🇬🇧 Scottish Advanced Higher · subject
Scottish Advanced Higher Biology Syllabus
The Biology syllabus for Scottish Advanced Higher in full: 4 chapters, 14 topics and 28 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Biology flashcards with answers.
Biology syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
-
Cells and Proteins
4 topics- Laboratory techniques for biologists
- Microscopy and cell culture
- Separation and quantification of proteins
- Proteins
- Protein structure and conformation
- Membrane proteins and transport
- Detecting and amplifying stimuli
- Signal transduction
- Phosphorylation and second messengers
- Communication between cells
- Hydrophobic and hydrophilic signalling molecules
- Neurotransmitters and the nervous system
- Laboratory techniques for biologists
-
Organisms and Evolution
4 topics- Field techniques and sampling
- Sampling methods and identification
- Ethical considerations in fieldwork
- Evolution and natural selection
- Variation and sexual selection
- Genetic drift and gene flow
- Variation and sexual reproduction
- Sexual versus asexual reproduction
- Parasitism and coevolution
- Social behaviour
- Altruism and kin selection
- Cooperative hunting and defence
- Field techniques and sampling
-
Investigative Biology
3 topics- Scientific principles and process
- Hypotheses and predictions
- Independent, dependent and confounding variables
- Experimentation and controls
- Positive and negative controls
- Replication and sample size
- Reporting and critical evaluation
- Statistical concepts and significance
- Evaluation of scientific literature
- Scientific principles and process
-
Project and Practical Investigation
3 topics- Research and planning
- Literature review
- Experimental design and risk assessment
- Data collection and analysis
- Data tables and graphing
- Treatment of uncertainty and error
- Dissertation
- Structure and scientific argument
- Conclusions and evaluation
- Research and planning
Scottish Advanced Higher Biology flashcards — 51 questions with answers
In SDS-PAGE used to separate proteins, what does SDS do to the proteins before electrophoresis?
SDS (sodium dodecyl sulfate) is a detergent that denatures proteins and coats them with a uniform negative charge, so they separate by molecular size alone rather than by native charge or shape.
What is the purpose of a buffer solution in laboratory techniques, and how does it work?
A buffer resists changes in pH when small amounts of acid or alkali are added. It works because it contains a weak acid and its conjugate base (or weak base and conjugate acid) that absorb added $\ce{H+}$ or $\ce{OH-}$ ions.
State the Beer–Lambert law as used in colorimetry and give the equation.
Absorbance is directly proportional to the concentration of the absorbing substance and the path length: $$A = \varepsilon c l$$ where $A$ is absorbance, $\varepsilon$ is the molar absorption coefficient, $c$ is concentration and $l$ is path length.
In centrifugation, where do the densest particles end up, and what is the resulting layered material called?
The densest particles sediment to the bottom forming the pellet; the remaining liquid above is the supernatant.
Distinguish between affinity chromatography and gel-filtration (size-exclusion) chromatography for separating proteins.
Affinity chromatography separates a protein by its specific binding to an immobilised ligand on the column matrix. Gel-filtration separates proteins by size: small molecules enter the gel beads and are retarded, while large molecules pass through faster and elute first.
What is the difference between a linear, a logarithmic and a semi-logarithmic scale when presenting biological data?
A linear scale has equal intervals representing equal amounts. A logarithmic scale has intervals representing equal multiplicative factors (e.g. powers of 10). A semi-logarithmic plot uses a log scale on one axis (often the y-axis) and a linear scale on the other, useful for exponential data such as cell growth.
Define the isoelectric point (pI) of a protein.
The pI is the pH at which a protein carries no net electrical charge, so its positive and negative charges balance; at this pH the protein will not migrate in an electric field and is least soluble.
Name the four levels of protein structure.
Primary (amino acid sequence), secondary (regular local folding such as $\alpha$-helices and $\beta$-pleated sheets), tertiary (overall 3D folding of a single polypeptide), and quaternary (arrangement of multiple polypeptide subunits).
What type of bond forms the primary structure of a protein, and between which groups does it form?
A peptide bond, a covalent bond formed by a condensation reaction between the carboxyl group ($\ce{-COOH}$) of one amino acid and the amino group ($\ce{-NH2}$) of the next, releasing water.
Which interactions stabilise the secondary structure of proteins ($\alpha$-helix and $\beta$-sheet)?
Hydrogen bonds between the carbonyl oxygen ($\ce{C=O}$) of one peptide bond and the amino hydrogen ($\ce{N-H}$) of another along the polypeptide backbone.
List the four types of interaction that maintain the tertiary structure of a protein.
Hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds (between charged R-groups), hydrophobic interactions (non-polar R-groups clustering away from water), and disulfide bridges (covalent $\ce{-S-S-}$ bonds between cysteine residues).
What is an allosteric protein, and what is the difference between positive and negative modulators?
An allosteric protein has a binding site distinct from its active/functional site whose occupation changes the protein's conformation and activity. A positive modulator increases activity/affinity, while a negative modulator decreases it.
Explain the difference between competitive and non-competitive (allosteric) enzyme inhibition.
A competitive inhibitor binds the active site, competes with substrate, and its effect is overcome by increasing substrate concentration. A non-competitive inhibitor binds an allosteric site, changing the active site's shape; its effect is not reversed by adding more substrate.
What is meant by reversible phosphorylation as a means of controlling protein activity?
A protein kinase adds a phosphate group from ATP to a protein, and a phosphatase removes it. Phosphorylation changes the protein's conformation and so switches its activity on or off, allowing rapid reversible control.
In sensory cell signalling, distinguish between a chemical (ligand-gated) ion channel and a voltage-gated ion channel.
A ligand-gated channel opens when a specific signal molecule binds to it, whereas a voltage-gated channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential across the cell.
Describe the role of a G-protein coupled receptor in transducing an external signal.
When a ligand binds the receptor, the receptor activates an associated G-protein, which then activates (or inhibits) a membrane-bound effector enzyme, triggering production of a second messenger that relays the signal inside the cell.
What is a second messenger, and give a common example.
A second messenger is an intracellular signalling molecule that amplifies and relays a signal received at the cell surface to bring about a response. A common example is cyclic AMP (cAMP), produced from ATP by adenylate cyclase.
Explain how signal amplification is achieved in a hormone signalling cascade.
A single receptor–ligand binding event activates an enzyme that produces many second-messenger molecules, each of which activates several further enzymes in a cascade, so the original small signal is amplified into a large cellular response.
In the detection of light by rod cells, what is the light-absorbing pigment and what happens when it absorbs a photon?
The pigment is rhodopsin (opsin plus retinal). Absorbing a photon causes retinal to change shape (cis to trans), activating opsin, which triggers a signal cascade that hyperpolarises the rod cell and alters neurotransmitter release.
Distinguish between the four main types of cell signalling: endocrine, paracrine, autocrine and direct (contact-dependent).
Endocrine: hormones travel in the blood to distant target cells. Paracrine: signals act on nearby cells. Autocrine: a cell signals to itself. Direct/contact-dependent: signalling requires physical contact between cells (e.g. via membrane-bound molecules or gap junctions).
Show the other 31 Biology flashcards
Why can steroid (lipid-soluble) hormones diffuse directly into the cell, and where are their receptors located?
Because they are hydrophobic, steroid hormones pass directly through the phospholipid bilayer. Their receptors are intracellular (in the cytoplasm or nucleus), and the hormone–receptor complex typically acts as a transcription factor regulating gene expression.
What is the difference between hydrophilic and hydrophobic signalling molecules in terms of how they reach their receptors?
Hydrophilic (water-soluble) signals cannot cross the membrane and bind receptors on the cell surface. Hydrophobic (lipid-soluble) signals diffuse through the membrane to bind intracellular receptors.
Define a quadrat and state when it is the appropriate sampling tool.
A quadrat is a frame of known area placed on the ground to sample the abundance of sessile (non-mobile) or slow-moving organisms, such as plants, by counting or estimating percentage cover within it.
Describe the mark–release–recapture (Lincoln index) method and give the formula for estimating population size.
A sample of animals is captured, marked and released; later a second sample is taken and the number of marked individuals recaptured is recorded. Population size is estimated by $$N = \frac{M \times C}{R}$$ where $M$ = number first marked, $C$ = total in second sample, $R$ = marked individuals recaptured.
What is a transect, and when is a belt transect used in preference to a line transect?
A transect is a line across a habitat along which organisms are recorded to study distribution along an environmental gradient. A belt transect (a strip of defined width, e.g. using quadrats) is used when abundance as well as presence/distribution is required.
List three ethical or practical considerations when capturing and sampling animals in the field.
Minimise harm/stress to organisms (use humane traps, handle quickly), avoid affecting the population or habitat (e.g. recapture distortion, marking that increases predation), and obtain any necessary permissions/licences for protected species.
Why may using a point frame or counting along randomly placed quadrats reduce sampling bias?
Random placement (e.g. using coordinates from random numbers) ensures every part of the area has an equal chance of being sampled, preventing the observer from unconsciously selecting unrepresentative or convenient areas.
State the difference between a taxonomic and a phylogenetic approach to identifying organisms, including the use of model organisms.
A taxonomic approach classifies organisms by observable characteristics (often using keys), while a phylogenetic approach groups organisms by evolutionary relatedness using molecular/sequence data. Model organisms are well-studied species used as representatives to infer information about related organisms.
Define natural selection.
Natural selection is the non-random increase in frequency of advantageous (DNA) variation and the decrease in frequency of deleterious variation, driven by differential survival and reproduction of organisms best suited to their environment.
Distinguish between stabilising, directional and disruptive selection.
Stabilising selection favours intermediate phenotypes and reduces variation. Directional selection favours one extreme phenotype, shifting the mean. Disruptive selection favours both extremes against the intermediate, potentially splitting a population.
What is the difference between allopatric and sympatric speciation?
Allopatric speciation occurs when populations are separated by a geographical barrier (geographical isolation). Sympatric speciation occurs without geographical separation, through behavioural, ecological or polyploidy/reproductive isolation within the same area.
Define genetic drift and explain why it has a greater effect on small populations.
Genetic drift is the random change in allele frequencies between generations due to chance. Small populations are more affected because random sampling of alleles causes proportionally larger fluctuations, more readily fixing or losing alleles (e.g. founder effect, bottleneck).
Distinguish between sexual selection by male–male rivalry and female choice.
Male–male rivalry: males compete directly (often via fighting or display) for access to females, favouring traits such as size and weaponry. Female choice: females select mates based on honest signals of fitness (e.g. ornaments), favouring those traits in males.
Explain the evolutionary cost and benefit of sexual reproduction compared with asexual reproduction.
Cost: sexual reproduction is slower, requires a mate, and only half a parent's genes pass to each offspring. Benefit: it generates genetic variation (through independent assortment, crossing over and random fertilisation), helping populations adapt to changing environments and resist parasites (Red Queen hypothesis).
What is the difference between a narrow and a wide hybrid zone, and what does each indicate?
A narrow hybrid zone indicates strong selection against hybrids (low hybrid fitness), keeping the zone thin. A wide hybrid zone indicates weaker selection against hybrids, allowing more gene flow between the parental populations.
Define inbreeding and outbreeding, and state the typical consequence of each.
Inbreeding is mating between closely related individuals, increasing homozygosity and the risk of inbreeding depression (expression of deleterious recessive alleles). Outbreeding is mating between unrelated individuals, increasing heterozygosity and often improving fitness (hybrid vigour/heterosis).
What is the difference between a r-selected and a K-selected reproductive strategy?
r-selected species produce many small offspring with little parental care in unstable environments (rapid population growth). K-selected species produce few large offspring with much parental care in stable environments near carrying capacity.
Define altruism in the context of social behaviour and explain it using kin selection.
Altruism is behaviour that harms the donor's own fitness while benefiting the recipient. Kin selection explains it because helping relatives, who share genes, increases the donor's inclusive fitness, allowing 'altruistic' alleles to be favoured if the benefit to relatives outweighs the cost.
State Hamilton's rule for the spread of an altruistic allele by kin selection.
An altruistic allele spreads when $$rB > C$$ where $r$ is the coefficient of relatedness between donor and recipient, $B$ is the benefit to the recipient, and $C$ is the cost to the donor.
What is the difference between a dominance hierarchy and reciprocal altruism?
A dominance hierarchy is a ranked social order reducing conflict and energy spent fighting, where higher-ranked individuals gain priority access to resources. Reciprocal altruism is the exchange of altruistic acts between (often unrelated) individuals on the expectation of a returned favour later.
Describe the advantages of living in a social group such as cooperative hunting and predator avoidance.
Social groups can hunt cooperatively to capture larger prey, share information, provide collective defence and dilution effect against predators, and rear young communally; costs include increased competition, disease spread and conspicuousness to predators.
In eusocial insects, why do sterile workers help raise the queen's offspring rather than reproduce themselves?
Because of their haplodiploid genetics, female workers share a higher relatedness ($r = 0.75$) with full sisters than they would with their own offspring ($r = 0.5$), so by kin selection they propagate more of their genes by helping the queen raise sisters.
State the steps of the scientific method as a logical process.
Observation, formulation of a testable hypothesis, prediction, designed experiment, collection and analysis of data, drawing conclusions, and either supporting or refuting the hypothesis (leading to revision and further testing).
Distinguish between the independent, dependent and controlled (confounding) variables in an experiment.
The independent variable is deliberately changed by the experimenter; the dependent variable is measured as the outcome; controlled variables are kept constant so they do not confound the results.
What is the difference between a negative control and a positive control in an experiment?
A negative control is a treatment expected to give no effect, confirming the response is due to the independent variable. A positive control is a treatment known to give a definite effect, confirming the experimental system can detect a response.
Explain the difference between a placebo and a double-blind procedure in trials.
A placebo is a dummy treatment with no active agent, used to control for psychological effects. A double-blind procedure ensures neither the subjects nor the experimenters know who receives the treatment or placebo, preventing bias in administration and assessment.
Define accuracy, precision and reliability in the context of measurement.
Accuracy is how close a measurement is to the true value. Precision is how close repeated measurements are to one another (small spread). Reliability is the consistency of results when an experiment is repeated, increased by repetition and adequate replicates.
What is the difference between a systematic error and a random error, and how is each minimised?
A systematic error is a consistent bias (e.g. a mis-calibrated instrument) shifting all readings the same way; it is reduced by calibrating equipment and improving method. A random error causes unpredictable scatter; it is reduced by taking repeated measurements and averaging.
State the difference between the mean, median and mode as measures of central tendency.
The mean is the arithmetic average ($\bar{x} = \frac{\sum x}{n}$). The median is the middle value when data are ordered. The mode is the most frequently occurring value.
What does the standard deviation measure, and what is shown by error bars on a graph?
Standard deviation measures the spread (dispersion) of data about the mean. Error bars (e.g. $\pm$ one standard deviation or standard error) show the variability/uncertainty of each mean; non-overlapping error bars suggest a real difference between groups.
When carrying out a literature review for a dissertation, what is the difference between a primary and a secondary source?
A primary source reports original research/data first-hand (e.g. a peer-reviewed research paper). A secondary source summarises, reviews or interprets primary work (e.g. a review article, textbook or website), and is generally considered less authoritative for original evidence.
Scottish Advanced Higher Biology FAQ
What is in the Scottish Advanced Higher Biology syllabus?
Scottish Advanced Higher Biology is split into 4 chapters: Cells and Proteins, Organisms and Evolution, Investigative Biology and Project and Practical Investigation. Together they contain 14 topics and 28 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Scottish Advanced Higher Biology?
4 chapters, containing 14 topics and 28 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Cells and Proteins, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Scottish Advanced Higher Biology?
Yes — a 51-card Biology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.