πΊπΈ North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Β· subject
North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Calculations Syllabus
The Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Calculations syllabus for North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) in full: 4 chapters and 19 topics, every one listed below, plus 55 Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Calculations flashcards with answers.
Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Calculations syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Core Pharmacokinetic Principles
5 topics- Absorption, bioavailability, and first-pass metabolism
- Volume of distribution and protein binding
- Clearance and half-life relationships
- Linear vs nonlinear (Michaelis-Menten) kinetics
- Compartmental models and elimination order
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Clinical Dosing and Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
5 topics- Loading and maintenance dose calculations
- Aminoglycoside dosing and monitoring
- Vancomycin AUC-guided dosing
- Steady-state and trough interpretation
- Dose adjustment in renal and hepatic impairment
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Pharmaceutical Calculations
5 topics- Concentration, dilution, and alligation
- Millimoles, milliequivalents, and osmolarity
- IV flow rates and infusion calculations
- Body surface area and weight-based dosing
- Tonicity and isotonicity adjustments
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Pharmacodynamics
4 topics- Dose-response relationships and efficacy/potency
- Agonists, antagonists, and receptor theory
- Therapeutic index and margin of safety
- Concentration- vs time-dependent killing
North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Calculations flashcards β 55 questions with answers
What is oral bioavailability (F) and how is it calculated relative to IV administration?
$F$ is the fraction of an administered dose that reaches systemic circulation unchanged. Relative to IV: $$F = \frac{AUC_{oral}/Dose_{oral}}{AUC_{IV}/Dose_{IV}}$$ IV administration is defined as $F = 1$ (100%).
Define the first-pass effect and name the two organs primarily responsible.
First-pass effect is the metabolism of an orally absorbed drug before it reaches systemic circulation, reducing bioavailability. It occurs primarily in the gut wall (intestinal enterocytes) and the liver via the portal circulation.
How does first-pass metabolism affect oral bioavailability for high-extraction-ratio drugs?
Drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio undergo extensive first-pass metabolism, giving low oral $F$. Their bioavailability is flow-limited and can change markedly with liver blood flow or cirrhosis. Examples: propranolol, morphine, lidocaine, nitroglycerin.
What factors influence the rate and extent of drug absorption from the GI tract?
Drug lipophilicity and ionization (pH-partition), dissolution rate and formulation, gastric emptying and GI motility, surface area, blood flow, presence of food, active transporters (e.g., P-glycoprotein), and first-pass metabolism.
Define volume of distribution ($V_d$) and give its formula.
$V_d$ is the apparent volume into which a drug distributes to produce the observed plasma concentration. $$V_d = \frac{\text{Amount of drug in body}}{C_p}$$ It is a proportionality constant, not a real physiologic volume.
How does plasma protein binding affect volume of distribution?
Extensive plasma protein binding (e.g., to albumin) keeps drug in the vasculature, giving a small $V_d$. Extensive tissue binding gives a large $V_d$. Decreased protein binding increases free fraction and generally increases $V_d$.
What is the approximate $V_d$ for a drug confined to plasma vs. total body water in a 70 kg adult?
Plasma volume $\approx 3\ \text{L}$; blood volume $\approx 5\ \text{L}$; extracellular fluid $\approx 14\ \text{L}$; total body water $\approx 42\ \text{L}$ ($\approx 0.6\ \text{L/kg}$). $V_d$ much greater than $42\ \text{L}$ implies extensive tissue binding.
Which plasma protein binds acidic drugs vs. basic drugs?
Acidic and neutral drugs (e.g., warfarin, phenytoin) bind primarily to albumin. Basic drugs (e.g., lidocaine, propranolol, quinidine) bind primarily to $\alpha_1$-acid glycoprotein (AAG).
Why does phenytoin require a free-level adjustment in hypoalbuminemia, and what is the Sheiner-Tozer equation?
Low albumin raises the free (active) fraction, so total levels underestimate effect. Corrected total concentration: $$C_{adj} = \frac{C_{obs}}{(0.2 \times \text{albumin}) + 0.1}$$ (use $0.275$ factor in patients with $CrCl < 10\ \text{mL/min}$).
Define clearance (CL) and state its fundamental relationship to elimination.
Clearance is the volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit time. $$CL = \frac{\text{Rate of elimination}}{C_p}$$ Total $CL$ is the sum of organ clearances: $CL_{total} = CL_{hepatic} + CL_{renal} + \dots$
Write the relationship among half-life, volume of distribution, and clearance.
$$t_{1/2} = \frac{0.693 \times V_d}{CL}$$ Half-life is directly proportional to $V_d$ and inversely proportional to $CL$. The elimination rate constant $k = \frac{CL}{V_d} = \frac{0.693}{t_{1/2}}$.
How many half-lives are needed to reach steady state and to eliminate a drug?
It takes approximately $4$β$5$ half-lives to reach $\approx 94$β$97\%$ of steady state, and likewise $4$β$5$ half-lives to eliminate $\approx 94$β$97\%$ of the drug. After $1\ t_{1/2}$, $50\%$; $2$, $75\%$; $3$, $87.5\%$; $4$, $93.75\%$.
Distinguish first-order from zero-order elimination kinetics.
First-order: a constant fraction is eliminated per unit time; rate $\propto$ concentration; constant $t_{1/2}$; linear pharmacokinetics. Zero-order: a constant amount is eliminated per unit time (saturated enzymes); rate is independent of concentration; $t_{1/2}$ varies with concentration.
State the Michaelis-Menten equation for the rate of drug elimination.
$$\text{Rate} = \frac{V_{max} \cdot C}{K_m + C}$$ where $V_{max}$ is maximum elimination rate and $K_m$ is the concentration at half $V_{max}$. When $C \ll K_m$ kinetics are first-order; when $C \gg K_m$ they approach zero-order.
Name three drugs that exhibit nonlinear (Michaelis-Menten / capacity-limited) kinetics at therapeutic doses.
Phenytoin, ethanol, and aspirin (salicylates) at high doses; theophylline at high concentrations. Small dose increases can cause disproportionately large increases in serum concentration.
In a one-compartment model, how does plasma concentration decline after an IV bolus?
Monoexponentially: $$C_t = C_0 \, e^{-kt}$$ A semilog plot of $\ln C$ vs. time is a straight line with slope $-k$. There is no distinct distribution phase.
In a two-compartment model, what do the alpha and beta phases represent?
The $\alpha$ (distribution) phase is the initial rapid decline as drug distributes from central to peripheral tissue. The $\beta$ (elimination) phase is the slower terminal decline reflecting elimination; the terminal $t_{1/2}$ is calculated from $\beta$.
What is the loading dose formula and why is a loading dose used?
$$LD = \frac{V_d \times C_{target}}{F}$$ (also $\times$ salt factor $S$). A loading dose rapidly achieves therapeutic concentration without waiting $4$β$5$ half-lives that maintenance dosing alone would require.
What is the maintenance dose (dosing rate) formula at steady state?
$$\text{Dosing rate} = \frac{CL \times C_{ss,avg} \times \tau}{F \times S}$$ where $C_{ss,avg}$ is target average steady-state concentration, $\tau$ is the dosing interval, $F$ is bioavailability, and $S$ is the salt factor. Maintenance dose replaces drug eliminated per interval.
Define the salt factor (S) and give the value for aminophylline (theophylline).
$S$ is the fraction of the salt form that is active drug. For aminophylline, $S = 0.8$ (theophylline is $80\%$ of aminophylline). It is included in loading/maintenance dose calculations: doses must be multiplied/divided by $S$.
Show the other 35 Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Calculations flashcards
What are conventional (traditional) target peak and trough levels for gentamicin/tobramycin?
For conventional dosing of gentamicin/tobramycin: peak $5$β$10\ \mu g/mL$ (higher, $8$β$10$, for serious infections) and trough $< 2\ \mu g/mL$ (ideally $< 1$) to minimize nephro-/ototoxicity. Amikacin: peak $20$β$30$, trough $< 10\ \mu g/mL$.
What is the rationale for extended-interval (once-daily) aminoglycoside dosing?
Aminoglycosides show concentration-dependent killing and a post-antibiotic effect. High peaks maximize bactericidal activity while the long drug-free interval (low troughs) reduces saturable uptake into renal/cochlear cells, lowering toxicity. Typical dose $\sim 5$β$7\ \text{mg/kg}$ q24h.
Which body weight is used for aminoglycoside dosing in obese patients?
Use adjusted body weight: $$ABW = IBW + 0.4(TBW - IBW)$$ Aminoglycosides distribute mainly in extracellular fluid, not adipose tissue, so total body weight would overdose obese patients.
State the Devine formula for ideal body weight (IBW).
Men: $IBW = 50\ \text{kg} + 2.3 \times (\text{inches over } 60)$. Women: $IBW = 45.5\ \text{kg} + 2.3 \times (\text{inches over } 60)$.
Why has vancomycin AUC-guided dosing replaced trough-only monitoring?
Efficacy for MRSA correlates with the ratio $AUC_{0-24}/MIC$, not trough alone. Targeting troughs of $15$β$20\ \mu g/mL$ overexposed patients and increased nephrotoxicity. AUC monitoring achieves efficacy at lower exposure with less toxicity.
What is the target vancomycin $AUC_{0-24}/MIC$ ratio for serious MRSA infections?
Target $AUC_{0-24}/MIC$ of $400$β$600$ (assuming MIC $= 1\ \text{mg/L}$ by broth microdilution). This corresponds to an $AUC_{0-24}$ of roughly $400$β$600\ \text{mgΒ·h/L}$.
How is vancomycin $AUC_{0-24}$ estimated from peak and trough using the trapezoidal method?
$AUC_{0-24} = AUC_{inf} + AUC_{elim}$ summed over the interval and scaled to 24 h. Practically, two levels (peak and trough) yield $k$ and $V_d$; $AUC_{24} = \frac{\text{Dose}_{24h}}{CL}$, where $CL = k \times V_d$. Bayesian software can use a single trough.
Define steady state and what determines the average steady-state concentration.
Steady state occurs when the rate of drug in equals the rate of drug out, so average concentration is constant over intervals. $$C_{ss,avg} = \frac{F \times \text{Dose}}{CL \times \tau}$$ It depends on dosing rate and clearance, not on $V_d$.
What does a steady-state trough (Cmin) represent and when is it drawn?
The trough is the lowest concentration in a dosing interval, drawn just before the next dose at steady state ($\geq 4$β$5$ half-lives). It is used to confirm adequate exposure and avoid toxicity (e.g., vancomycin, aminoglycosides, digoxin).
How does changing the dosing interval vs. the dose affect peak-trough fluctuation at steady state?
Shortening the interval (or giving smaller, more frequent doses) reduces peak-to-trough fluctuation while keeping $C_{ss,avg}$ the same. Larger, less frequent doses increase fluctuation. $C_{ss,avg}$ depends only on total daily dose and clearance.
How is drug clearance generally adjusted in renal impairment?
Renal clearance falls proportionally with $CrCl$ for renally eliminated drugs. Doses are reduced and/or intervals extended based on estimated $CrCl$. Total clearance $CL = CL_{nonrenal} + CL_{renal} \times \frac{CrCl_{patient}}{CrCl_{normal}}$.
State the Cockcroft-Gault equation for creatinine clearance.
$$CrCl = \frac{(140 - \text{age}) \times \text{weight (kg)}}{72 \times S_{cr}\,(\text{mg/dL})} \times (0.85 \text{ if female})$$ Weight is typically IBW (use adjusted or actual depending on body habitus).
How does hepatic impairment alter pharmacokinetics of high vs. low extraction-ratio drugs?
For high-extraction drugs, cirrhosis (reduced flow and portosystemic shunting) sharply raises oral bioavailability and concentrations. For low-extraction drugs, hepatic dysfunction reduces intrinsic metabolic capacity, lowering clearance. Reduced albumin also raises free fraction.
What is the alligation method used for, and how do the parts get assigned?
Alligation determines proportions of two strengths (high and low) to mix for a desired intermediate strength. Place desired strength in the middle; subtract diagonally. Parts of higher strength = $|\text{desired} - \text{lower}|$; parts of lower strength = $|\text{higher} - \text{desired}|$.
How many grams of a 1% and a 5% hydrocortisone cream are needed to make 100 g of 2% cream (alligation)?
Parts of 5%: $|2-1| = 1$; parts of 1%: $|5-2| = 3$; total $4$ parts. 5% cream $= \frac{1}{4} \times 100 = 25\ \text{g}$; 1% cream $= \frac{3}{4} \times 100 = 75\ \text{g}$.
State the dilution/concentration relationship $C_1 V_1 = C_2 V_2$ and what it assumes.
$$C_1 V_1 = C_2 V_2$$ The quantity of active ingredient is conserved when diluting or concentrating. $C_1, V_1$ are initial strength and volume; $C_2, V_2$ are final. Strength varies inversely with volume.
How do you convert percent strength (w/v) to mg/mL?
$\%\ \text{w/v}$ means grams per 100 mL. Multiply percent by 10 to get mg/mL. Example: $2\%\ \text{w/v} = 2\ \text{g}/100\ \text{mL} = 20\ \text{mg/mL}$.
How is the number of milliequivalents (mEq) calculated from milligrams?
$$mEq = \frac{\text{mg} \times \text{valence}}{\text{molecular (formula) weight}}$$ Equivalently, $1\ \text{mEq} = \frac{\text{mg}}{\text{equivalent weight}}$, where equivalent weight $= \frac{\text{MW}}{\text{valence}}$.
How many milliequivalents of sodium are in 1 g of NaCl? (MW = 58.5, valence = 1)
$$mEq = \frac{1000\ \text{mg} \times 1}{58.5} \approx 17.1\ \text{mEq}$$ Thus 1 g NaCl provides about $17\ \text{mEq}$ each of $\ce{Na+}$ and $\ce{Cl-}$.
How are millimoles (mmol) calculated and how do they differ from milliequivalents?
$$mmol = \frac{\text{mg}}{\text{molecular weight}}$$ Millimoles count molecules/ions; milliequivalents account for charge: $mEq = mmol \times \text{valence}$. For monovalent ions, $mEq = mmol$.
Define osmolarity and give the formula for a solution from its components.
Osmolarity is the number of osmoles (osmotically active particles) per liter of solution. $$\text{mOsmol/L} = \frac{\text{wt of substance (g/L)}}{\text{MW}} \times \text{number of particles} \times 1000$$ Example: NaCl dissociates into 2 particles.
Calculate the osmolarity of 0.9% NaCl (MW 58.5).
$0.9\% = 9\ \text{g/L}$. $$\text{mOsmol/L} = \frac{9}{58.5} \times 2 \times 1000 \approx 308\ \text{mOsmol/L}$$ This is why normal saline is iso-osmotic with plasma ($\approx 285$β$310$).
How do you calculate an IV flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min)?
$$\text{Rate (gtt/min)} = \frac{\text{Volume (mL)} \times \text{drop factor (gtt/mL)}}{\text{Time (min)}}$$ The drop factor depends on tubing (e.g., 10, 15, 20, or 60 gtt/mL for microdrip).
An order reads dopamine $5\ \mu g/kg/min$ for an 80 kg patient using a 1600 Β΅g/mL bag. What is the infusion rate in mL/h?
Dose $= 5 \times 80 = 400\ \mu g/min = 24{,}000\ \mu g/h$. $$\text{Rate} = \frac{24{,}000\ \mu g/h}{1600\ \mu g/mL} = 15\ \text{mL/h}$$
State the Mosteller formula for body surface area (BSA).
$$BSA\,(\text{m}^2) = \sqrt{\frac{\text{height (cm)} \times \text{weight (kg)}}{3600}}$$ BSA is used for chemotherapy and pediatric dosing because it correlates with metabolic rate and cardiac output.
How is a weight-based or BSA-based dose calculated, and why is BSA preferred for chemotherapy?
Weight-based: $\text{dose} = \text{mg/kg} \times \text{weight}$. BSA-based: $\text{dose} = \text{mg/m}^2 \times BSA$. BSA correlates better with physiologic parameters (GFR, blood volume) and narrows interpatient variability for narrow-therapeutic-index cytotoxic drugs.
Define an isotonic solution and the freezing-point depression / NaCl-equivalent methods to achieve it.
Isotonic solutions have the same tonicity as body fluids ($\approx 0.9\%$ NaCl, freezing point depression $0.52^\circ\text{C}$). The NaCl equivalent (E value) method: $E$ = grams of NaCl that produce the same osmotic effect as 1 g of the drug; add NaCl to reach the equivalent of $0.9\%$.
Using the E-value method, how much NaCl is needed to make 30 mL of a 1% drug solution isotonic if the drug's E value is 0.20?
NaCl needed for isotonicity (30 mL) $= 0.009 \times 30 = 0.27\ \text{g}$. NaCl equivalent provided by drug $= 0.20 \times (0.01 \times 30\ \text{g}) = 0.20 \times 0.3 = 0.06\ \text{g}$. NaCl to add $= 0.27 - 0.06 = 0.21\ \text{g}$.
Distinguish potency from efficacy on a dose-response curve.
Potency is the amount of drug needed to produce an effect (position on the x-axis; lower $EC_{50}$ = more potent). Efficacy ($E_{max}$) is the maximal effect achievable (height of the plateau). A drug can be more potent but less efficacious than another.
Define $EC_{50}$ and $ED_{50}$.
$EC_{50}$ is the concentration producing $50\%$ of maximal effect (graded response). $ED_{50}$ is the dose producing a defined effect in $50\%$ of a population (quantal response). Both index potency.
Compare full agonists, partial agonists, and inverse agonists.
A full agonist binds and produces maximal response (high efficacy). A partial agonist produces a submaximal response even at full occupancy (lower intrinsic efficacy) and can antagonize a full agonist. An inverse agonist binds and produces an effect opposite to the agonist (reduces constitutive activity).
Contrast competitive and noncompetitive (irreversible) antagonists on the agonist dose-response curve.
A competitive antagonist shifts the agonist curve right (increased $EC_{50}$) but $E_{max}$ is unchanged and surmountable by more agonist. A noncompetitive/irreversible antagonist lowers $E_{max}$ (insurmountable) and may also shift the curve right.
Define the therapeutic index (TI) and write its formula.
The therapeutic index quantifies drug safety as the ratio of toxic to effective dose. $$TI = \frac{TD_{50}}{ED_{50}}$$ (or $\frac{LD_{50}}{ED_{50}}$). A larger TI means a wider safety margin.
What is the certain safety factor (margin of safety) and how does it differ from TI?
The margin of safety (certain safety factor) $= \frac{TD_{1}}{ED_{99}}$, the ratio of the dose toxic to $1\%$ versus effective in $99\%$. It is more conservative than $TI$ because it accounts for the extremes/overlap of the dose-response curves.
Name three drugs considered to have a narrow therapeutic index and a key consequence.
Warfarin, digoxin, phenytoin, lithium, theophylline, and aminoglycosides. Small concentration changes cause loss of efficacy or toxicity, so they require therapeutic drug monitoring.
North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Calculations FAQ
What is in the North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Calculations syllabus?
North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Calculations is split into 4 chapters: Core Pharmacokinetic Principles, Clinical Dosing and Therapeutic Drug Monitoring, Pharmaceutical Calculations and Pharmacodynamics. Together they contain 19 topics.
How many chapters are in North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Calculations?
4 chapters, containing 19 topics. The largest chapter is Core Pharmacokinetic Principles, with 5 topics.
Are there flashcards for North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Calculations?
Yes β a 55-card Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Calculations deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.