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Registered Nurse Objective Structured Clinical Examination (NMC OSCE) Assessment and Care Planning (APIE) Syllabus

The Assessment and Care Planning (APIE) syllabus for Registered Nurse Objective Structured Clinical Examination (NMC OSCE) in full: 4 chapters, 15 topics and 12 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 Assessment and Care Planning (APIE) flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
15Topics
12Sub-topics
52Flashcards

Assessment and Care Planning (APIE) syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Holistic Patient Assessment

    4 topics
    • Structured assessment frameworks
      • Activities of Living (Roper-Logan-Tierney) model
      • ABCDE systematic approach
    • History taking and information gathering
      • Using SBAR for handover and escalation
      • Reviewing the care record and observations chart
    • Baseline observations and vital signs
      • Temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure, oxygen saturation
      • National Early Warning Score 2 (NEWS2) calculation
    • Risk screening at assessment
      • Falls, pressure ulcer (e.g. Waterlow), VTE and nutrition (MUST) screening
      • Pain assessment tools
  2. Nursing Diagnosis and Problem Identification

    3 topics
    • Distinguishing actual and potential problems
    • Prioritising care needs
      • Linking findings to escalation triggers
    • Identifying patient-centred goals
  3. Planning Individualised Care

    4 topics
    • Writing SMART goals and care plans
      • Short-term and long-term outcomes
    • Person-centred and shared decision making
      • Involving the patient, family and carers
    • Evidence-based interventions in the plan
    • Discharge and ongoing care considerations
  4. Implementation and Evaluation

    4 topics
    • Delivering planned interventions safely
    • Reassessment and monitoring response to care
      • Adjusting the plan based on findings
    • Evaluating whether goals were met
    • Documentation of evaluation and revised plans

Registered Nurse Objective Structured Clinical Examination (NMC OSCE) Assessment and Care Planning (APIE) flashcards โ€” 52 questions with answers

  1. What does the nursing process acronym APIE stand for?

    Assessment, Planning, Implementation and Evaluation โ€” the four cyclical stages of person-centred nursing care.

  2. In the NMC OSCE, why is the nursing process described as cyclical rather than linear?

    Because Evaluation feeds back into reassessment: findings continually inform new assessment, updated plans and revised interventions, so the cycle repeats rather than ending.

  3. What does the ADPIE expansion of the nursing process add to APIE?

    It inserts 'Diagnosis' (Nursing Diagnosis) between Assessment and Planning, giving Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation.

  4. Name the four phases of the structured ABCDE assessment framework used in initial/acute patient assessment.

    Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure โ€” assessed in that priority order, treating life-threatening problems before moving on.

  5. What is the purpose of a structured assessment framework (e.g. ABCDE, Roper-Logan-Tierney)?

    To ensure a systematic, comprehensive and consistent assessment so no key information or deterioration is missed, supporting safe prioritisation.

  6. What are the 12 Activities of Living in the Roper-Logan-Tierney (RLT) model often used in UK nursing assessment?

    Maintaining a safe environment; communication; breathing; eating and drinking; eliminating; personal cleansing/dressing; controlling body temperature; mobilising; working and playing; expressing sexuality; sleeping; and dying.

  7. In the ABCDE approach, why must you treat each problem before moving to the next letter?

    Because each step addresses an immediately life-threatening problem; correcting Airway before Breathing, etc., follows a 'treat as you find' priority that prevents preventable deterioration or death.

  8. What does the mnemonic SBAR stand for in clinical handover and information gathering?

    Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation โ€” a structured tool for concise, accurate communication of patient information.

  9. What is the difference between subjective and objective data in history taking?

    Subjective data is what the patient reports (symptoms, feelings, history they describe); objective data is what the nurse measures or observes (vital signs, examination findings, test results).

  10. What does the SOCRATES mnemonic assess when taking a pain or symptom history?

    Site, Onset, Character, Radiation, Associations, Time course, Exacerbating/relieving factors, and Severity.

  11. What is the difference between an open and a closed question in history taking, and why use open questions first?

    Open questions invite a free narrative answer (e.g. 'Tell me about your breathing'); closed questions elicit a yes/no or short answer. Open questions first gather richer information and avoid leading the patient.

  12. List the standard set of baseline observations (vital signs) recorded on admission.

    Respiratory rate, oxygen saturation (SpO2), heart/pulse rate, blood pressure, temperature, and level of consciousness (e.g. ACVPU), often with capillary blood glucose and pain score.

  13. What is the normal adult respiratory rate range at rest?

    $12$โ€“$20$ breaths per minute.

  14. What is the normal adult resting heart rate range?

    $60$โ€“$100$ beats per minute.

  15. What is the typical normal adult oral/tympanic body temperature range?

    Approximately $36.1\,^{\circ}\mathrm{C}$ to $37.2\,^{\circ}\mathrm{C}$ (commonly cited as around $37\,^{\circ}\mathrm{C}$).

  16. What target oxygen saturation range is generally recommended for adults without risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure?

    $94\%$โ€“$98\%$ SpO2.

  17. What is the recommended target SpO2 range for patients at risk of hypercapnic (type 2) respiratory failure, e.g. some COPD patients?

    $88\%$โ€“$92\%$ SpO2.

  18. What does the ACVPU scale assess and what do its letters stand for?

    It rapidly assesses level of consciousness: Alert, new Confusion, responds to Voice, responds to Pain, Unresponsive.

  19. What is the National Early Warning Score 2 (NEWS2) and what does it measure?

    A standardised UK tool that aggregates six physiological parameters (respiratory rate, SpO2, air/oxygen, systolic BP, pulse, consciousness/ACVPU, temperature) into a single score to detect and escalate acute deterioration.

  20. In NEWS2, what aggregate score typically triggers an urgent clinical/critical care response?

    A total score of $\geq 7$ (or any single parameter scoring 3) prompts urgent review; a score of $5$โ€“$6$ is a key threshold for urgent escalation.

Show the other 32 Assessment and Care Planning (APIE) flashcards
  1. How is Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) estimated from systolic (SBP) and diastolic (DBP) blood pressure?

    $$MAP \approx DBP + \frac{1}{3}(SBP - DBP)$$

  2. Name three common risk-screening assessment tools used at admission in UK adult nursing.

    Waterlow or Braden (pressure ulcer risk), MUST (malnutrition risk), and a falls risk assessment; VTE risk assessment is also routinely completed.

  3. What does the MUST tool screen for and what are its three components?

    MUST (Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool) screens nutrition risk using BMI score, unplanned weight loss score, and an acute disease effect score, summed to a 0โ€“6+ risk category.

  4. What does the Waterlow score assess, and does a higher score mean higher or lower risk?

    It assesses pressure ulcer (pressure injury) risk; a higher score indicates higher risk.

  5. What does a VTE risk assessment determine on admission?

    A patient's risk of venous thromboembolism (DVT/PE) versus bleeding risk, guiding whether mechanical and/or pharmacological thromboprophylaxis is needed.

  6. In care planning, what is the difference between an actual and a potential problem?

    An actual problem is one the patient currently has (e.g. existing pressure ulcer); a potential problem is a risk that could develop if not prevented (e.g. risk of pressure damage).

  7. How is a potential problem typically worded in a nursing care plan?

    As a risk statement, e.g. 'At risk of...' or 'Potential for...', followed by the problem and its related/contributing factors.

  8. What is the structure of a PES nursing diagnosis statement?

    Problem (the diagnosis), Etiology ('related to' the cause/risk factors), and Signs/Symptoms ('as evidenced by' the defining characteristics).

  9. When prioritising care needs, how does Maslow's hierarchy guide the order of nursing priorities?

    Physiological needs (airway, breathing, circulation, nutrition, elimination) are met first, then safety, then love/belonging, esteem, and self-actualisation.

  10. What is the difference between a high-priority and a low-priority problem when prioritising care?

    High-priority problems are life-threatening or urgent (e.g. compromised airway/breathing); low-priority problems are important to wellbeing but not immediately life-threatening and can be addressed later.

  11. What is a patient-centred (person-centred) goal?

    A goal that reflects the individual patient's own values, preferences and desired outcomes, agreed with them rather than imposed by the nurse, and focused on what matters to the patient.

  12. What does the SMART acronym stand for when writing care plan goals?

    Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant (Realistic), and Time-bound.

  13. Give an example of converting a vague goal 'patient will mobilise better' into a SMART goal.

    'Patient will walk $20$ metres with a frame and one assistant, unaided by pain above 3/10, within 5 days.' โ€” specific, measurable distance, achievable, relevant, time-bound.

  14. What is the difference between a short-term and a long-term goal in care planning?

    A short-term goal is achievable within hours to days (an interim step); a long-term goal is the overall desired outcome achieved over a longer period (weeks to discharge).

  15. What three components are usually documented in a written care plan for each problem?

    The identified problem/need, the goal/expected outcome (SMART), and the planned nursing interventions/actions to achieve it (with evaluation date).

  16. What is shared decision making in nursing care?

    A collaborative process where the nurse and patient jointly make decisions about care, combining clinical evidence with the patient's preferences, values and informed choice.

  17. What four ingredients are needed for valid informed consent to care?

    The patient must have capacity, be given sufficient information, decide voluntarily (without coercion), and be able to communicate the decision.

  18. What are the key principles of person-centred care according to UK frameworks?

    Treating people with dignity, compassion and respect; offering coordinated and personalised care; and supporting people to recognise and develop their own strengths and abilities (enablement).

  19. What does 'evidence-based practice' mean when selecting interventions for a care plan?

    Integrating the best available research evidence with clinical expertise and the patient's values/preferences to choose interventions most likely to be effective and safe.

  20. Rank the hierarchy of evidence from strongest to weakest for guiding interventions.

    Systematic reviews/meta-analyses > randomised controlled trials > cohort studies > case-control studies > case series/reports > expert opinion.

  21. Why should nursing interventions in a care plan be linked to national guidance such as NICE?

    NICE guidelines synthesise current evidence into recommended practice, so linking interventions to them ensures care is evidence-based, standardised, defensible and up to date.

  22. What is discharge planning and when should it begin?

    The process of preparing a patient for safe transfer from hospital to home or another setting; it should begin at or soon after admission, anticipating ongoing needs.

  23. List key elements to address when planning a safe discharge.

    Medicines and TTOs, follow-up appointments, equipment and home adaptations, social/care package and support, patient/carer education, and clear communication with the GP/community team.

  24. What does the 'Implementation' stage of APIE involve?

    Carrying out the planned nursing interventions safely and competently, while continuing to observe the patient, and accurately documenting the care given and the patient's response.

  25. Name three checks/safety steps a nurse must perform before delivering a planned intervention such as medication administration.

    Confirm patient identity (e.g. two identifiers), check for allergies and contraindications, and verify the correct drug/dose/route/time against the prescription โ€” applying the 'rights' of administration.

  26. What are the commonly taught 'rights' of medication administration?

    Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation (often extended to right reason, right response and right to refuse).

  27. What does reassessment during implementation aim to detect?

    Whether the patient is responding to the intervention as expected, or is deteriorating/developing new problems, prompting timely escalation and revision of care.

  28. What is the difference between monitoring and evaluation in the nursing process?

    Monitoring is the ongoing observation of the patient's status during care; evaluation is the structured judgement of whether the stated goals/outcomes have been achieved at the review point.

  29. When evaluating a care plan, what three possible conclusions can be reached about each goal?

    The goal was met (fully achieved), partially met (some progress), or not met (not achieved) โ€” each then guiding whether to continue, revise, or discontinue the plan.

  30. If a goal is evaluated as 'not met', what should the nurse do next in the APIE cycle?

    Reassess the patient to find why, revise the nursing diagnosis/goal and interventions accordingly, then re-implement and re-evaluate โ€” restarting the cycle.

  31. What must be documented when evaluating care and revising a plan?

    The evaluation findings (progress against each goal), the patient's response, any changes to the diagnosis/goals/interventions, the rationale, and the new review date โ€” recorded contemporaneously, accurately and signed.

  32. According to NMC standards, what are the key requirements for good nursing record-keeping?

    Records must be accurate, factual, clear, legible, contemporaneous (completed as soon as possible after events), free of unnecessary abbreviations or opinion, dated, timed and signed/attributable.

Registered Nurse Objective Structured Clinical Examination (NMC OSCE) Assessment and Care Planning (APIE) FAQ

What is in the Registered Nurse Objective Structured Clinical Examination (NMC OSCE) Assessment and Care Planning (APIE) syllabus?

Registered Nurse Objective Structured Clinical Examination (NMC OSCE) Assessment and Care Planning (APIE) is split into 4 chapters: Holistic Patient Assessment, Nursing Diagnosis and Problem Identification, Planning Individualised Care and Implementation and Evaluation. Together they contain 15 topics and 12 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Registered Nurse Objective Structured Clinical Examination (NMC OSCE) Assessment and Care Planning (APIE)?

4 chapters, containing 15 topics and 12 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Holistic Patient Assessment, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for Registered Nurse Objective Structured Clinical Examination (NMC OSCE) Assessment and Care Planning (APIE)?

Yes โ€” a 52-card Assessment and Care Planning (APIE) deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.