crohn's disease: skip lesions anywhere mouth-to-anus, transmural inflammation, non-caseating granulomas, cobblestoning, fistulae and strictures.

  18. What is the eradication therapy for Helicobacter pylori-associated peptic ulcer disease?

    Triple therapy for 7 days: a proton pump inhibitor plus two antibiotics — typically amoxicillin plus either clarithromycin or metronidazole (with clarithromycin + metronidazole if penicillin-allergic). Confirm eradication with urea breath test or stool antigen.

  19. List the components of the Glasgow-Blatchford and Rockall scores' purpose in upper GI bleeding.

    Glasgow-Blatchford (pre-endoscopy): uses urea, haemoglobin, systolic BP, pulse, melaena, syncope, hepatic/cardiac disease to predict need for intervention; score 0 may allow outpatient management. Rockall (post-endoscopy) predicts rebleeding and mortality using age, shock, comorbidity and endoscopic findings.

  20. What is the most common cause of cirrhosis decompensation presenting with confusion, and how is hepatic encephalopathy managed?

    Hepatic encephalopathy, often triggered by infection, GI bleed, constipation or electrolyte disturbance. Management: treat the precipitant, lactulose (titrated to 2-3 soft stools/day) to reduce ammonia, and rifaximin to reduce ammonia-producing gut bacteria.

Show the other 31 Medicine and Long-Term Conditions flashcards

  1. Distinguish the biliary causes of acute pancreatitis and state the two main aetiologies (mnemonic).

    The two commonest causes are Gallstones and Ethanol (alcohol). Wider mnemonic 'I GET SMASHED': Idiopathic, Gallstones, Ethanol, Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune, Scorpion sting, Hypercalcaemia/Hyperlipidaemia, ERCP, Drugs. Diagnosis: amylase/lipase $> 3\times$ upper limit of normal.

  2. What defines acute kidney injury (AKI) by KDIGO criteria?

    Any of: rise in serum creatinine $\geq 26$ µmol/L within 48 h; rise to $\geq 1.5\times$ baseline within 7 days; or urine output $< 0.5$ mL/kg/h for $\geq 6$ h. Causes are categorised as pre-renal, intrinsic (renal), and post-renal (obstructive).

  3. How is chronic kidney disease (CKD) staged by eGFR and albuminuria?

    GFR categories: G1 $\geq 90$, G2 60-89, G3a 45-59, G3b 30-44, G4 15-29, G5 $< 15$ mL/min/1.73m². Albuminuria (ACR): A1 $< 3$, A2 3-30, A3 $> 30$ mg/mmol. CKD requires abnormality persisting $> 3$ months.

  4. Compare nephritic and nephrotic syndromes by their defining features.

    Nephritic: haematuria, hypertension, oliguria, mild proteinuria, red cell casts (e.g. IgA nephropathy, post-streptococcal GN). Nephrotic: proteinuria $> 3.5$ g/24h, hypoalbuminaemia ($< 30$ g/L), oedema, and hyperlipidaemia (e.g. minimal change, membranous, FSGS).

  5. What ECG changes and emergency treatment are associated with severe hyperkalaemia?

    ECG: tall tented T waves → small/absent P waves → prolonged PR → widened QRS → sine wave/VF. Emergency treatment: IV calcium gluconate (cardiac membrane stabilisation), then insulin with dextrose and nebulised salbutamol to shift potassium intracellularly; treat the cause.

  6. State the diagnostic thresholds for diabetes mellitus using HbA1c, fasting glucose and OGTT.

    Diabetes if HbA1c $\geq 48$ mmol/mol (6.5%), fasting plasma glucose $\geq 7.0$ mmol/L, random/2-h OGTT glucose $\geq 11.1$ mmol/L. In an asymptomatic person two abnormal results are required; one suffices if symptomatic.

  7. Describe the biochemical diagnostic triad of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

    1) Hyperglycaemia (glucose $> 11$ mmol/L or known diabetes), 2) Ketonaemia ($\geq 3$ mmol/L) or significant ketonuria, 3) Acidosis (pH $< 7.3$ or bicarbonate $< 15$ mmol/L). Management: fluid resuscitation, fixed-rate IV insulin, and potassium replacement.

  8. How do the thyroid function test patterns differ in primary hyperthyroidism, primary hypothyroidism, and secondary (pituitary) hypothyroidism?

    Primary hyperthyroidism: low TSH, high T4/T3. Primary hypothyroidism: high TSH, low T4. Secondary hypothyroidism: low/inappropriately normal TSH with low T4 (pituitary failure). TSH is the most sensitive screening test for primary thyroid disease.

  9. What is the classic biochemistry and Synacthen response in primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease)?

    Hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia, and raised ACTH with low cortisol. The short Synacthen (ACTH stimulation) test shows a failure of cortisol to rise. Skin/buccal hyperpigmentation is due to high ACTH. Treat with hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone.

  10. Outline the screening and confirmatory tests for Cushing's syndrome.

    Screening: overnight/low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (failure to suppress cortisol), 24-h urinary free cortisol, or late-night salivary cortisol. Then measure ACTH to localise: high-dose dexamethasone suppression and imaging distinguish pituitary (Cushing's disease), ectopic ACTH, and adrenal causes.

  11. How do you distinguish cranial (central) from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus using the water deprivation test?

    Both fail to concentrate urine during water deprivation. After giving desmopressin (ADH analogue): cranial DI urine osmolality rises ($> 50\%$ increase) because the kidney responds; nephrogenic DI shows no response because the kidney is resistant to ADH.

  12. What are the causes and ECG/clinical features of hypercalcaemia, and the immediate management?

    Commonest causes: primary hyperparathyroidism (outpatients) and malignancy (inpatients). Features ('stones, bones, groans, psychic moans'): renal stones, bone pain, abdominal pain/constipation, confusion, short QT interval. Immediate management: IV 0.9% saline rehydration, then IV bisphosphonate.

  13. State the targets and primary-prevention thresholds for statin therapy in lipid management (UK).

    Offer atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention if QRISK3 $\geq 10\%$, in CKD, or type 1 diabetes with risk factors. Aim for $> 40\%$ reduction in non-HDL cholesterol. Secondary prevention uses atorvastatin 80 mg. Statins inhibit HMG-CoA reductase.

  14. Define obesity by BMI and list the WHO classification categories.

    $BMI = \frac{\text{weight (kg)}}{\text{height (m)}^{2}}$. Underweight $< 18.5$; normal 18.5-24.9; overweight 25-29.9; obese class I 30-34.9; class II 35-39.9; class III (morbid) $\geq 40$ kg/m². Lower thresholds apply for South Asian populations.

  15. What is the maximum time window for thrombolysis with alteplase in acute ischaemic stroke, and the key contraindication to exclude first?

    IV alteplase is given within 4.5 hours of symptom onset. A non-contrast CT head must first exclude haemorrhage (the main contraindication). Mechanical thrombectomy can be offered up to 24 hours for large-vessel occlusion in selected patients.

  16. State the ABCD2 components used to assess early stroke risk after a TIA.

    Age $\geq 60$ (1), Blood pressure $\geq 140/90$ (1), Clinical features — unilateral weakness (2) or speech disturbance without weakness (1), Duration $\geq 60$ min (2) or 10-59 min (1), Diabetes (1). Higher scores predict greater early stroke risk (though current UK practice treats all TIAs urgently).

  17. List the red-flag features of headache that mandate urgent investigation.

    Thunderclap (peak $< 5$ min, ?subarachnoid haemorrhage), new headache age $> 50$ with jaw claudication/scalp tenderness (GCA), morning headache worse on coughing/lying (raised ICP), fever and neck stiffness (meningitis), focal neurology, new headache in immunosuppression/cancer, and progressive headache with personality change.

  18. Contrast migraine, tension-type headache, and cluster headache.

    Migraine: unilateral throbbing, 4-72 h, with nausea, photophobia/phonophobia, ± aura. Tension-type: bilateral 'tight band' pressure, no nausea, not aggravated by activity. Cluster: severe unilateral periorbital pain, 15-180 min, in clusters, with ipsilateral lacrimation, rhinorrhoea and ptosis.

  19. How are focal and generalised seizures distinguished, and what is the first-line drug for generalised tonic-clonic seizures?

    Focal seizures arise from one hemisphere (may have aura, can become bilateral); generalised seizures involve both hemispheres from onset with loss of awareness. First-line for generalised tonic-clonic: sodium valproate (lamotrigine/levetiracetam in women of childbearing potential as valproate is teratogenic).

  20. Define status epilepticus and outline the emergency drug management.

    A seizure lasting $> 5$ min, or repeated seizures without recovery of consciousness between them. Management: secure airway/oxygen, IV lorazepam (or buccal midazolam/rectal diazepam) repeated once after 5-10 min, then IV phenytoin/levetiracetam, then general anaesthesia if refractory.

  21. Compare the cardinal features and pathology of Parkinson's disease.

    Triad: bradykinesia, resting 'pill-rolling' tremor (4-6 Hz), and rigidity (cogwheel/lead-pipe), typically asymmetrical, with postural instability. Pathology: loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta with Lewy bodies (alpha-synuclein). First-line treatment: levodopa with a decarboxylase inhibitor.

  22. Differentiate multiple sclerosis from Guillain-Barré syndrome by site, course and CSF findings.

    MS: CNS demyelination, relapsing-remitting lesions 'disseminated in time and space', CSF oligoclonal bands, MRI plaques. Guillain-Barré: acute ascending peripheral demyelinating polyneuropathy post-infection (e.g. Campylobacter), areflexia, CSF albuminocytological dissociation (high protein, normal cells); monitor FVC for respiratory failure.

  23. Describe the pathophysiology and hallmark clinical sign of myasthenia gravis.

    Autoantibodies against postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors (or MuSK) at the neuromuscular junction. Hallmark: fatigable muscle weakness worsening with activity, typically ptosis and diplopia. Associated with thymoma. Tests: anti-AChR antibodies, repetitive nerve stimulation. Treat with pyridostigmine and immunosuppression.

  24. What are the classic CSF findings distinguishing bacterial, viral and tuberculous meningitis?

    Bacterial: cloudy, high neutrophils, high protein, low glucose ($< \frac{1}{2}$ serum). Viral: clear, lymphocytes, normal/mildly raised protein, normal glucose. TB: fibrinous, lymphocytes, very high protein, very low glucose. Give empirical IV ceftriaxone immediately for suspected bacterial meningitis.

  25. List the signs of raised intracranial pressure and the Cushing's reflex.

    Headache (worse on lying/coughing), vomiting, papilloedema, reduced GCS, and pupillary changes. Cushing's reflex (late, pre-herniation): hypertension (widening pulse pressure), bradycardia, and irregular breathing. Manage by treating the cause, head elevation, and may need mannitol/hypertonic saline.

  26. Compare the joint pattern and serology of rheumatoid arthritis versus osteoarthritis.

    Rheumatoid: symmetrical small-joint (MCP/PIP/wrist) inflammatory arthritis, early morning stiffness $> 30$ min, RF and anti-CCP positive, erosions on X-ray. Osteoarthritis: asymmetrical large/weight-bearing and DIP joints, stiffness $< 30$ min, worse with activity; X-ray shows joint-space narrowing, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis and cysts (LOSS).

  27. List the diagnostic autoantibodies associated with SLE and the antiphospholipid syndrome.

    SLE: ANA (sensitive, screening), anti-dsDNA (specific, tracks disease activity), anti-Smith (specific). Antiphospholipid syndrome: lupus anticoagulant, anti-cardiolipin, and anti-beta-2-glycoprotein I antibodies — causing arterial/venous thrombosis and recurrent miscarriage.

  28. How is osteoporosis diagnosed by DEXA T-score, and what is the first-line treatment?

    Osteoporosis: T-score $\leq -2.5$; osteopenia: T-score between $-1.0$ and $-2.5$ (standard deviations from young-adult mean). First-line treatment: oral bisphosphonate (e.g. alendronate) with calcium and vitamin D, which inhibits osteoclast-mediated bone resorption.

  29. What are the diagnostic features and immediate management of septic arthritis?

    Acutely hot, swollen, painful joint with restricted movement and fever; most commonly Staphylococcus aureus. Investigation: urgent joint aspiration for Gram stain, culture and crystals before antibiotics. Management: joint aspiration/washout and IV antibiotics (e.g. flucloxacillin). It is a surgical emergency to prevent joint destruction.

  30. Classify anaemia by mean corpuscular volume (MCV) with examples in each category.

    Microcytic ($MCV < 80$ fL): iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease, sideroblastic. Normocytic (80-100): acute blood loss, haemolysis, chronic disease, renal failure. Macrocytic ($> 100$): B12/folate deficiency (megaloblastic), alcohol, hypothyroidism, liver disease, myelodysplasia.

  31. Compare Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma and the management of suspected neutropenic sepsis.

    Hodgkin lymphoma: Reed-Sternberg cells, bimodal age, orderly spread, alcohol-induced node pain, generally good prognosis. Non-Hodgkin: heterogeneous (e.g. diffuse large B-cell), often extranodal/widespread. Neutropenic sepsis (neutrophils $< 0.5 \times 10^{9}$/L + temperature $> 38°C$): give empirical IV piperacillin-tazobactam within 1 hour — a medical emergency.

UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Medicine and Long-Term Conditions FAQ

What is in the UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Medicine and Long-Term Conditions syllabus?

UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Medicine and Long-Term Conditions is split into 7 chapters: Cardiovascular and Respiratory Medicine, Gastroenterology, Hepatology and Renal Medicine, Endocrinology and Metabolic Medicine, Neurology, Musculoskeletal, Rheumatology and Immunology, Haematology, Oncology and Infectious Diseases and Dermatology. Together they contain 36 topics and 100 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Medicine and Long-Term Conditions?

7 chapters, containing 36 topics and 100 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Cardiovascular and Respiratory Medicine, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Medicine and Long-Term Conditions?

Yes — a 51-card Medicine and Long-Term Conditions deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.