UGC NET Environmental Science Unit-VIII: Environmental Assessment, Management and Legislation Syllabus

What does the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 chiefly regulate?

It restricts the de-reservation of forests and the diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes, requiring prior approval of the Central Government for any such diversion.

What is the focus of the Indian Forest Act (originally 1927, revised)?

It consolidates law relating to forests, the transit of forest produce, and duty on timber; it classifies forests into Reserved Forests, Protected Forests and Village Forests.

State the three-tier institutional structure created by the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) at the centre, State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) at the state level, and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local body level.

Which Act first established the Central and State Pollution Control Boards in India?

The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 created the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs).

What is the purpose of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977?

To levy and collect a cess on water consumed by specified industries and local authorities, to augment the resources of the Pollution Control Boards.

What did the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 add to the Pollution Control Boards' mandate?

It extended the Boards' functions to prevention, control and abatement of air pollution and empowered them to declare 'air pollution control areas' and set emission standards.

Why is the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 called an 'umbrella' legislation?

Because it provides a framework for central coordination and the setting of standards/rules covering all aspects of the environment (air, water, soil, noise, hazardous substances); it was enacted following the 1984 Bhopal gas tragedy.

What environmental provision is associated with the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?

It empowers regulation of vehicular emissions, requiring 'Pollution Under Control' (PUC) certificates and prescribing emission standards to control air and noise pollution from motor vehicles.

What is the scope of the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016?

They govern the generation, handling, storage, transport, treatment, recycling, disposal and import/export of hazardous wastes, implementing the Basel Convention; authorisation is granted by SPCBs.

What is a key producer obligation under the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016?

Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for producers, importers and brand owners to collect back plastic waste; the rules (and 2021/2022 amendments) also banned identified single-use plastics and increased the minimum carry-bag thickness.

How are bio-medical wastes categorised under the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016?

Into four colour-coded categories: Yellow (incinerable/anatomical/soiled), Red (contaminated recyclable plastics), White (sharps), and Blue (broken glass and metallic implants).

What is the source-segregation requirement under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016?

Waste generators must segregate waste at source into three streams: biodegradable (wet), non-biodegradable (dry), and domestic hazardous waste.

What principle underlies the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016?

Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), making producers responsible for collection and channelisation of end-of-life electrical and electronic equipment to authorised dismantlers/recyclers, with phased collection targets.

What do the Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules, 2016 require of large generators?

Generators of C&D waste (above prescribed quantities) must segregate it into concrete, soil, steel, wood, plastics, bricks and mortar, and dispose of it through collection/processing facilities set up by local authorities.

Under which Act are the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemicals (Amendment) Rules, 2000 framed, and what do they require?

Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; they require occupiers handling hazardous chemicals above threshold quantities to prepare on-site/off-site emergency plans, conduct safety audits and notify major accidents.

What was the core obligation under the Batteries (Management and Handling) Rules, 2001/2010?

Mandatory collection of used lead-acid batteries on a buy-back basis (EPR) and channelisation to registered recyclers. (These were superseded by the Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022.)

What is the purpose of the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991?

To provide immediate relief on a 'no-fault liability' basis to persons affected by accidents involving hazardous substances; it mandates owners to take out insurance and establishes the Environment Relief Fund.

What ambient noise standards do the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 set for industrial areas (day/night)?

Industrial: 75 dB(A) day / 70 dB(A) night; Commercial: 65/55; Residential: 55/45; Silence zone: 50/40. Daytime is 6 a.m.-10 p.m. and night-time 10 p.m.-6 a.m.

What do the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notifications regulate?

They regulate activities in the coastal stretch within 500 m of the High Tide Line and along tidal water bodies; first notified in 1991 under the EP Act 1986, classifying coasts into zones (CRZ-I ecologically sensitive, II developed, III rural, IV territorial waters).

What target did the National Forest Policy, 1988 set for forest/tree cover?

A minimum of 33% of the country's geographical area under forest or tree cover (60% in hills and mountainous regions) to maintain ecological balance; it prioritised environmental stability over revenue.

What was a key feature of the National Water Policy, 2002?

It set priorities for water allocation in the order: drinking water, irrigation, hydropower, ecology, agro-industries/non-agricultural industries, navigation; and promoted integrated and river-basin-based water resource development.

What is the dominant objective of the National Environment Policy (NEP), 2006?

To mainstream environmental concerns into development with the central principle that the best way to conserve the environment is to ensure that people dependent on environmental resources gain better livelihoods from conservation than from its degradation.

What was the significance of the 1972 Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment?

It was the first UN conference on the environment; it produced the Stockholm Declaration (26 principles), an Action Plan, and led to the creation of UNEP. World Environment Day (5 June) commemorates its opening.

What does the Montreal Protocol, 1987 aim to achieve?

To protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (CFCs, halons, HCFCs); it is a protocol to the Vienna Convention (1985). The 2016 Kigali Amendment added phase-down of HFCs.

What does the Basel Convention (1989) regulate?

The transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal, aiming to prevent the transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries and to minimise generation at source. It entered into force in 1992.

What is the focus of the Ramsar Convention (1971)?

The conservation and wise use of wetlands of international importance; designated sites are listed as 'Ramsar Sites'. It was signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971.

What major outcomes emerged from the 1992 Earth Summit (UNCED) at Rio de Janeiro?

The Rio Declaration (27 principles), Agenda 21, the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), and the Statement of Forest Principles.

What is the Global Environment Facility (GEF)?

An international financial mechanism (established 1991, restructured at Rio 1992) that provides grants to developing countries for projects addressing biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land degradation, ozone and persistent organic pollutants. It serves as a funding mechanism for several conventions (CBD, UNFCCC).

State the three objectives of the Convention on Biological Diversity (1992).

1) Conservation of biological diversity, 2) Sustainable use of its components, and 3) Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of genetic resources (access and benefit sharing).

What is the ultimate objective of the UNFCCC (1992)?

To stabilise greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system; it set the principle of 'common but differentiated responsibilities'.

What did the Kyoto Protocol, 1997 establish?

Legally binding GHG emission-reduction targets for developed (Annex I) countries (about 5.2% below 1990 levels in 2008-2012), and three flexible market mechanisms: Emissions Trading, the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), and Joint Implementation (JI). It entered into force in 2005.

What was the focus of the 2002 Johannesburg Summit (World Summit on Sustainable Development)?

Marking 10 years after Rio ('Rio+10'), it reaffirmed sustainable development, adopted the Johannesburg Plan of Implementation and Declaration, and emphasised the three pillars: economic development, social development and environmental protection.

What were the Millennium Development Goals adopted at the UN Millennium Summit, 2000?

Eight goals to be achieved by 2015, including eradicating extreme poverty and hunger, universal primary education, gender equality, reducing child mortality, improving maternal health, combating HIV/malaria, ensuring environmental sustainability (Goal 7), and a global partnership for development.

What was the outcome of the 2009 Copenhagen Climate Summit (COP15)?

The non-binding Copenhagen Accord, which recognised the goal of limiting global temperature rise to below 2°C and included pledges of climate finance (USD 100 billion/year by 2020) for developing countries.

What is the IPCC and what is its role?

The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, established in 1988 by WMO and UNEP, assesses scientific, technical and socio-economic information on climate change and publishes periodic Assessment Reports; it does not conduct original research. It shared the 2007 Nobel Peace Prize.

What is UNEP and where is it headquartered?

The United Nations Environment Programme, established in 1972 following the Stockholm Conference, is the leading global environmental authority that coordinates UN environmental activities. It is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.

What is the IGBP?

The International Geosphere-Biosphere Programme (1987-2015), a research programme studying the interactions between Earth's biological, chemical and physical processes (global change); its work was absorbed into 'Future Earth'.

What is the role of public consultation in the EIA process?

To ascertain the concerns of local affected persons and others having a plausible stake; it comprises a public hearing at the project site (conducted by the SPCB) and inviting written responses from other stakeholders, the results of which are addressed before appraisal.

Define 'screening' and 'scoping' in EIA.

Screening decides whether a project requires a full EIA (and at what level of detail). Scoping identifies the key issues and impacts to be studied and produces the Terms of Reference (ToR) guiding the EIA study.

What is the difference between Environmental Planning as part of EIA versus Environmental Audit?

Environmental planning within EIA is anticipatory/predictive — done before a project to integrate environmental safeguards into design; environmental audit is a retrospective verification — done during/after operation to check actual compliance and performance against standards and the EMP.