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UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Clinical and Practical Skills, Prescribing and Investigations Syllabus
The Clinical and Practical Skills, Prescribing and Investigations syllabus for UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) in full: 5 chapters, 22 topics and 42 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 53 Clinical and Practical Skills, Prescribing and Investigations flashcards with answers.
Clinical and Practical Skills, Prescribing and Investigations syllabus: all 5 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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History Taking and Clinical Examination
3 topics- Structured history taking
- Presenting complaint and systems review
- Ideas, concerns and expectations
- Collateral history
- System-based examination
- Cardiovascular and respiratory examination
- Abdominal and neurological examination
- Musculoskeletal examination
- Examination in special groups
- Paediatric examination
- Mental state examination
- Examination of the older person
- Structured history taking
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Practical Procedures
5 topics- Vascular access and phlebotomy
- Venepuncture and cannulation
- Blood cultures and ABG sampling
- Airway, breathing and circulation procedures
- Oxygen delivery and basic airway management
- Use of the defibrillator
- Bladder and gastrointestinal procedures
- Urethral catheterisation
- Nasogastric tube insertion
- Aseptic technique and infection prevention
- Wound care, suturing and local anaesthesia
- Vascular access and phlebotomy
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Prescribing and Therapeutics
6 topics- Safe and rational prescribing
- Writing a safe prescription
- Reviewing and reconciling medications
- Prescribing in renal and hepatic impairment
- Drug interactions and adverse reactions
- Common interactions
- Adverse drug reactions and the Yellow Card scheme
- Allergy versus intolerance
- Specific therapeutic areas
- Anticoagulation and antiplatelets
- Analgesia and the analgesic ladder
- Antimicrobial prescribing
- Insulin and variable rate infusions
- Therapeutic drug monitoring
- Drugs requiring monitoring
- Loading and maintenance dosing
- Prescribing in special groups
- Prescribing in pregnancy and breastfeeding
- Prescribing for children and the elderly
- Controlled drugs
- Fluid and electrolyte prescribing
- Safe and rational prescribing
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Investigations and Their Interpretation
4 topics- Laboratory investigations
- Full blood count and blood film
- Urea, electrolytes and renal function
- Liver function and bone profile
- Inflammatory markers and tumour markers
- Cardiac and respiratory investigations
- ECG interpretation
- Arterial blood gas interpretation
- Spirometry and peak flow
- Imaging interpretation
- Chest radiograph
- Abdominal radiograph
- Principles of CT, MRI and ultrasound
- Microbiology and point-of-care testing
- Urinalysis
- Culture and sensitivity interpretation
- Laboratory investigations
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Documentation, Handover and Information Management
4 topics- Clinical record keeping and documentation standards
- Structured handover (SBAR)
- Referral letters and discharge summaries
- Death certification and reporting to the coroner
UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Clinical and Practical Skills, Prescribing and Investigations flashcards — 53 questions with answers
What does the mnemonic 'SOCRATES' stand for when taking a pain history?
Site, Onset, Character, Radiation, Associations, Time course, Exacerbating/relieving factors, Severity.
In a structured history, what are the standard sequential components after the presenting complaint?
History of presenting complaint, past medical history, drug history (with allergies), family history, social history, and systems review (ICE: ideas, concerns, expectations are explored throughout).
What does 'ICE' stand for in patient-centred history taking?
Ideas, Concerns and Expectations — eliciting the patient's own understanding, worries, and what they hope for from the consultation.
What are the four classic components of a system-based physical examination, in order?
Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation.
In the cardiovascular exam, what does the JVP measure and where is the upper limit of normal?
The jugular venous pressure reflects right atrial pressure; normal is $\leq 3$ cm vertical height above the sternal angle (i.e. $\leq 8$ cmH$_2$O total from the right atrium).
When examining a child (special group), why is the abdomen typically palpated last and the chest auscultated when quiet?
Examination order is adapted to opportunism and cooperation — least distressing/most informative steps are done when the child is calm (e.g. auscultate while settled), and uncomfortable steps (deep abdominal palpation, ENT) are left until last to avoid distress invalidating earlier findings.
What gauge and colour of cannula is preferred for rapid fluid resuscitation in an adult?
A large-bore cannula — grey (16G) or, ideally, orange (14G) — because flow rate is governed by Poiseuille's law and rises steeply with radius.
State Poiseuille's law and explain why a short, wide cannula gives the fastest flow.
$$Q = \frac{\pi r^{4} \Delta P}{8 \eta L}$$ Flow ($Q$) is proportional to radius$^4$ and inversely proportional to length, so a short, wide cannula maximises flow.
What is the correct order of draw for blood culture and standard vacutainer tubes?
Blood cultures first, then coagulation (citrate, blue), then serum (red/gold), then heparin (green), then EDTA (purple/lavender), then fluoride oxalate (grey) — to prevent additive cross-contamination.
In adult basic life support, what is the recommended chest compression rate and depth?
Rate of 100–120 compressions per minute at a depth of 5–6 cm, with a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2.
What does the 'ABCDE' approach stand for in assessment of the acutely ill patient?
Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure — assessed and treated in sequence, reassessing after each intervention.
What is the formula for estimating the correct nasopharyngeal/oropharyngeal airway size and ET tube size in children?
Oropharyngeal airway is sized from incisors to angle of mandible; uncuffed ET tube internal diameter (mm) $\approx \frac{\text{age}}{4} + 4$.
What are the recognised sites for needle thoracocentesis in tension pneumothorax (adult)?
2nd intercostal space mid-clavicular line, or (preferred in current guidance) 4th–5th intercostal space anterior to mid-axillary line, inserting just above the rib to avoid the neurovascular bundle.
When inserting a urinary catheter, what volume of sterile water is used to inflate the balloon and why is it inflated only after urine flows?
Typically 10 mL of sterile water; the balloon is inflated only after urine is seen to confirm the tip is in the bladder, avoiding urethral trauma from premature inflation.
What is the maximum recommended volume to drain at one time in tense ascites to avoid circulatory dysfunction, and what is given concurrently?
Large-volume paracentesis (>5 L) should be accompanied by intravenous albumin (about 6–8 g per litre removed) to prevent post-paracentesis circulatory dysfunction.
Define the difference between 'sterile' and 'aseptic' technique.
Sterile technique aims for a completely microorganism-free field (e.g. surgery); aseptic non-touch technique (ANTT) prevents contamination of key parts/sites by not touching them, used for procedures like cannulation and wound care.
What are the WHO '5 Moments for Hand Hygiene'?
Before touching a patient; before a clean/aseptic procedure; after body fluid exposure risk; after touching a patient; after touching patient surroundings.
Which hand hygiene method is required for Clostridioides difficile and why?
Soap and water handwashing (mechanical removal), because alcohol gel does not kill C. difficile spores.
What is the maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine and lidocaine with adrenaline for local anaesthesia?
Lidocaine plain: 3 mg/kg (max ~200 mg); lidocaine with adrenaline: 7 mg/kg (max ~500 mg), as adrenaline-induced vasoconstriction slows systemic absorption.
Why must adrenaline-containing local anaesthetic be avoided in digits, nose, ears, and penis (traditional teaching)?
These are areas supplied by end-arteries, where vasoconstriction was thought to risk ischaemic necrosis (though modern evidence challenges this for fingers).
Show the other 33 Clinical and Practical Skills, Prescribing and Investigations flashcards
What suture material type is used for skin closure vs deep dermal/absorbable layers?
Skin: non-absorbable monofilament (e.g. nylon/polypropylene), removed later; deep/dermal: absorbable (e.g. polyglactin/Vicryl or poliglecaprone/Monocryl).
Typical suture removal times: face, scalp, limbs/trunk, and joints?
Face 3–5 days; scalp/neck ~5 days; trunk/upper limb 7–10 days; lower limb/over joints 10–14 days.
What are the '5 Rights' (5 Rs) of safe medication administration?
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time (often extended to right documentation and right to refuse).
What does the prescribing principle 'start low, go slow' apply to, and give one example drug class?
Initiating drugs cautiously in the elderly/frail or where toxicity risk is high — e.g. opioids, antihypertensives, or psychotropics.
Define pharmacodynamic vs pharmacokinetic drug interaction with an example of each.
Pharmacodynamic: drugs with additive/opposing effects at the same target (e.g. warfarin + aspirin → bleeding). Pharmacokinetic: one drug alters another's absorption, distribution, metabolism or excretion (e.g. enzyme inducer reducing warfarin levels).
List the four pharmacokinetic processes summarised by 'ADME'.
Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion.
Name two important CYP450 enzyme inducers and two inhibitors.
Inducers ('PC BRAS'): phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, rifampicin, alcohol (chronic), St John's wort. Inhibitors ('AODEVICES'/'GPACMAN'): grapefruit juice, macrolides, azoles, ciprofloxacin, omeprazole, sodium valproate, isoniazid.
How are adverse drug reactions classified (Rawlins–Thompson)?
Type A (Augmented): dose-related, predictable from pharmacology, common (e.g. bleeding on warfarin). Type B (Bizarre): idiosyncratic, unpredictable, dose-independent (e.g. anaphylaxis). Plus C chronic, D delayed, E end-of-use, F failure.
In the UK, how are suspected adverse drug reactions reported and which agency?
Via the Yellow Card Scheme to the MHRA (Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency); all suspected ADRs for black-triangle (▼) drugs and all serious ADRs should be reported.
What is the therapeutic INR target range for most indications (e.g. AF, DVT/PE) on warfarin, and for mechanical mitral valves?
Most indications: INR 2.0–3.0 (target 2.5); recurrent VTE or mechanical mitral valve: INR 2.5–3.5 (target 3.0).
Which drugs classically require therapeutic drug monitoring, and what is monitored?
Examples: digoxin (level + K$^+$/renal), lithium (level 12 h post-dose), gentamicin/vancomycin (trough/levels + renal), phenytoin, theophylline, ciclosporin — monitored due to narrow therapeutic index.
What is the therapeutic serum lithium range and when is the sample taken?
0.4–1.0 mmol/L (often 0.6–0.8 for maintenance), measured 12 hours post-dose.
What is the digoxin toxicity threshold concept and one factor that potentiates toxicity?
Narrow therapeutic index (~0.8–2.0 ng/mL); hypokalaemia potentiates toxicity because digoxin and K$^+$ compete at the $\ce{Na+/K+}$-ATPase.
Which antibiotics are contraindicated/cautioned in pregnancy and why?
Tetracyclines (teeth/bone staining), trimethoprim (folate antagonist — 1st trimester), nitrofurantoin (avoid at term — neonatal haemolysis), aminoglycosides (ototoxicity), fluoroquinolones (cartilage), sulfonamides at term (kernicterus).
How is paediatric drug dosing typically calculated and why is body surface area sometimes preferred?
Usually by weight (mg/kg); body surface area (BSA) is used for narrow-margin drugs (e.g. chemotherapy) as it correlates better with metabolic rate and physiological parameters.
What is the Holliday–Segar '4-2-1' rule for paediatric maintenance fluid rate?
100 mL/kg/day for first 10 kg, 50 mL/kg/day for next 10 kg, 20 mL/kg/day thereafter — hourly: 4 mL/kg (first 10 kg) + 2 mL/kg (next 10 kg) + 1 mL/kg (each kg >20).
What are the approximate daily maintenance requirements for water, sodium and potassium in an adult (NICE)?
Water 25–30 mL/kg/day; sodium, potassium and chloride ~1 mmol/kg/day; glucose 50–100 g/day to limit ketosis.
How do you calculate a patient's free water deficit in hypernatraemia?
$$\text{Water deficit} = \text{TBW} \times \left(\frac{[\text{Na}^+]_{\text{measured}}}{[\text{Na}^+]_{\text{normal}}} - 1\right)$$ where TBW $\approx 0.6 \times$ weight (kg) in men, $0.5\times$ in women.
What is the maximum safe rate of potassium replacement via a peripheral line, and why is faster restricted?
Usually $\leq 10$ mmol/hour peripherally (higher rates need central access and cardiac monitoring) because rapid infusion risks fatal arrhythmia.
How is the anion gap calculated and what is the normal range?
$$\text{Anion gap} = (\text{Na}^+ + \text{K}^+) - (\text{Cl}^- + \text{HCO}_3^-)$$ Normal $\approx 8\text{–}16$ mmol/L (varies if K$^+$ included).
How do you estimate corrected calcium for albumin?
$$\text{Corrected Ca} = \text{measured Ca} + 0.02 \times (40 - [\text{albumin in g/L}])$$ (in mmol/L), adjusting for the albumin-bound fraction.
What is the Cockcroft–Gault equation for creatinine clearance?
$$\text{CrCl} = \frac{(140 - \text{age}) \times \text{weight (kg)} \times F}{0.814 \times \text{serum creatinine (}\mu\text{mol/L)}}$$ where $F = 1$ for men and $0.85$ for women.
Interpret a blood gas showing low pH, high $\ce{PaCO2}$, normal/high $\ce{HCO3-}$.
Respiratory acidosis (acute if HCO$_3^-$ normal; with renal compensation/chronic if HCO$_3^-$ raised) — e.g. type 2 respiratory failure.
On an ECG, how is heart rate estimated from a regular rhythm using large squares?
$$\text{Rate} = \frac{300}{\text{number of large squares between R waves}}$$ (each large square = 0.2 s at 25 mm/s).
State the normal PR interval and QRS duration on a standard ECG.
PR interval 120–200 ms (3–5 small squares); QRS duration $<120$ ms ($<3$ small squares).
How is the corrected QT interval (QTc) calculated using Bazett's formula?
$$QTc = \frac{QT}{\sqrt{RR}}$$ where RR is in seconds; prolonged if $>440$ ms (men) or $>460$ ms (women).
In spirometry, how do you distinguish obstructive from restrictive disease using $\frac{\text{FEV}_1}{\text{FVC}}$?
Obstructive: $\frac{\text{FEV}_1}{\text{FVC}} < 0.7$ (e.g. asthma, COPD). Restrictive: ratio normal or increased ($\geq 0.7$) with both FEV$_1$ and FVC reduced (e.g. pulmonary fibrosis).
What is the recommended systematic approach (mnemonic) for reading a chest X-ray?
'ABCDE': Airway/trachea, Breathing (lung fields), Cardiac (heart size/silhouette), Diaphragm (costophrenic angles, under-diaphragm air), Everything else (bones, soft tissues, devices) — after checking RIPE: Rotation, Inspiration, Projection, Exposure.
What is the normal upper limit of the cardiothoracic ratio on a PA chest film?
$\frac{\text{maximal cardiac width}}{\text{maximal thoracic width}} \leq 0.5$; greater than 50% suggests cardiomegaly (only valid on a PA, well-inspired film).
Differentiate Gram-positive from Gram-negative bacteria on the basis of staining and cell wall.
Gram-positive: thick peptidoglycan wall retains crystal violet → purple. Gram-negative: thin peptidoglycan plus outer membrane, loses crystal violet, takes up safranin counterstain → pink/red.
What does the SBAR handover tool stand for?
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation — a structured framework for concise, safe communication and escalation.
State three legal/professional standards for clinical record keeping in the UK.
Entries must be contemporaneous, legible, signed/dated/timed with author identifiable, factual and objective (no unprofessional comments), and never altered retrospectively without a clear, dated amendment trail (GMC Good Medical Practice).
Who can complete a Medical Certificate of Cause of Death (MCCD) in England/Wales and what is the key referral trigger to the coroner?
Now an attending practitioner who can state the cause, with scrutiny by a Medical Examiner. Refer to the coroner if death was violent/unnatural, sudden/unexplained, due to an accident, suicide, neglect, in custody, related to a procedure, industrial disease, or where cause is unknown.
UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Clinical and Practical Skills, Prescribing and Investigations FAQ
What is in the UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Clinical and Practical Skills, Prescribing and Investigations syllabus?
UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Clinical and Practical Skills, Prescribing and Investigations is split into 5 chapters: History Taking and Clinical Examination, Practical Procedures, Prescribing and Therapeutics, Investigations and Their Interpretation and Documentation, Handover and Information Management. Together they contain 22 topics and 42 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Clinical and Practical Skills, Prescribing and Investigations?
5 chapters, containing 22 topics and 42 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Prescribing and Therapeutics, with 6 topics.
Are there flashcards for UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) Clinical and Practical Skills, Prescribing and Investigations?
Yes — a 53-card Clinical and Practical Skills, Prescribing and Investigations deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.