🇮🇳 SRMJEEE · subject

SRMJEEE Biology (Zoology) Syllabus

The Biology (Zoology) syllabus for SRMJEEE in full: 4 chapters, 14 topics and 27 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 74 Biology (Zoology) flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
14Topics
27Sub-topics
74Flashcards

Biology (Zoology) syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Animal Diversity and Structure

    3 topics
    • Animal Kingdom Classification
      • Non-chordates and basis of classification
      • Chordates and vertebrate classes
    • Structural Organisation in Animals
      • Animal tissues
      • Organ systems overview
    • Biomolecules
      • Carbohydrates, proteins and lipids
      • Enzymes and their action
  2. Human Physiology

    4 topics
    • Digestion and Absorption
      • Alimentary canal and digestive glands
      • Absorption and disorders
    • Breathing and Circulation
      • Respiratory system and gas exchange
      • Heart, blood and circulatory pathways
    • Excretion and Locomotion
      • Kidney structure and urine formation
      • Muscles, bones and joints
    • Neural and Chemical Coordination
      • Nervous system and reflex action
      • Endocrine glands and hormones
  3. Reproduction and Development

    3 topics
    • Human Reproductive System
      • Male and female reproductive systems
      • Gametogenesis and menstrual cycle
    • Reproductive Health
      • Contraception methods
      • Infertility and ART
    • Developmental Biology
      • Fertilisation and embryonic development
  4. Genetics, Evolution and Human Welfare

    4 topics
    • Human Genetics and Disorders
      • Mendelian and chromosomal disorders
      • Sex determination
    • Evolution
      • Theories of evolution
      • Evidences and Hardy-Weinberg principle
    • Human Health and Disease
      • Immunity and pathogens
      • Cancer, AIDS and drug abuse
    • Biology in Human Welfare
      • Animal husbandry
      • Biotechnology applications in medicine

SRMJEEE Biology (Zoology) flashcards — 74 questions with answers

  1. What are the five kingdoms in Whittaker's classification of living organisms?

    Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.

  2. List the levels of the taxonomic hierarchy from broadest to most specific.

    Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species.

  3. What is the basis of classification of the animal kingdom (key criteria used)?

    Levels of organisation, symmetry, germ layers (diploblastic/triploblastic), presence/nature of coelom, segmentation, and presence of a notochord.

  4. Distinguish diploblastic from triploblastic animals.

    Diploblastic animals have two germ layers (ectoderm and endoderm) e.g. cnidarians; triploblastic animals have three (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm) e.g. from platyhelminthes onwards.

  5. Define a coelom and name the three coelomic conditions.

    A coelom is a true body cavity lined by mesoderm. Conditions: acoelomate (no cavity), pseudocoelomate (cavity not fully mesoderm-lined), and coelomate (true mesoderm-lined cavity).

  6. Compare radial and bilateral symmetry with examples.

    Radial symmetry: body can be divided into equal halves through any plane passing through the centre (e.g. cnidarians, echinoderms). Bilateral symmetry: only one plane divides the body into identical left and right halves (e.g. annelids, arthropods, chordates).

  7. What are the defining features of the phylum Porifera?

    Pore-bearing aquatic animals (sponges); cellular level of organisation; water canal (canal) system with ostia and osculum; choanocytes (collar cells); spicules/spongin skeleton.

  8. Name the three classes of the phylum Cnidaria with an example of each.

    Hydrozoa (Hydra, Obelia), Scyphozoa (Aurelia, jellyfish), Anthozoa (Adamsia, sea anemone, corals).

  9. What unique cells do cnidarians possess and what is their function?

    Cnidoblasts (cnidocytes) containing nematocysts, used for anchorage, defence, and capturing prey (stinging).

  10. What are the key characters of phylum Platyhelminthes?

    Dorsoventrally flattened (flatworms); triploblastic, acoelomate, bilaterally symmetrical; mostly parasitic with hooks/suckers; flame cells for excretion and osmoregulation. Example: Taenia, Fasciola.

  11. What is the distinguishing feature of phylum Aschelminthes (Nematoda)?

    Roundworms that are triploblastic and pseudocoelomate, with a complete digestive tract; many are parasites. Example: Ascaris, Wuchereria.

  12. List the defining features of phylum Annelida.

    Metamerically segmented body (true segmentation); triploblastic, coelomate, bilaterally symmetrical; closed circulatory system; nephridia for excretion. Example: Pheretima (earthworm), Hirudinaria (leech).

  13. What features make Arthropoda the largest animal phylum?

    Jointed appendages, chitinous exoskeleton, segmented body, open circulatory system with haemocoel; respiration by gills, trachea or book lungs. Example: Periplaneta (cockroach), Apis (honeybee).

  14. What are the characteristic features of phylum Mollusca?

    Soft unsegmented body with a muscular foot, visceral hump, and mantle; usually a calcareous shell; radula for feeding; open circulatory system. Example: Pila, Octopus, Unio.

  15. Which features define phylum Echinodermata?

    Exclusively marine; spiny skin; radial symmetry in adults (bilateral larvae); unique water vascular system with tube feet; calcareous endoskeleton. Example: Asterias (starfish), Echinus.

  16. What are the four fundamental (defining) chordate characters?

    Presence of a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, paired pharyngeal gill slits, and a post-anal tail at some stage of life.

  17. Name the three subphyla of Chordata with an example of each.

    Urochordata (Ascidia/tunicates), Cephalochordata (Branchiostoma/Amphioxus), and Vertebrata (fishes to mammals).

  18. How do chordates differ from non-chordates in heart, notochord, and nerve cord position?

    Chordates have a ventral heart, a notochord, and a dorsal, hollow, single nerve cord; non-chordates have a dorsal heart (if present), no notochord, and a ventral, solid, double nerve cord.

  19. Distinguish the two classes of the superclass Pisces.

    Chondrichthyes have a cartilaginous endoskeleton, ventral mouth, placoid scales, and no air bladder (e.g. Scoliodon, shark); Osteichthyes have a bony endoskeleton, terminal mouth, and an air bladder (e.g. Labeo, Catla).

  20. What are the distinguishing features of class Amphibia?

    Moist glandular skin without scales, usually two pairs of limbs, three-chambered heart, cold-blooded (poikilotherms), and external fertilisation with aquatic larvae. Example: Rana, Salamandra.

Show the other 54 Biology (Zoology) flashcards
  1. Which class of vertebrates first showed amniotic eggs, and what defines class Reptilia?

    Reptilia first showed amniotic (shelled) eggs; characterised by dry, scaly skin, creeping/crawling, three-chambered heart (four in crocodiles), and being poikilothermic. Example: Naja, Chelone.

  2. What are the defining features of class Aves?

    Warm-blooded (homeothermic); body covered with feathers; forelimbs modified into wings; presence of a beak without teeth; pneumatic bones; four-chambered heart. Example: Corvus, Columba.

  3. List the key characteristics of class Mammalia.

    Presence of mammary glands, hair on skin, external ears (pinnae), a muscular diaphragm, four-chambered heart, warm-blooded, and (mostly) viviparous with internal fertilisation. Example: Homo sapiens.

  4. Define a tissue and name the four types of animal tissues.

    A tissue is a group of similar cells with a common origin performing a specific function. Four types: epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous tissue.

  5. What are the main functions and a key feature of epithelial tissue?

    It covers surfaces, lines cavities, and forms glands; functions in protection, secretion, and absorption. It rests on a basement membrane and has cells packed tightly with little intercellular material.

  6. Differentiate simple from compound epithelium.

    Simple epithelium is a single layer of cells for absorption, secretion, and diffusion; compound epithelium has multiple cell layers providing protection (e.g. skin epidermis).

  7. Name the types of cell junctions and their roles in epithelia.

    Tight junctions (prevent leakage of substances), adhering junctions (cement neighbouring cells together), and gap junctions (allow cytoplasmic communication between cells).

  8. What are the main types of connective tissue?

    Loose connective tissue (areolar, adipose), dense connective tissue (tendons, ligaments), and specialised connective tissue (cartilage, bone, blood).

  9. Name the three types of muscle tissue and one distinguishing feature of each.

    Skeletal (striated, voluntary, multinucleate), smooth/visceral (non-striated, involuntary, spindle-shaped), and cardiac (striated, involuntary, branched with intercalated discs).

  10. What is a neuron and what are its functional regions?

    A neuron is the structural and functional unit of nervous tissue; it consists of a cell body (cyton), dendrites that receive impulses, and an axon that conducts impulses away.

  11. Define an organ and an organ system.

    An organ is a structure made of two or more tissue types performing a specific function; an organ system is a group of organs working together to carry out a major body function (e.g. digestive system).

  12. What are biomolecules and into which two broad categories are they grouped by size?

    Biomolecules are organic compounds present in living tissues. They are grouped as micromolecules (small, MW < 1000 Da, e.g. amino acids, sugars) and macromolecules (large, e.g. proteins, polysaccharides, nucleic acids).

  13. Give the general empirical formula of carbohydrates and name their three classes by complexity.

    General formula $(\ce{CH2O})_n$. Classes: monosaccharides, oligosaccharides (e.g. disaccharides), and polysaccharides.

  14. Match the disaccharides to their monosaccharide units: sucrose, maltose, lactose.

    Sucrose = glucose + fructose; Maltose = glucose + glucose; Lactose = glucose + galactose.

  15. Name three important storage/structural polysaccharides and their roles.

    Starch (plant energy storage), glycogen (animal energy storage in liver/muscle), and cellulose (structural component of plant cell walls).

  16. What is the basic structural unit of proteins and the bond linking them?

    Amino acids are the building blocks; they are joined by peptide bonds ($\ce{-CO-NH-}$) formed by dehydration (condensation).

  17. Describe the four levels of protein structure.

    Primary (linear amino-acid sequence), secondary (local folding into $\alpha$-helix or $\beta$-pleated sheet), tertiary (overall 3D folding), and quaternary (arrangement of multiple polypeptide subunits).

  18. What are the building blocks of lipids and name the two main classes of fatty acids?

    Lipids are made of glycerol and fatty acids. Fatty acids are saturated (no C=C double bonds) or unsaturated (one or more C=C double bonds).

  19. What are enzymes and of what chemical nature are most of them?

    Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up biochemical reactions without being consumed; most are proteins (some are RNA, called ribozymes).

  20. How do enzymes accelerate reactions in terms of activation energy?

    Enzymes lower the activation energy ($E_a$) required for the reaction to proceed, increasing the rate without altering the equilibrium.

  21. Explain the effect of temperature and pH on enzyme activity.

    Each enzyme has an optimum temperature and optimum pH at which activity is maximal; beyond these, activity declines and the enzyme may denature (lose its 3D shape and function).

  22. Differentiate competitive and non-competitive enzyme inhibition.

    Competitive inhibitors resemble the substrate and bind the active site (overcome by raising substrate concentration); non-competitive inhibitors bind elsewhere (allosteric site), altering the active site regardless of substrate concentration.

  23. What is the lock-and-key (and induced-fit) model of enzyme action?

    The substrate fits the enzyme's active site like a key in a lock (lock-and-key); in the induced-fit model the active site changes shape slightly to fit the substrate snugly upon binding.

  24. List the regions of the human alimentary canal in order from mouth to anus.

    Mouth (buccal cavity) → pharynx → oesophagus → stomach → small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, ileum) → large intestine (caecum, colon, rectum) → anus.

  25. What is the dental formula of an adult human?

    $\frac{2123}{2123}$ for one half of each jaw, representing 2 incisors, 1 canine, 2 premolars, and 3 molars; total 32 teeth.

  26. Name the three major digestive glands and their secretions.

    Salivary glands (saliva with salivary amylase), liver (bile), and pancreas (pancreatic juice with trypsin, amylase, lipase).

  27. What enzyme is in saliva and what does it digest?

    Salivary amylase (ptyalin), which hydrolyses starch into maltose; it acts at a slightly alkaline-to-neutral pH in the mouth.

  28. Name the gastric enzymes/secretions and their functions.

    Pepsin (secreted as pepsinogen) digests proteins into peptides; HCl provides acidic pH and activates pepsinogen; mucus protects the stomach lining; rennin (in infants) curdles milk.

  29. What is the role of bile in digestion, and does it contain enzymes?

    Bile contains no digestive enzymes; bile salts emulsify fats into small droplets (increasing surface area for lipase) and help activate lipases; it also makes the medium alkaline.

  30. What are the main functional units of fat, protein, and carbohydrate absorption sites in the small intestine?

    Villi and microvilli of the small intestine greatly increase surface area; carbohydrates and proteins are absorbed into blood capillaries, while fats (as chylomicrons) enter the lacteals (lymph).

  31. Name two disorders of the digestive system and their causes.

    Jaundice (yellowing of skin/eyes due to bile pigment deposition from liver dysfunction) and PEM disorders—Kwashiorkor (protein deficiency) and Marasmus (protein and calorie deficiency).

  32. Differentiate breathing from cellular respiration.

    Breathing (external respiration) is the physical exchange of $\ce{O2}$ and $\ce{CO2}$ between the body and environment; cellular respiration is the intracellular oxidation of food to release energy as ATP.

  33. List the parts of the human respiratory system in order of air flow.

    External nostrils → nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea → primary bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli.

  34. Where does gas exchange occur and why are alveoli suited for it?

    Gas exchange occurs in the alveoli; they have thin walls, a large surface area, and a rich capillary network allowing efficient diffusion of $\ce{O2}$ and $\ce{CO2}$.

  35. How is oxygen mainly transported in the blood?

    About 97% of $\ce{O2}$ is transported bound to haemoglobin as oxyhaemoglobin ($\ce{Hb + O2 -> HbO2}$); about 3% is dissolved in plasma.

  36. How is carbon dioxide transported in the blood?

    About 70% as bicarbonate ions ($\ce{HCO3^-}$), about 20–25% bound to haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin, and about 7% dissolved in plasma.

  37. What is the role of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles in inspiration?

    During inspiration the diaphragm contracts and flattens, and external intercostals contract to raise the ribs, increasing thoracic volume and decreasing pressure so air rushes in.

  38. Name the four chambers of the human heart and what each receives or pumps.

    Right atrium (receives deoxygenated blood from body), right ventricle (pumps it to lungs), left atrium (receives oxygenated blood from lungs), left ventricle (pumps it to the body).

  39. Name the heart valves and their locations.

    Tricuspid valve (between right atrium and right ventricle), bicuspid/mitral valve (between left atrium and left ventricle), and the semilunar valves at the openings of the pulmonary artery and aorta.

  40. Distinguish pulmonary from systemic circulation.

    Pulmonary circulation carries blood between the heart and lungs (right ventricle → lungs → left atrium); systemic circulation carries blood between the heart and the rest of the body (left ventricle → body → right atrium).

  41. What is the pacemaker of the heart and where is it located?

    The sino-atrial node (SA node), located in the wall of the right atrium; it initiates and sets the rhythm of the heartbeat.

  42. Name the formed elements of blood and their primary functions.

    Erythrocytes (RBCs) transport gases via haemoglobin; leucocytes (WBCs) provide immunity/defence; thrombocytes (platelets) help in blood clotting.

  43. What are the excretory products and modes of excretion that define ammonotelic, ureotelic, and uricotelic animals?

    Ammonotelic excrete ammonia (aquatic animals, e.g. bony fishes); ureotelic excrete urea (mammals, amphibians); uricotelic excrete uric acid (birds, reptiles, insects).

  44. Name the parts of the human urinary system.

    A pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary bladder, and a urethra.

  45. What is the nephron and its two main structural parts?

    The nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney; it consists of the Malpighian body (glomerulus + Bowman's capsule) and the renal tubule (PCT, loop of Henle, DCT).

  46. List the three main steps of urine formation.

    Glomerular filtration (in the Bowman's capsule), tubular reabsorption (of useful substances like glucose, ions, water), and tubular secretion (of $\ce{H+}$, $\ce{K+}$, $\ce{NH3}$).

  47. Which hormone controls water reabsorption in the kidney and how?

    ADH (antidiuretic hormone/vasopressin) increases water reabsorption from the DCT and collecting duct, producing concentrated urine and conserving body water.

  48. Name the three types of muscles based on location and control.

    Skeletal (striated, voluntary, attached to bones), smooth/visceral (non-striated, involuntary, in internal organs), and cardiac (striated, involuntary, in the heart).

  49. What are the contractile proteins of muscle and the basic contractile unit?

    Actin (thin filament) and myosin (thick filament) are the contractile proteins; the sarcomere is the basic functional contractile unit of a myofibril.

  50. State the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction in brief.

    Muscle contraction occurs when actin (thin) filaments slide over myosin (thick) filaments, shortening the sarcomere; this requires $\ce{Ca^2+}$ and ATP.

  51. How many bones are in the adult human skeleton and what are its two divisions?

    The adult human skeleton has 206 bones, divided into the axial skeleton (80 bones: skull, vertebral column, ribs, sternum) and the appendicular skeleton (126 bones: limbs and girdles).

  52. Define a joint and name the three structural types.

    A joint is the point of contact between bones (or bone and cartilage). Types: fibrous (immovable, e.g. skull sutures), cartilaginous (slightly movable, e.g. between vertebrae), and synovial (freely movable, e.g. knee).

  53. Give examples of synovial joints by type of movement.

    Ball-and-socket joint (shoulder, hip), hinge joint (knee, elbow), pivot joint (between atlas and axis), gliding joint (between carpals), and saddle joint (thumb).

  54. Differentiate tendons and ligaments.

    Tendons are dense connective tissue connecting muscle to bone; ligaments are dense connective tissue connecting bone to bone at joints.

SRMJEEE Biology (Zoology) FAQ

What is in the SRMJEEE Biology (Zoology) syllabus?

SRMJEEE Biology (Zoology) is split into 4 chapters: Animal Diversity and Structure, Human Physiology, Reproduction and Development and Genetics, Evolution and Human Welfare. Together they contain 14 topics and 27 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in SRMJEEE Biology (Zoology)?

4 chapters, containing 14 topics and 27 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Human Physiology, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for SRMJEEE Biology (Zoology)?

Yes — a 74-card Biology (Zoology) deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.