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Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board (PLAB) Psychiatry and Mental Health Syllabus

The Psychiatry and Mental Health syllabus for Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board (PLAB) in full: 3 chapters, 12 topics and 25 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Psychiatry and Mental Health flashcards with answers.

3Chapters
12Topics
25Sub-topics
51Flashcards

Psychiatry and Mental Health syllabus: all 3 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Mood and Anxiety Disorders

    4 topics
    • Depression
      • Assessment and severity grading
      • Antidepressant choice and review
      • Treatment-resistant depression
    • Bipolar Affective Disorder
      • Mania recognition
      • Mood stabiliser management
    • Anxiety Disorders
      • Generalised anxiety and panic disorder
      • OCD and PTSD
    • Self-Harm and Suicide Risk
      • Risk assessment
      • Safety planning and referral
  2. Psychotic and Organic Disorders

    4 topics
    • Schizophrenia
      • Positive and negative symptoms
      • Antipsychotic management and monitoring
    • Acute Behavioural Disturbance
      • Rapid tranquillisation
      • De-escalation techniques
    • Delirium and Dementia
      • Delirium assessment and causes
      • Dementia subtypes and cognitive testing
    • Substance Misuse
      • Alcohol dependence and withdrawal
      • Opioid dependence and overdose
  3. Mental Health Law and Risk

    4 topics
    • Mental Health Act
      • Sections 2, 3 and 5
      • Detention and appeal rights
    • Mental Capacity Act
      • Capacity assessment
      • Best interests and DoLS
    • Eating Disorders
      • Anorexia and bulimia nervosa
      • Refeeding syndrome and medical risk
    • Perinatal and Old Age Psychiatry
      • Postnatal depression and puerperal psychosis
      • Late-life depression and psychosis

Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board (PLAB) Psychiatry and Mental Health flashcards — 51 questions with answers

  1. According to ICD-10/DSM-5, what are the three core symptoms of depression, and how many must be present (with associated symptoms) for at least 2 weeks for a diagnosis?

    Core symptoms: (1) persistent low mood, (2) anhedonia (loss of interest/pleasure), (3) low energy/fatigue (anergia). At least 2 core symptoms plus associated symptoms must be present most days for ≥2 weeks.

  2. How does ICD-10 grade the severity of a depressive episode by symptom count?

    Mild: 2 core + 2 other symptoms. Moderate: 2 core + 3–4 other symptoms. Severe: all 3 core + ≥4 other symptoms (severe may have psychotic features such as nihilistic/mood-congruent delusions).

  3. List the biological ('somatic') symptoms of depression that suggest a more severe/melancholic picture.

    Early morning waking (≥2 h before usual), diurnal mood variation (worse in mornings), loss of appetite and weight loss, psychomotor retardation or agitation, loss of libido, and marked anhedonia.

  4. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for moderate-to-severe depression in UK practice, and which agent is typically preferred?

    An SSRI is first line; sertraline or citalopram are commonly preferred. Sertraline is favoured post-MI/cardiac disease due to a more favourable safety profile.

  5. How long should an antidepressant be continued after remission of a first depressive episode, and how long for recurrent depression?

    Continue for at least 6 months after remission for a first episode; for recurrent depression continue for at least 2 years at the treatment dose.

  6. What is serotonin syndrome and name three of its characteristic clinical features?

    A potentially life-threatening reaction to excess serotonergic activity. Features fall into three groups: neuromuscular (clonus, hyperreflexia, rigidity, tremor), autonomic (hyperthermia, tachycardia, sweating, diarrhoea), and altered mental state (agitation, confusion).

  7. Which SSRI carries a dose-dependent QT-prolongation warning, and what is the maximum recommended adult dose?

    Citalopram (and escitalopram) prolong the QT interval. Maximum adult citalopram dose is 40 mg/day (20 mg in the elderly or those with hepatic impairment); escitalopram max is 20 mg/day (10 mg in elderly).

  8. In bipolar affective disorder, what minimum duration distinguishes a manic episode from a hypomanic episode, and what additional feature defines mania?

    Mania lasts ≥1 week (or any duration if hospitalisation is required) and includes marked functional impairment and/or psychotic features. Hypomania lasts ≥4 days with milder symptoms and no psychosis or significant functional impairment.

  9. What is the diagnostic distinction between Bipolar I and Bipolar II disorder?

    Bipolar I requires at least one full manic episode (depression not required). Bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode plus at least one major depressive episode, with no history of full mania.

  10. What is the first-line long-term mood stabiliser for bipolar disorder, and what therapeutic serum level range is targeted?

    Lithium is first-line for prophylaxis. Target therapeutic range is $0.6\text{–}0.8\ \text{mmol/L}$ (up to $\sim 1.0\ \text{mmol/L}$ in acute mania or poor responders).

  11. Name four clinical features of lithium toxicity and the serum level above which toxicity typically occurs.

    Toxicity is usually seen above $1.5\ \text{mmol/L}$. Features: coarse tremor (fine tremor is a normal side effect), ataxia, dysarthria, drowsiness/confusion, vomiting, diarrhoea, and at higher levels seizures, renal failure and coma.

  12. What baseline and ongoing monitoring is required for a patient on lithium?

    Baseline: U&Es/eGFR, thyroid function (TFTs), calcium, ECG, weight/BMI. Lithium levels checked ~1 week after starting/dose change (12 h post-dose), then every 3 months. TFTs and U&Es every 6 months; calcium periodically.

  13. Why is sodium valproate contraindicated in women of childbearing potential, and what programme governs its use?

    Valproate is highly teratogenic, causing neural tube defects and neurodevelopmental disorders. It must not be used in girls/women of childbearing potential unless under the Pregnancy Prevention Programme (highly effective contraception and specialist sign-off).

  14. In Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD), what is the minimum symptom duration required for diagnosis, and what is the first-line drug treatment?

    GAD requires excessive, difficult-to-control worry on most days for at least 6 months. First-line drug treatment is an SSRI (e.g. sertraline); SNRI or pregabalin are alternatives.

  15. What is the recommended stepped-care first-line management of GAD before pharmacotherapy?

    Step 1: education and active monitoring. Step 2: low-intensity psychological interventions (guided self-help, psychoeducational groups). Step 3: high-intensity CBT or drug treatment (SSRI). Step 4: specialist referral for refractory/complex cases.

  16. Differentiate a panic attack from panic disorder.

    A panic attack is a discrete episode of intense fear with somatic symptoms (palpitations, sweating, dyspnoea, chest pain, fear of dying) peaking within minutes. Panic disorder is recurrent unexpected panic attacks with persistent worry about further attacks or maladaptive behaviour change.

  17. What is the first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe OCD, and which class of drugs is used?

    First-line is CBT incorporating exposure and response prevention (ERP) and/or an SSRI. SSRIs are the drug class of choice; clomipramine (a TCA) is a second-line option.

  18. How are benzodiazepines used in anxiety disorders, and why is long-term use discouraged?

    They may be used only short-term (≤2–4 weeks) for acute, severe anxiety/crisis. Long-term use is discouraged due to tolerance, dependence, and a withdrawal syndrome (rebound anxiety, insomnia, seizures).

  19. What features increase the risk of completed suicide following an episode of self-harm (the 'SAD PERSONS' high-risk factors)?

    Male Sex, older Age, Depression, Previous attempts, Ethanol/substance use, Rational thinking loss (psychosis), lack of Social support, Organised plan, No spouse, Sickness (chronic illness). Higher scores indicate higher risk.

  20. After an episode of self-harm, what assessment must be performed before discharge, and what are key protective factors?

    A psychosocial risk assessment of suicide intent, mental state, and ongoing risk. Protective factors include strong social/family support, dependent children, religious beliefs, future-orientated plans, and engagement with help.

Show the other 31 Psychiatry and Mental Health flashcards
  1. In paracetamol overdose, when is the plasma paracetamol level most reliably interpreted on the treatment nomogram, and what is the antidote?

    The level is plotted on the nomogram from 4 hours post-ingestion onwards (levels before 4 h are unreliable). The antidote is N-acetylcysteine (NAC). Treat staggered/uncertain-time overdoses with NAC regardless of level.

  2. What are the Schneiderian first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia?

    Auditory hallucinations (thought echo, running commentary, third-person voices), thought interference (insertion, withdrawal, broadcasting), passivity phenomena/delusions of control, and delusional perception.

  3. How do positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia differ? Give examples of each.

    Positive symptoms (added experiences): hallucinations, delusions, thought disorder, disorganised behaviour. Negative symptoms (lost functions): blunted affect, alogia (poverty of speech), avolition, anhedonia, and social withdrawal.

  4. What is the ICD-10 minimum symptom duration for a diagnosis of schizophrenia, and what is the first-line drug class?

    Symptoms (e.g. ≥1 first-rank symptom or ≥2 other characteristic symptoms) must be present for most of the time for at least 1 month. First-line treatment is an atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic.

  5. Which antipsychotic is reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia, what defines treatment resistance, and what serious haematological side effect requires monitoring?

    Clozapine. Treatment resistance = inadequate response to ≥2 antipsychotics (one being atypical), each at adequate dose for ≥6–8 weeks. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis/neutropenia, mandating regular FBC monitoring (weekly initially).

  6. What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and its four cardinal features? What investigation is markedly raised?

    A life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics. Cardinal features: hyperthermia (pyrexia), 'lead-pipe' muscular rigidity, autonomic instability, and altered consciousness. Creatine kinase (CK) is markedly raised; treat by stopping the drug, supportive care, and dantrolene/bromocriptine.

  7. List the extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs) of antipsychotics and their typical time course.

    Acute dystonia (hours–days, e.g. oculogyric crisis), akathisia (hours–weeks, motor restlessness), parkinsonism (days–weeks, bradykinesia/tremor/rigidity), and tardive dyskinesia (months–years, often irreversible orofacial movements).

  8. Name three significant metabolic/endocrine side effects of atypical antipsychotics, especially olanzapine and clozapine.

    Weight gain, impaired glucose tolerance/type 2 diabetes, and dyslipidaemia (metabolic syndrome). Hyperprolactinaemia (notably with risperidone) causing galactorrhoea, amenorrhoea, and sexual dysfunction is also common.

  9. In acute behavioural disturbance, what is the recommended order of management strategies before considering rapid tranquillisation?

    De-escalation first (calm environment, verbal de-escalation, address needs), then offer oral medication, and only use rapid tranquillisation (parenteral) if these fail and there is risk to the patient or others.

  10. What is the typical first-line drug regimen for rapid tranquillisation, and what reversal agents must be available?

    IM lorazepam alone, or IM haloperidol plus IM promethazine. Have flumazenil available to reverse benzodiazepine-induced respiratory depression, and procyclidine for acute dystonia from haloperidol.

  11. List the key clinical features distinguishing delirium from dementia.

    Delirium: acute onset (hours–days), fluctuating course, impaired/clouded consciousness and attention, often reversible, with hallucinations/agitation. Dementia: insidious onset (months–years), progressive, clear consciousness until late, and chronic/irreversible.

  12. What are the two motor subtypes of delirium, and which is more often missed?

    Hyperactive delirium (agitation, restlessness, hallucinations) and hypoactive delirium (lethargy, withdrawal, drowsiness). Hypoactive delirium is more commonly missed because it is quieter and may be mistaken for depression.

  13. Give a useful mnemonic for common precipitating causes of delirium.

    'PINCH ME': Pain, Infection, Nutrition, Constipation, Hydration, Medication (and Metabolic), Environment. Drug causes and urinary retention are also frequent precipitants, especially in the elderly.

  14. What is the most common cause of dementia, and what are its two characteristic neuropathological hallmarks?

    Alzheimer's disease. Hallmarks are extracellular beta-amyloid (senile) plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles of hyperphosphorylated tau protein, with cortical atrophy and acetylcholine deficiency.

  15. Which drug classes are used in Alzheimer's disease, and how does treatment choice relate to severity?

    Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine) for mild-to-moderate disease; the NMDA-receptor antagonist memantine for moderate-to-severe disease or when AChE inhibitors are contraindicated/not tolerated.

  16. What are the core clinical features that distinguish Lewy body dementia, and why must antipsychotics be used with caution?

    Fluctuating cognition, recurrent well-formed visual hallucinations, and spontaneous parkinsonism; REM sleep behaviour disorder is supportive. Patients have severe neuroleptic sensitivity, so antipsychotics can cause profound, potentially fatal reactions and should be avoided/used cautiously.

  17. What are the units thresholds for 'increasing risk' and 'higher risk' alcohol drinking, and the UK low-risk guideline?

    UK low-risk guideline: ≤14 units/week spread over ≥3 days for both men and women. Increasing risk: 14–35 units/week (women) or 14–50 (men); higher risk: >35 (women) or >50 (men) units/week.

  18. What screening tools are used for alcohol use disorders and dependence?

    AUDIT (10-item, full screen) and AUDIT-C (3-item, brief) for hazardous/harmful drinking; CAGE (Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener) is a quick 4-question screen for dependence.

  19. What is the time course and danger of delirium tremens, and the first-line treatment?

    Delirium tremens peaks 48–72 hours after the last drink, with confusion, tremor, hallucinations (often visual/tactile), autonomic instability and seizures; it carries significant mortality. First-line treatment is a reducing regimen of a long-acting benzodiazepine (chlordiazepoxide), plus parenteral thiamine (Pabrinex).

  20. What is Wernicke's encephalopathy, its classic triad, and how is it prevented?

    An acute thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Classic triad: confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus. Prevented and treated with high-dose IV/IM thiamine (Pabrinex); untreated it may progress to irreversible Korsakoff's syndrome (anterograde amnesia, confabulation).

  21. What pharmacological options support alcohol abstinence, and what is their mechanism?

    Acamprosate (reduces craving via glutamate/GABA modulation), naltrexone (opioid antagonist reducing reward), and disulfiram (aversive—inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase causing a flushing/vomiting reaction with alcohol).

  22. What is the antidote for opioid overdose, its mechanism, and a key caution regarding its half-life?

    Naloxone, a competitive opioid-receptor antagonist. Caution: its half-life is shorter than many opioids (e.g. methadone), so repeated doses or an infusion may be needed to prevent re-sedation.

  23. Under the Mental Health Act 1983 (England & Wales), compare Section 2 and Section 3.

    Section 2: admission for assessment, lasts up to 28 days, not renewable; requires 2 doctors + an AMHP. Section 3: admission for treatment, lasts up to 6 months (renewable), used where the diagnosis is known; also requires 2 doctors + an AMHP.

  24. What do Sections 5(2) and 5(4) of the Mental Health Act allow, and for how long?

    Section 5(2): a doctor can detain an already-admitted inpatient for up to 72 hours pending MHA assessment. Section 5(4): a nurse's holding power detains an inpatient for up to 6 hours. Neither permits treatment against the patient's will and they are not renewable.

  25. Differentiate Section 135 and Section 136 of the Mental Health Act.

    Section 135: police, with a magistrate's warrant, enter a private property to remove a person to a place of safety. Section 136: police remove a person who appears mentally disordered from a public place to a place of safety. Both last up to 24 hours (extendable by 12 h).

  26. State the five statutory principles of the Mental Capacity Act 2005.

    (1) Presume capacity. (2) Support the person to make their own decision. (3) An unwise decision does not mean lack of capacity. (4) Act in the person's best interests. (5) Choose the least restrictive option of their rights and freedoms.

  27. What is the two-stage, four-part functional test of capacity under the Mental Capacity Act?

    Stage 1: is there an impairment/disturbance of the mind or brain? Stage 2 (the functional test): can the person Understand the information, Retain it, Weigh/use it in the decision, and Communicate their decision? Failing any one of the four means they lack capacity for that decision.

  28. In anorexia nervosa, what BMI threshold is characteristic, and name three physical/biochemical complications.

    BMI typically <17.5 $\text{kg/m}^{2}$. Complications: bradycardia/hypotension, electrolyte disturbance (hypokalaemia), amenorrhoea, osteoporosis, lanugo hair, and the 'G's and C's raised'—Growth hormone, Glucose (cortisol), salivary Glands, Cholesterol, Carotenaemia raised; sex hormones/T3 low.

  29. How is bulimia nervosa distinguished from anorexia, and what acid-base/electrolyte disturbance results from self-induced vomiting?

    Bulimia features recurrent binge eating with compensatory behaviours (vomiting, laxatives), but body weight is usually normal/near-normal. Self-induced vomiting causes a hypokalaemic, hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.

  30. What is refeeding syndrome, the key electrolyte abnormality, and how is it prevented?

    A dangerous shift when feeding is reintroduced after starvation: insulin surge drives phosphate, potassium and magnesium into cells, causing hypophosphataemia (the hallmark), arrhythmias and cardiac failure. Prevent by slow calorie reintroduction, thiamine, and close electrolyte monitoring/replacement.

  31. In perinatal psychiatry, compare 'baby blues', postnatal depression, and puerperal psychosis by onset and severity.

    Baby blues: ~day 3–10, very common, mild/self-limiting, needs reassurance. Postnatal depression: typically within 1–3 months, depressive episode needing treatment (CBT/SSRI). Puerperal psychosis: rapid onset ~days 2 weeks postpartum, a psychiatric emergency with psychosis/mania needing urgent admission (often to a mother-and-baby unit).

Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board (PLAB) Psychiatry and Mental Health FAQ

What is in the Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board (PLAB) Psychiatry and Mental Health syllabus?

Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board (PLAB) Psychiatry and Mental Health is split into 3 chapters: Mood and Anxiety Disorders, Psychotic and Organic Disorders and Mental Health Law and Risk. Together they contain 12 topics and 25 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board (PLAB) Psychiatry and Mental Health?

3 chapters, containing 12 topics and 25 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Mood and Anxiety Disorders, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board (PLAB) Psychiatry and Mental Health?

Yes — a 51-card Psychiatry and Mental Health deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.