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Pharm-D Admission Test Biology Syllabus
The Biology syllabus for Pharm-D Admission Test in full: 10 chapters and 36 topics, every one listed below, plus 68 Biology flashcards with answers.
Biology syllabus: all 10 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Cell Biology and Biological Molecules
4 topics- Cell Structure and Organelles
- Biological Molecules
- Enzymes
- Water and Its Biological Importance
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Bioenergetics
3 topics- Photosynthesis
- Respiration
- ATP and Energy Currency
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Diversity of Life
6 topics- Viruses
- Kingdom Monera and Prokaryotes
- Kingdom Protista and Fungi
- Kingdom Plantae
- Kingdom Animalia
- Biological Classification
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Human Physiology: Nutrition and Gaseous Exchange
2 topics- Digestion and Absorption
- Gaseous Exchange in Humans
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Transport and Circulation
3 topics- Human Circulatory System
- Lymphatic System and Immunity
- Transport in Plants
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Coordination and Control
3 topics- Nervous System
- Endocrine System and Hormones
- Receptors and Sensory Organs
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Support, Movement and Homeostasis
3 topics- Skeletal System and Joints
- Muscles and Movement
- Homeostasis
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Reproduction and Development
4 topics- Human Reproductive System
- Gametogenesis and Fertilization
- Embryonic Development
- Reproduction in Plants
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Cell Division and Genetics
4 topics- Mitosis and Meiosis
- Chromosomes and DNA
- Mendelian Genetics
- Variation and Genetic Disorders
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Evolution, Ecology and Biotechnology
4 topics- Evolution and Natural Selection
- Ecosystem and Biogeochemical Cycles
- Population and Community Ecology
- Biotechnology and Genetic Engineering
Pharm-D Admission Test Biology flashcards — 68 questions with answers
What is the function of mitochondria in a cell?
Site of aerobic respiration; produces ATP through oxidative phosphorylation. Known as the powerhouse of the cell; contains its own DNA and a double membrane (inner folded into cristae).
What is the key structural difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Prokaryotes lack a true membrane-bound nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; their DNA lies free in the cytoplasm (nucleoid). Eukaryotes have a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.
Which organelle is the site of protein synthesis, and what are its two subunits in eukaryotes?
The ribosome. In eukaryotes it is 80S, made of 60S (large) and 40S (small) subunits; in prokaryotes it is 70S (50S + 30S).
What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) versus smooth ER (SER)?
RER (studded with ribosomes) synthesizes and transports proteins. SER (no ribosomes) synthesizes lipids/steroids, metabolizes carbohydrates, and detoxifies drugs.
What is the role of the Golgi apparatus?
Modifies, sorts, packages, and ships proteins and lipids from the ER into vesicles; also forms lysosomes and secretory vesicles.
What do lysosomes contain and what is their function?
They contain hydrolytic (digestive) enzymes that break down macromolecules, worn-out organelles, and engulfed material (autophagy and intracellular digestion). Called 'suicide bags'.
Which organelles are described by the endosymbiotic theory, and what evidence supports it?
Mitochondria and chloroplasts. Evidence: their own circular DNA, 70S ribosomes, double membranes, and self-replication by binary fission.
What are the four major classes of biological molecules (macromolecules)?
Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
What is the monomer (building block) of proteins, and what bond links them?
Amino acids are the monomers; they are joined by peptide bonds (formed by condensation/dehydration synthesis).
How many amino acids commonly occur in proteins, and what determines an amino acid's identity?
20 standard amino acids. Each has a central carbon bonded to an amino group, a carboxyl group, a hydrogen, and a variable R (side) group that determines its identity.
Distinguish between a monosaccharide, disaccharide, and polysaccharide with examples.
Monosaccharide = single sugar (glucose, fructose); disaccharide = two sugars joined by glycosidic bond (sucrose, maltose, lactose); polysaccharide = many sugars (starch, glycogen, cellulose).
What is the general structure of a triglyceride (fat)?
One glycerol molecule linked to three fatty acid chains by ester bonds (formed via condensation).
Differentiate saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.
Saturated fatty acids have no C=C double bonds (single bonds only), are solid at room temperature. Unsaturated have one or more C=C double bonds, are liquid (oils) at room temperature.
What are the four levels of protein structure?
Primary (amino acid sequence), secondary (alpha-helix/beta-pleated sheet from H-bonds), tertiary (3D folding), and quaternary (multiple polypeptide subunits).
What is an enzyme, and what is its chemical nature?
An enzyme is a biological catalyst that speeds up reactions by lowering activation energy without being consumed. Most enzymes are proteins (some are RNA/ribozymes).
Explain the 'lock and key' versus 'induced fit' model of enzyme action.
Lock and key: substrate fits the active site precisely like a key in a lock. Induced fit: the active site changes shape slightly to mould around the substrate when it binds.
How do enzymes speed up reactions in terms of energy?
They lower the activation energy (Ea) required for the reaction to proceed, increasing reaction rate without altering the overall free-energy change or equilibrium.
What is the difference between a cofactor and a coenzyme?
A cofactor is a non-protein helper; if inorganic it's a metal ion (e.g., Zn2+, Mg2+); if organic it's called a coenzyme (e.g., NAD+, FAD, vitamins).
Distinguish competitive from non-competitive enzyme inhibition.
Competitive inhibitor resembles the substrate and binds the active site (overcome by raising substrate concentration). Non-competitive inhibitor binds elsewhere (allosteric site), changing the active site shape (not overcome by more substrate).
How do temperature and pH affect enzyme activity?
Each enzyme has an optimum temperature and pH where activity is maximal. Beyond the optimum, the enzyme denatures (loses 3D shape), so activity falls sharply. Extreme pH also denatures enzymes.
Show the other 48 Biology flashcards
Why is water described as a polar molecule, and what property results?
Oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, giving oxygen a partial negative and hydrogens a partial positive charge. This polarity allows hydrogen bonding and makes water a universal solvent.
List three biologically important properties of water due to hydrogen bonding.
High specific heat capacity (temperature buffering), high heat of vaporization (cooling via evaporation), and strong cohesion/adhesion (supports transport in plants and surface tension).
Why is ice less dense than liquid water, and why is this biologically important?
In ice, hydrogen bonds hold molecules in an open lattice, so ice is less dense and floats. This insulates water bodies, allowing aquatic life to survive beneath the frozen surface.
Write the overall balanced equation for photosynthesis.
6CO2 + 6H2O --light, chlorophyll--> C6H12O6 + 6O2.
Where do the light-dependent and light-independent reactions of photosynthesis occur?
Light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membranes (grana); the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle) occur in the stroma of the chloroplast.
What are the products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
ATP, NADPH, and oxygen (O2, from photolysis/splitting of water).
What is the role of the Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions)?
It uses ATP and NADPH to fix CO2 into glucose. CO2 combines with RuBP (catalyzed by RuBisCO) to ultimately produce G3P/sugars; it occurs in the stroma.
Which pigment is the primary photosynthetic pigment, and what wavelengths does it absorb best?
Chlorophyll a is the primary pigment; it absorbs mainly in the blue-violet (~430 nm) and red (~660 nm) regions and reflects green light.
Write the overall equation for aerobic respiration.
C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy (ATP).
Name the four stages of aerobic respiration and where each occurs.
Glycolysis (cytoplasm), link reaction/pyruvate oxidation (mitochondrial matrix), Krebs cycle (matrix), and oxidative phosphorylation/electron transport chain (inner mitochondrial membrane).
What are the products of glycolysis from one glucose molecule?
2 pyruvate (3-carbon), a net gain of 2 ATP, and 2 NADH. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm and does not require oxygen.
What is the net ATP yield from the complete aerobic respiration of one glucose molecule?
Approximately 36-38 ATP molecules in total.
Compare aerobic and anaerobic respiration in terms of products in muscle and yeast.
Aerobic: glucose -> CO2 + H2O + ~38 ATP. Anaerobic in muscle: glucose -> lactic acid + 2 ATP. Anaerobic in yeast (fermentation): glucose -> ethanol + CO2 + 2 ATP.
Why is ATP called the 'energy currency' of the cell?
ATP is the universal, immediate energy carrier; hydrolysis of its terminal phosphate bond releases energy used to power cellular work. It is continuously regenerated from ADP + Pi.
Describe the structure of an ATP molecule.
ATP = adenine base + ribose sugar + three phosphate groups. The bonds between the phosphate groups are high-energy bonds whose hydrolysis releases energy (ATP -> ADP + Pi).
What is the general structure of a virus?
A virus consists of a nucleic acid core (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein coat called a capsid; some have an outer lipid envelope. They lack cytoplasm, organelles, and ribosomes.
Why are viruses considered obligate intracellular parasites and not fully 'living'?
They cannot reproduce, metabolize, or carry out life processes on their own; they must infect a host cell and use its machinery to replicate. Outside a host they are inert.
Differentiate the lytic and lysogenic cycles of a bacteriophage.
Lytic cycle: virus replicates immediately and lyses (bursts) the host cell, releasing new viruses. Lysogenic cycle: viral DNA integrates into the host genome (prophage) and replicates silently with the host until induced into the lytic cycle.
What are the main characteristics of Kingdom Monera?
Prokaryotic, unicellular organisms lacking a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; cell wall present (often peptidoglycan in bacteria); includes bacteria and cyanobacteria.
Differentiate Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.
Gram-positive have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and stain purple/violet. Gram-negative have a thin peptidoglycan layer plus an outer membrane and stain pink/red after Gram staining.
Classify bacteria by shape with their names.
Cocci (spherical), bacilli (rod-shaped), spirilla/spirochetes (spiral/helical), and vibrio (comma-shaped).
What are the main characteristics of Kingdom Protista?
Mostly unicellular eukaryotes (some colonial/multicellular); aquatic or moist environments; includes protozoa, algae, and slime molds. They can be autotrophic, heterotrophic, or both.
What are the defining features of Kingdom Fungi?
Eukaryotic, heterotrophic (saprophytic/parasitic) organisms with cell walls made of chitin; mostly multicellular (hyphae forming mycelium); reproduce by spores; store food as glycogen.
What are the two main divisions of Kingdom Plantae based on vascular tissue?
Non-vascular plants (Bryophytes, e.g., mosses, liverworts) lacking true xylem/phloem, and vascular plants (Tracheophytes, e.g., ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms) with xylem and phloem.
Differentiate gymnosperms and angiosperms.
Gymnosperms bear naked seeds (not enclosed in fruit), e.g., conifers/pines. Angiosperms are flowering plants with seeds enclosed in a fruit (ovary).
How do monocots and dicots differ?
Monocots: one cotyledon, parallel leaf venation, floral parts in multiples of 3, scattered vascular bundles, fibrous roots. Dicots: two cotyledons, net/reticulate venation, floral parts in 4s or 5s, ringed vascular bundles, taproot.
Differentiate diploblastic and triploblastic animals.
Diploblastic animals have two germ layers (ectoderm and endoderm), e.g., cnidarians. Triploblastic animals have three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm), e.g., flatworms to chordates.
What are the main characteristics of Phylum Chordata?
At some stage they possess a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal gill slits, and a post-anal tail.
List the levels of biological classification (taxonomic hierarchy) from broadest to most specific.
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species.
What is binomial nomenclature, and who introduced it?
A two-name Latin naming system (Genus + species) introduced by Carolus Linnaeus. The genus is capitalized, species lowercase, and both are italicized or underlined (e.g., Homo sapiens).
What are the three domains in the modern (Woese) classification system?
Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya.
Where does chemical digestion of starch, protein, and fat begin in humans?
Starch digestion begins in the mouth (salivary amylase); protein digestion begins in the stomach (pepsin in acidic conditions); fat digestion mainly begins in the small intestine (lipase, aided by bile).
What is the role of bile in digestion, and where is it produced and stored?
Bile emulsifies fats (breaks large fat droplets into smaller ones to increase surface area for lipase) and neutralizes stomach acid. It is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder.
Where does most absorption of digested food occur, and what adaptation increases its efficiency?
In the small intestine (mainly the ileum). Its inner surface has villi and microvilli that hugely increase surface area, plus a rich blood and lymph supply for absorption.
What is the function of the alveoli in the human respiratory system?
Alveoli are tiny air sacs that are the site of gaseous exchange. Their thin walls (one cell thick), moist surface, and large surface area with surrounding capillaries allow rapid diffusion of O2 and CO2.
Describe the mechanism of inspiration (breathing in) in humans.
The diaphragm contracts and flattens, and the external intercostal muscles contract raising the ribs; thoracic volume increases, lung pressure falls below atmospheric, so air rushes in.
Trace the path of air from the nose to the alveoli.
Nasal cavity -> pharynx -> larynx -> trachea -> bronchi -> bronchioles -> alveoli.
Name the four chambers of the human heart and the type of blood each handles.
Right atrium and right ventricle handle deoxygenated blood; left atrium and left ventricle handle oxygenated blood.
What is the function of the atrioventricular (bicuspid/tricuspid) valves and semilunar valves?
Atrioventricular valves (tricuspid on right, bicuspid/mitral on left) prevent backflow from ventricles to atria. Semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic) prevent backflow from arteries back into ventricles.
Differentiate arteries, veins, and capillaries.
Arteries carry blood away from the heart (thick muscular walls, high pressure, usually oxygenated). Veins carry blood to the heart (thinner walls, valves, low pressure). Capillaries are one-cell-thick vessels where exchange of materials occurs.
What is double circulation in humans?
Blood passes through the heart twice per complete circuit: pulmonary circulation (heart to lungs and back) and systemic circulation (heart to body and back). This keeps oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separate.
What is the function of hemoglobin in blood?
Hemoglobin (in red blood cells) binds and transports oxygen as oxyhemoglobin from lungs to tissues, and helps carry some carbon dioxide and buffer blood pH.
What are the main functions of the lymphatic system?
Returns excess tissue fluid (lymph) to the blood, absorbs fats from the intestine (via lacteals), and contains lymphocytes that fight infection (immune defense).
Differentiate active and passive immunity.
Active immunity: the body produces its own antibodies after exposure to an antigen (infection or vaccination); long-lasting. Passive immunity: ready-made antibodies are received from another source (e.g., mother to fetus, antiserum); short-lived.
What is the difference between an antigen and an antibody?
An antigen is a foreign substance (often a protein) that triggers an immune response. An antibody is a protein (immunoglobulin) produced by B-lymphocytes that specifically binds and neutralizes that antigen.
What is the difference between xylem and phloem in plants?
Xylem transports water and dissolved minerals upward from roots to leaves (dead cells, lignified). Phloem transports food (sucrose) made in leaves to other parts (living cells, translocation, bidirectional).
What is transpiration, and what is the transpiration pull?
Transpiration is the loss of water vapor from aerial plant parts (mainly through stomata). Transpiration pull is the suction force created by water evaporation that draws water up the xylem (cohesion-tension).
What role do stomata and guard cells play in transport in plants?
Stomata are pores (mainly on leaf undersides) for gas exchange and transpiration. Guard cells flank each stoma and open/close it by changing turgor: turgid guard cells open the stoma, flaccid guard cells close it.
Pharm-D Admission Test Biology FAQ
What is in the Pharm-D Admission Test Biology syllabus?
Pharm-D Admission Test Biology is split into 10 chapters: Cell Biology and Biological Molecules, Bioenergetics, Diversity of Life, Human Physiology: Nutrition and Gaseous Exchange, Transport and Circulation, Coordination and Control, Support, Movement and Homeostasis, Reproduction and Development, Cell Division and Genetics and Evolution, Ecology and Biotechnology. Together they contain 36 topics.
How many chapters are in Pharm-D Admission Test Biology?
10 chapters, containing 36 topics. The largest chapter is Diversity of Life, with 6 topics.
Are there flashcards for Pharm-D Admission Test Biology?
Yes — a 68-card Biology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.