🇺🇸 Registered Health Information Administrator / Technician (RHIA / RHIT) · subject
Registered Health Information Administrator / Technician (RHIA / RHIT) Healthcare Delivery, Quality, and Performance Improvement Syllabus
The Healthcare Delivery, Quality, and Performance Improvement syllabus for Registered Health Information Administrator / Technician (RHIA / RHIT) in full: 3 chapters, 9 topics and 18 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Healthcare Delivery, Quality, and Performance Improvement flashcards with answers.
Healthcare Delivery, Quality, and Performance Improvement syllabus: all 3 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
-
US Healthcare Delivery System
3 topics- Structure of Healthcare Delivery
- Provider types and care settings
- Integrated delivery networks and ACOs
- Healthcare Financing
- Public versus private financing
- Health policy and the Affordable Care Act
- Regulatory and Accreditation Bodies
- CMS, Joint Commission, and DNV
- Licensure, certification, and accreditation distinctions
- Structure of Healthcare Delivery
-
Quality Management
3 topics- Quality Improvement Methodologies
- PDSA, Lean, and Six Sigma
- Root cause analysis and FMEA
- Performance Measurement
- Core measures and quality indicators
- Value-based purchasing and pay-for-performance
- Patient Safety
- Sentinel events and never events
- Incident reporting and risk management
- Quality Improvement Methodologies
-
Utilization and Case Management
3 topics- Utilization Review
- Medical necessity and level of care
- Concurrent and retrospective review
- Case Management
- Care coordination and discharge planning
- Clinical documentation improvement (CDI)
- Accreditation and Survey Readiness
- Standards compliance and tracer methodology
- Survey preparation and corrective action
- Utilization Review
Registered Health Information Administrator / Technician (RHIA / RHIT) Healthcare Delivery, Quality, and Performance Improvement flashcards — 51 questions with answers
What are the three main tiers of the U.S. healthcare delivery system?
Primary care (first contact, prevention, routine care), secondary care (specialist/hospital care via referral), and tertiary care (highly specialized care such as advanced surgery, transplants, and trauma centers).
What is the difference between acute care and long-term care facilities?
Acute care provides short-term treatment for severe injury, illness, or surgery (e.g., hospitals with average length of stay under 30 days), while long-term care provides ongoing services for chronic conditions and rehabilitation (e.g., skilled nursing facilities).
What is an Integrated Delivery System (IDS)?
A network of healthcare organizations that provides or arranges a coordinated continuum of services to a defined population and is willing to be held clinically and financially accountable for outcomes and health status.
What distinguishes an Ambulatory Surgical Center (ASC) from inpatient surgery?
An ASC provides same-day surgical care that does not require an overnight hospital stay; patients are admitted and discharged the same day.
What is the primary purpose of the Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) model?
To provide comprehensive, coordinated, patient-centered primary care led by a personal physician who manages the patient's overall care across settings to improve quality and reduce cost.
What is the difference between Medicare and Medicaid?
Medicare is a federal program covering people 65+ and certain disabled individuals; Medicaid is a joint federal-state program providing coverage to low-income individuals and families based on financial need.
List the four parts of Medicare and what each covers.
Part A: hospital/inpatient insurance; Part B: medical/outpatient insurance; Part C: Medicare Advantage (private plans); Part D: prescription drug coverage.
What is a prospective payment system (PPS)?
A reimbursement method in which payment is determined in advance based on a fixed, predetermined rate for a category of service (e.g., MS-DRGs for inpatient care), regardless of actual cost incurred.
What classification system is the basis for the inpatient hospital prospective payment system?
Medicare Severity Diagnosis-Related Groups (MS-DRGs), which group inpatient stays by diagnosis, procedures, comorbidities, and complications.
What is capitation as a reimbursement method?
A payment arrangement where a provider is paid a fixed amount per enrolled patient per period (per member per month) regardless of the number or cost of services delivered.
What is the difference between fee-for-service and value-based reimbursement?
Fee-for-service pays providers for each individual service delivered (volume-based), while value-based reimbursement ties payment to quality, outcomes, and cost-efficiency of care.
What is the Resource-Based Relative Value Scale (RBRVS) used for?
It is the system Medicare uses to determine physician payment under Part B, assigning relative value units (RVUs) for physician work, practice expense, and malpractice, adjusted by a geographic factor and conversion factor.
What is the role of CMS (Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services)?
A federal agency within HHS that administers Medicare, Medicaid, CHIP, and the Health Insurance Marketplace, and sets Conditions of Participation and reimbursement policy.
What are the Medicare Conditions of Participation (CoP)?
Minimum health and safety standards that healthcare organizations must meet to participate in and receive payment from Medicare and Medicaid programs.
What is deemed status in accreditation?
Status granted when a healthcare organization is accredited by a CMS-approved accrediting body (e.g., The Joint Commission), allowing it to be deemed in compliance with Medicare Conditions of Participation without a separate CMS survey.
Which organization is the most widely recognized accreditor of U.S. hospitals?
The Joint Commission (TJC), formerly JCAHO, which accredits and certifies healthcare organizations and programs.
What does the Joint Commission's tracer methodology evaluate?
It follows (traces) the experience of a specific patient through the organization's care processes to assess compliance with standards and the actual delivery of care across departments.
What is ORYX in the context of Joint Commission accreditation?
The initiative that integrates standardized core performance measures and outcomes data into the accreditation process for ongoing performance monitoring.
What does NCQA accredit and what tool does it use?
The National Committee for Quality Assurance accredits managed care/health plans and uses HEDIS (Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set) to measure plan performance.
What is the difference between accreditation, licensure, and certification?
Licensure is mandatory government permission to operate; certification is meeting requirements to participate in a program (e.g., Medicare); accreditation is voluntary recognition of meeting standards by a private body.
Show the other 31 Healthcare Delivery, Quality, and Performance Improvement flashcards
What is the PDCA (Plan-Do-Check-Act) cycle?
An iterative quality improvement method: Plan a change, Do (implement on small scale), Check (analyze results), and Act (adopt, adjust, or abandon), then repeat for continuous improvement.
What are the core principles of Lean methodology?
Lean focuses on maximizing value and eliminating waste (non-value-added activities) in processes to improve efficiency and flow.
What does the DMAIC framework in Six Sigma stand for?
Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control — a structured methodology for reducing process variation and defects.
What is the goal/defect level of Six Sigma?
To reduce process variation so that there are no more than 3.4 defects per million opportunities (a 99.99966% defect-free rate).
What is benchmarking in quality improvement?
The systematic comparison of an organization's performance, processes, or outcomes against best practices or industry leaders to identify improvement opportunities.
What is a root cause analysis (RCA)?
A structured, retrospective process used after a sentinel or adverse event to identify the underlying causal factors and system failures, focusing on systems rather than individual blame.
What is a Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)?
A proactive, prospective risk-assessment tool that identifies potential failures in a process, their causes and effects, and prioritizes them to prevent harm before it occurs.
What is the difference between a structure, process, and outcome measure (Donabedian model)?
Structure measures assess capacity/resources (e.g., staffing); process measures assess what is done to patients (e.g., aspirin given for MI); outcome measures assess results of care (e.g., mortality rates).
What is the difference between a numerator and denominator in a performance/rate measure?
The numerator is the number of cases meeting the measure criteria (the events counted), and the denominator is the total population eligible to be in the numerator (the at-risk population).
What is risk adjustment in performance measurement?
A statistical method that accounts for differences in patient characteristics (severity, comorbidities) across populations so outcomes can be fairly compared between providers.
What is HEDIS used to measure?
HEDIS (Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set) measures health plan performance on care and service across domains such as effectiveness of care, access, and utilization.
What is the purpose of HCAHPS surveys?
The Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems survey measures patients' perspectives on their hospital care for public reporting and value-based purchasing.
What is a dashboard versus a scorecard in performance reporting?
A dashboard provides real-time, operational snapshots of current performance metrics; a scorecard (e.g., balanced scorecard) tracks performance against strategic goals over time across multiple perspectives.
What is a sentinel event according to The Joint Commission?
A patient safety event (not primarily related to the natural course of illness) that reaches a patient and results in death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm; it requires immediate investigation and response.
What is a 'never event'?
A serious, largely preventable patient safety event (e.g., wrong-site surgery, retained foreign object) identified by the National Quality Forum that should never occur and for which Medicare may deny payment.
What are the National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs)?
Joint Commission goals that highlight specific high-priority patient safety problems and evidence-based solutions (e.g., correct patient identification, medication safety, preventing infections).
What is a 'just culture' in patient safety?
An organizational culture that balances accountability and learning by distinguishing human error and at-risk behavior (managed by system fixes/coaching) from reckless behavior (which warrants discipline), encouraging error reporting.
What is the difference between an adverse event, a near miss, and a no-harm event?
An adverse event causes patient harm; a near miss (close call) is caught before reaching the patient; a no-harm event reaches the patient but causes no injury.
What are Hospital-Acquired Conditions (HACs) and why do they matter for payment?
HACs are reasonably preventable conditions acquired during hospitalization (e.g., certain infections, falls); Medicare does not provide additional payment for them and penalizes hospitals with high rates.
What are the three main types of utilization review based on timing?
Prospective (pre-admission/pre-certification, before care), concurrent (during the stay/ongoing care), and retrospective (after care and discharge) review.
What is the primary purpose of utilization review/management?
To ensure that healthcare services are medically necessary, delivered in the most appropriate/cost-effective setting, and at the appropriate level of care, controlling overutilization and underutilization.
What criteria sets are commonly used in utilization review for level-of-care decisions?
InterQual and MCG (Milliman Care Guidelines) — evidence-based clinical criteria used to determine medical necessity and appropriate level of care.
What is preauthorization (precertification)?
A utilization management requirement that a provider obtain approval from the payer before delivering a service or procedure to confirm coverage and medical necessity.
What is the role of a case manager?
To coordinate care, resources, and services across the continuum for individual patients to ensure quality, appropriate utilization, timely discharge, and cost-effective outcomes.
What are the core functions/steps of the case management process?
Assessment (screening), planning, implementation (coordination), monitoring/evaluation, and discharge/transition planning to ensure continuity of care.
What is discharge planning and when should it begin?
The process of arranging post-acute care, resources, and services for a patient's transition out of the facility; it should begin at or before admission to ensure a safe, timely transition.
How does case management differ from utilization review?
Utilization review focuses on medical necessity and appropriate use of resources/level of care; case management focuses on coordinating the patient's overall care and resources across the continuum to optimize outcomes.
What is a Joint Commission survey and how often does it occur for hospitals?
An on-site evaluation of compliance with accreditation standards conducted on an unannounced basis, typically every 3 years (39 months) for hospitals.
What is a mock survey in the context of accreditation readiness?
A simulated/practice survey conducted internally before the actual accreditation survey to identify deficiencies and prepare staff so the organization can correct issues in advance.
What is an Evidence of Standards Compliance (ESC) following a Joint Commission survey?
The written report an organization must submit to demonstrate it has corrected deficiencies (Requirements for Improvement) identified during the survey, typically within 60 days.
What is continuous survey readiness?
An ongoing organizational approach in which compliance with accreditation standards is maintained at all times (not just before a survey), embedding standards into daily operations.
Registered Health Information Administrator / Technician (RHIA / RHIT) Healthcare Delivery, Quality, and Performance Improvement FAQ
What is in the Registered Health Information Administrator / Technician (RHIA / RHIT) Healthcare Delivery, Quality, and Performance Improvement syllabus?
Registered Health Information Administrator / Technician (RHIA / RHIT) Healthcare Delivery, Quality, and Performance Improvement is split into 3 chapters: US Healthcare Delivery System, Quality Management and Utilization and Case Management. Together they contain 9 topics and 18 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Registered Health Information Administrator / Technician (RHIA / RHIT) Healthcare Delivery, Quality, and Performance Improvement?
3 chapters, containing 9 topics and 18 sub-topics. The largest chapter is US Healthcare Delivery System, with 3 topics.
Are there flashcards for Registered Health Information Administrator / Technician (RHIA / RHIT) Healthcare Delivery, Quality, and Performance Improvement?
Yes — a 51-card Healthcare Delivery, Quality, and Performance Improvement deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.