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North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmaceutics, Compounding, and Drug Delivery Syllabus
The Pharmaceutics, Compounding, and Drug Delivery syllabus for North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) in full: 4 chapters and 15 topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Pharmaceutics, Compounding, and Drug Delivery flashcards with answers.
Pharmaceutics, Compounding, and Drug Delivery syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Dosage Forms and Biopharmaceutics
4 topics- Solid, liquid, and semisolid dosage forms
- Modified-release and enteric-coated formulations
- Dissolution, solubility, and bioavailability
- Routes of administration and absorption
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Sterile and Nonsterile Compounding
4 topics- USP <795> nonsterile compounding standards
- USP <797> sterile compounding and beyond-use dating
- USP <800> hazardous drug handling
- Aseptic technique and contamination control
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Stability, Storage, and Formulation
4 topics- Chemical and physical degradation pathways
- Excipients and their functions
- pH, buffers, and preservatives
- Storage conditions and cold chain
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Parenteral and Specialized Delivery
3 topics- IV admixture and compatibility
- Total parenteral nutrition components
- Transdermal, inhalation, and ophthalmic delivery
North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmaceutics, Compounding, and Drug Delivery flashcards — 50 questions with answers
What are the three major classifications of dosage forms by physical state, and give an example of each?
Solid (tablets, capsules, powders), liquid (solutions, suspensions, emulsions), and semisolid (ointments, creams, gels, pastes).
Differentiate a solution, a suspension, and an emulsion.
Solution: drug fully dissolved (one phase). Suspension: solid drug particles dispersed in a liquid (settle over time, require shaking). Emulsion: two immiscible liquids dispersed with an emulsifier (oil-in-water or water-in-oil).
Compare ointments, creams, and gels by composition.
Ointment: oleaginous/greasy base, low water (occlusive). Cream: semisolid emulsion (o/w or w/o), spreads easily, washable if o/w. Gel: semisolid with a gelling agent in an aqueous or hydroalcoholic vehicle, non-greasy.
What is the difference between an enteric-coated and an immediate-release tablet?
An enteric coating resists dissolution in acidic gastric pH and dissolves in the more alkaline small intestine, protecting acid-labile drugs or the stomach; immediate-release dissolves promptly in the stomach.
List the main types of modified-release oral formulations.
Delayed-release (e.g., enteric-coated), extended-release (sustained/controlled-release), and pulsatile/targeted-release. Extended-release maintains drug levels over a prolonged period to reduce dosing frequency.
Why should most extended-release and enteric-coated tablets not be crushed?
Crushing destroys the rate-controlling or protective coating/matrix, causing dose dumping (toxicity), loss of acid protection, or degradation of the drug.
State the Noyes–Whitney equation for dissolution rate and define its terms.
$$\frac{dC}{dt} = \frac{D \cdot A \cdot (C_s - C)}{h}$$ where $D$ is the diffusion coefficient, $A$ is surface area, $C_s$ is saturation solubility, $C$ is bulk concentration, and $h$ is the diffusion layer thickness.
According to the Noyes–Whitney equation, how does particle size affect dissolution rate?
Smaller particles have larger total surface area $A$, which increases the dissolution rate $\frac{dC}{dt}$. This is why micronization improves dissolution of poorly soluble drugs.
Define bioavailability ($F$) and give its formula for an oral dose relative to IV.
$F$ is the fraction of an administered dose reaching systemic circulation unchanged. $$F = \frac{AUC_{oral} / Dose_{oral}}{AUC_{IV} / Dose_{IV}}$$ IV bioavailability is defined as $F = 1$ (100%).
What does the Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS) classify drugs by, and name the four classes?
By aqueous solubility and intestinal permeability. Class I: high solubility/high permeability; Class II: low solubility/high permeability; Class III: high solubility/low permeability; Class IV: low solubility/low permeability.
How does the USP define a 'very soluble' versus 'practically insoluble' substance?
Very soluble: less than 1 part of solvent needed per part solute. Practically insoluble (or insoluble): more than 10,000 parts of solvent needed per part of solute.
What is first-pass metabolism and which routes avoid it?
First-pass metabolism is hepatic (and gut) metabolism of an orally absorbed drug before it reaches systemic circulation, reducing bioavailability. IV, sublingual, buccal, transdermal, rectal (partially), and inhalation routes largely bypass it.
Rank these routes by typical onset of action (fastest to slowest): oral, IV, subcutaneous, intramuscular.
IV (immediate) > intramuscular (rapid) > subcutaneous (slower) > oral (slowest, requires absorption and survives first-pass).
What property of a drug favors passive absorption across GI membranes?
A nonionized, lipophilic form. Weak acids are more nonionized (absorbed) in acidic stomach; weak bases are more nonionized in the alkaline small intestine.
Use the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation to determine ionization of a weak acid.
$$pH = pK_a + \log\frac{[A^-]}{[HA]}$$ When $pH = pK_a$, the drug is 50% ionized. Below $pK_a$, a weak acid is mostly nonionized (better absorbed).
What does USP <795> govern?
Standards for nonsterile compounding — including facilities, personnel training, components, documentation, and assignment of beyond-use dates for nonsterile preparations.
Under USP <795>, what are the default beyond-use dates (BUDs) for nonsterile preparations?
Nonaqueous formulations: up to 180 days. Aqueous (water activity ≥ 0.6) dosage forms: up to 14 days refrigerated for oral, up to 90 days for solid/semisolid topical/mucosal — not exceeding the shortest component expiration.
What does USP <797> govern and what is its primary goal?
USP <797> governs sterile compounding (compounded sterile preparations, CSPs). Its goal is to prevent patient harm from microbial contamination, endotoxins, excessive particulates, and chemical/physical errors.
Define beyond-use dating under USP <797> for Category 1 versus Category 2 CSPs.
Category 1 CSPs (compounded in lower-quality environment, e.g., SCA): shorter BUDs (≤12 h room temp, ≤24 h refrigerated). Category 2 CSPs (cleanroom suite): longer BUDs based on sterility testing and storage, up to 45+ days frozen.
What ISO classification air quality is required for the primary engineering control (PEC) in sterile compounding?
ISO Class 5 (e.g., a laminar airflow workbench or biological safety cabinet) provides the direct compounding area where critical sites are exposed.
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What does USP <800> address?
Standards for safe handling of hazardous drugs (HDs) to protect personnel, patients, and the environment — covering receipt, storage, compounding, dispensing, administration, and disposal.
What type of containment device and room pressure are required for compounding sterile hazardous drugs under USP <800>?
A containment primary engineering control (C-PEC, e.g., BSC or CACI) inside a negative-pressure ISO Class 7 buffer room (C-SEC) with at least 12 air changes per hour and external venting.
What reference defines the list of hazardous drugs used by USP <800>?
The NIOSH List of Antineoplastic and Other Hazardous Drugs in Healthcare Settings.
What is aseptic technique?
A set of practices that prevent microbial contamination of sterile products by maintaining sterility of critical sites and surfaces — including proper garbing, hand hygiene, first-air protection, and disinfection with sterile 70% isopropyl alcohol.
What is 'first air' and why must it never be blocked?
First air is the air directly emerging from the HEPA filter, which is essentially particle-free. Objects placed between the HEPA filter and a critical site disrupt first air and can introduce contamination (shadowing).
List common chemical degradation pathways of drugs.
Hydrolysis (esters, amides), oxidation, photolysis (light-induced), reduction, racemization, decarboxylation, and deamidation.
Give examples of physical degradation/instability of dosage forms.
Polymorphic transformation, crystal growth, caking of suspensions, creaming/cracking of emulsions, vaporization/sublimation, and moisture absorption (deliquescence).
Which functional groups are most susceptible to hydrolysis, and how is it minimized?
Esters and amides (also lactams/lactones). Minimized by adjusting pH to the region of maximum stability, reducing water content, lowering temperature, and using buffers.
How is oxidative degradation typically prevented in formulations?
Add antioxidants (e.g., ascorbic acid, sodium metabisulfite, BHT, BHA), use chelating agents (e.g., EDTA) to bind catalytic metals, displace oxygen with nitrogen, and protect from light.
Define an excipient and name five functional categories.
An excipient is an inactive ingredient added to a formulation. Categories: diluents/fillers, binders, disintegrants, lubricants, glidants, coatings, preservatives, sweeteners/flavors, and suspending/emulsifying agents.
What is the role of a disintegrant versus a lubricant in a tablet?
A disintegrant (e.g., croscarmellose, sodium starch glycolate) promotes tablet breakup in fluid to aid dissolution. A lubricant (e.g., magnesium stearate) reduces friction between tablet and die wall during ejection.
Why is magnesium stearate added in small quantities and added late in blending?
It is a hydrophobic lubricant; excess or overblending coats particles, retarding dissolution and weakening tablet bonding. It is typically used at roughly $0.25\%-2\%$.
How does pH affect the solubility of a weakly acidic drug?
A weak acid becomes more ionized and therefore more water-soluble as pH increases above its $pK_a$. Conversely, low pH favors the nonionized, less-soluble form.
What is the purpose of a buffer in a pharmaceutical formulation?
To resist changes in pH, maintaining drug stability, solubility, and physiological compatibility. Common buffers include acetate, citrate, and phosphate systems.
Name commonly used antimicrobial preservatives in aqueous formulations.
Benzalkonium chloride (ophthalmics), parabens (methyl/propylparaben), benzyl alcohol, chlorobutanol, phenol, and thimerosal/EDTA combinations.
Why must preservatives be avoided in certain parenteral products, and which patients are most at risk?
Benzyl alcohol can cause 'gasping syndrome' and toxicity in neonates; many large-volume and intrathecal/epidural products must be preservative-free. Neonates and patients receiving large volumes are most at risk.
Define the USP controlled room temperature range and refrigerated storage range.
Controlled room temperature: $20-25\,^{\circ}\text{C}$ (excursions $15-30\,^{\circ}\text{C}$). Refrigerated: $2-8\,^{\circ}\text{C}$. Frozen typically $-25$ to $-10\,^{\circ}\text{C}$.
What is the cold chain and why is it critical for vaccines and biologics?
The cold chain is the uninterrupted temperature-controlled supply and storage system (often $2-8\,^{\circ}\text{C}$). Temperature excursions can denature proteins and inactivate vaccines, reducing efficacy and safety.
What does 'protect from light' storage require, and give a light-sensitive drug example.
Storage in light-resistant (amber) containers, foil overwraps, or opaque covering during administration. Examples: nitroprusside, amphotericin B, and phytonadione.
What key incompatibility makes calcium and phosphate a concern in IV admixtures (especially TPN)?
Calcium and phosphate can form insoluble calcium phosphate precipitate, which can be fatal (pulmonary emboli). Risk increases with high concentrations, high pH, and high temperature; use organic phosphate salts and add phosphate first.
Differentiate physical, chemical, and therapeutic incompatibility in IV admixtures.
Physical: visible change (precipitate, color, gas, haze). Chemical: molecular degradation/reaction (often invisible). Therapeutic: pharmacologic interaction altering efficacy or toxicity when drugs are combined.
What classic incompatibility involves ceftriaxone and calcium-containing solutions?
Ceftriaxone forms an insoluble ceftriaxone–calcium precipitate; it is contraindicated to co-administer with calcium-containing IV solutions, especially in neonates.
List the major macronutrient components of total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
Dextrose (carbohydrate/energy), amino acids (protein), and intravenous lipid emulsion (fat/energy and essential fatty acids).
What micronutrient additives are routinely included in TPN?
Electrolytes (Na, K, Cl, Ca, Mg, phosphate, acetate), trace elements (zinc, copper, manganese, chromium, selenium), and multivitamins.
What is a '3-in-1' (total nutrient admixture) TPN, and what is a stability concern?
A 3-in-1 combines dextrose, amino acids, and lipids in one bag. Lipid emulsions can crack/destabilize at low pH or high electrolyte (especially divalent cation) concentrations, and precipitates cannot be seen through the opaque emulsion.
How do transdermal patches deliver drugs, and what is a key requirement of suitable drugs?
They provide controlled drug delivery across intact skin into systemic circulation, bypassing first-pass metabolism. Suitable drugs are potent (low dose), lipophilic, and low molecular weight to cross the stratum corneum.
For pulmonary/inhalation delivery, what particle aerodynamic diameter optimizes deep lung deposition?
Particles of roughly $1-5\,\mu\text{m}$ aerodynamic diameter reach the lower airways/alveoli. Larger particles ($>5\,\mu\text{m}$) deposit in the oropharynx; very small ones are exhaled.
Why are ophthalmic solutions formulated to be isotonic and near-neutral pH?
To minimize irritation, reflex tearing, and drug washout. Isotonicity matches tear tonicity ($\approx 0.9\%$ NaCl equivalent) and a near-physiologic pH improves comfort and corneal absorption.
What is the maximum volume typically given by a single intramuscular injection in the deltoid versus gluteal sites?
Deltoid: about $1-2\,\text{mL}$. Larger gluteal/vastus lateralis sites: up to about $3\,\text{mL}$ (up to $5\,\text{mL}$ in some adult gluteal cases). Larger volumes increase pain and poor absorption.
Calculate the milliosmolarity contribution: why does dextrose 5% in water (D5W) have an osmolarity of about 252 mOsm/L?
D5W contains $50\,\text{g/L}$ of dextrose (MW $\approx 198$ as monohydrate); $\frac{50}{198}\times 1000 \approx 252\ \text{mOsm/L}$, making it approximately iso-osmotic with plasma ($\approx 285\ \text{mOsm/L}$).
North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmaceutics, Compounding, and Drug Delivery FAQ
What is in the North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmaceutics, Compounding, and Drug Delivery syllabus?
North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmaceutics, Compounding, and Drug Delivery is split into 4 chapters: Dosage Forms and Biopharmaceutics, Sterile and Nonsterile Compounding, Stability, Storage, and Formulation and Parenteral and Specialized Delivery. Together they contain 15 topics.
How many chapters are in North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmaceutics, Compounding, and Drug Delivery?
4 chapters, containing 15 topics. The largest chapter is Dosage Forms and Biopharmaceutics, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination (NAPLEX) Pharmaceutics, Compounding, and Drug Delivery?
Yes — a 50-card Pharmaceutics, Compounding, and Drug Delivery deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.