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NextGen Bar Exam Torts Syllabus

The Torts syllabus for NextGen Bar Exam in full: 4 chapters, 16 topics and 20 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Torts flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
16Topics
20Sub-topics
50Flashcards

Torts syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Intentional Torts

    3 topics
    • Torts Against the Person
      • Battery, assault, and false imprisonment
      • Intentional infliction of emotional distress
    • Torts Against Property
      • Trespass to land and chattels
      • Conversion
    • Defenses to Intentional Torts
      • Consent and self-defense
      • Defense of property and necessity
  2. Negligence

    4 topics
    • Duty of Care
      • Standard of care and the reasonable person
      • Duties to foreseeable plaintiffs
      • Special duties and landowner liability
    • Breach
      • Negligence per se
      • Res ipsa loquitur
    • Causation
      • Actual cause and the but-for test
      • Proximate cause and intervening forces
    • Damages and Defenses
      • Comparative and contributory negligence
      • Assumption of risk
  3. Strict Liability and Products Liability

    4 topics
    • Abnormally Dangerous Activities
    • Liability for Animals
    • Products Liability Theories
      • Manufacturing, design, and warning defects
      • Strict liability, negligence, and warranty claims
    • Defenses in Products Cases
  4. Economic, Dignitary, and Other Torts

    5 topics
    • Defamation
      • Libel and slander elements
      • Constitutional limits and privileges
    • Invasion of Privacy
    • Misrepresentation and Fraud
    • Nuisance
      • Private and public nuisance
    • Vicarious Liability and Joint Tortfeasors

NextGen Bar Exam Torts flashcards — 50 questions with answers

  1. What are the elements of battery?

    (1) A volitional act by the defendant; (2) intent to cause a harmful or offensive contact (or imminent apprehension of it); (3) harmful or offensive contact actually results to the plaintiff's person; and (4) causation. Contact with anything connected to the plaintiff (e.g., clothing, a held object) counts.

  2. What are the elements of assault, and how does it differ from battery?

    Assault: (1) a volitional act; (2) intent to cause apprehension of an imminent harmful/offensive contact; (3) the plaintiff's reasonable apprehension of such imminent contact; and (4) causation. Unlike battery, assault requires no actual contact—only apprehension. Words alone are generally insufficient without conduct.

  3. What are the elements of false imprisonment?

    (1) An act or omission that confines or restrains the plaintiff to a bounded area; (2) intent to confine; (3) the plaintiff is conscious of the confinement or harmed by it; and (4) causation. There must be no reasonable means of safe escape known to the plaintiff. Confinement may be by physical barriers, force, threats, or invalid assertion of legal authority.

  4. What are the elements of intentional infliction of emotional distress (IIED)?

    (1) Extreme and outrageous conduct (beyond all bounds of decency); (2) intent to cause severe emotional distress or recklessness as to it; (3) causation; and (4) severe emotional distress. It is the only intentional tort to the person requiring proof of damages (actual severe distress).

  5. For IIED based on a bystander theory, what must the plaintiff usually show?

    Generally the plaintiff must be (1) present when the injury to the third person occurs, (2) a close relative of the injured person, and (3) the defendant knew the plaintiff was present and a close relative. Alternatively, the plaintiff can recover by proving the standard IIED elements (intent or recklessness toward them).

  6. What are the elements of trespass to land?

    (1) Physical invasion of the plaintiff's real property (by the defendant personally or by propelling an object/substance onto it); and (2) intent to enter the land (intent to trespass is not required—mistake about ownership is no defense). No actual damages need be proven.

  7. Distinguish trespass to chattels from conversion.

    Both involve intentional interference with personal property. Trespass to chattels is a minor interference (dispossession or damage); damages equal the harm or loss of use. Conversion is so serious it warrants the defendant paying the chattel's full value (forced sale); remedy is fair market value at the time of conversion or replevin.

  8. What is the transferred intent doctrine, and which torts does it apply to?

    If a defendant intends to commit a tort against one person but instead commits a different tort or harms a different person, the intent transfers. It applies among these five torts: battery, assault, false imprisonment, trespass to land, and trespass to chattels.

  9. What are the requirements for the defense of consent to an intentional tort?

    Consent may be express or implied (by custom or the plaintiff's conduct). The plaintiff must have capacity to consent, and the defendant may not exceed the scope of consent. Consent is invalid if obtained by fraud, duress, or mistake induced by the defendant, or if the consented-to act is a crime (majority view).

  10. What are the limits on the defense of self-defense?

    A person may use reasonable force to defend against an imminent or reasonably apparent threat. Force must be proportional; deadly force is allowed only when facing a threat of death or serious bodily harm. Many jurisdictions require retreat before deadly force unless in one's home (castle doctrine); modern/MBE majority does not require retreat.

  11. What force may be used to defend property, and when is deadly force permitted?

    Reasonable, non-deadly force may be used to prevent a tort against property, after first requesting the intruder to stop (unless futile/dangerous). Deadly force or deadly mechanical devices (e.g., spring guns) may NEVER be used solely to protect property.

  12. Distinguish public necessity from private necessity as defenses.

    Public necessity: defendant acts to protect the community from a public catastrophe—a complete defense; no liability even for damage. Private necessity: defendant acts to protect themselves or their property—a qualified defense; the actor is not liable for the trespass but must pay for any actual damage caused (Vincent v. Lake Erie).

  13. What are the four elements of a negligence claim?

    (1) Duty—a legal obligation to conform to a standard of care; (2) Breach—failure to meet that standard; (3) Causation—both actual (cause-in-fact) and proximate cause; and (4) Damages—actual harm. All four must be proven.

  14. What is the general standard of care in negligence, and to whom is a duty owed?

    The standard is that of a reasonably prudent person under the same or similar circumstances (an objective standard). Under the majority Cardozo (Palsgraf) view, a duty is owed only to foreseeable plaintiffs within the zone of danger; under the minority Andrews view, a duty is owed to everyone.

  15. How does the standard of care apply to children and to professionals?

    Children are held to the standard of a child of like age, intelligence, and experience (subjective), except when engaged in an adult/inherently dangerous activity (then adult standard). Professionals must exercise the knowledge and skill of an ordinary member of their profession in good standing (national standard for physicians).

  16. Under traditional rules, what duties does a landowner owe to a trespasser, licensee, and invitee?

    Undiscovered trespasser: no duty. Discovered/anticipated trespasser: warn of known, hidden, artificial dangerous conditions and use reasonable care in active operations. Licensee (social guest): warn of known concealed dangers. Invitee (business/public): warn of known dangers AND reasonably inspect to discover unknown dangers.

  17. What is the attractive nuisance doctrine?

    A landowner may be liable for injuries to trespassing children caused by an artificial condition if: (1) the owner knows or should know children are likely to trespass; (2) the owner knows the condition poses an unreasonable risk of serious harm; (3) the children, due to youth, can't appreciate the danger; and (4) the burden of remedying the danger is slight compared to the risk.

  18. What is negligence per se and what must a plaintiff show to invoke it?

    Negligence per se establishes duty and breach by violation of a statute. The plaintiff must show: (1) they are in the class of persons the statute intended to protect, and (2) the harm is the type the statute was designed to prevent. Violation creates a presumption (or conclusive proof) of breach; causation and damages must still be proven.

  19. What is the Learned Hand formula for breach of duty?

    A defendant is negligent if the burden of taking precautions (B) is less than the probability of harm (P) multiplied by the magnitude/gravity of the loss (L)—i.e., breach exists when B < P × L. It is a cost-benefit test for whether the defendant acted unreasonably.

  20. What is res ipsa loquitur and what are its elements?

    It allows an inference of breach where direct evidence is lacking. Elements: (1) the accident is of a type that ordinarily does not occur absent negligence; and (2) the instrumentality was in the defendant's exclusive control (i.e., the negligence is attributable to the defendant). It typically gets the plaintiff past a directed verdict.

Show the other 30 Torts flashcards
  1. What is the test for actual cause (cause-in-fact), including when there are multiple causes?

    The default test is 'but-for' causation: the injury would not have occurred but for the defendant's act. When multiple sufficient causes combine (e.g., two fires), use the 'substantial factor' test. When two defendants act negligently but only one caused the harm and it's unclear which, use the alternative causation (Summers v. Tice) approach, shifting the burden to defendants.

  2. What is proximate (legal) cause, and how are intervening causes treated?

    Proximate cause limits liability to foreseeable harms—the defendant is liable for harms within the scope of the risk created. Foreseeable intervening causes (e.g., ordinary medical negligence, rescuers, ordinary forces of nature) do not cut off liability. Unforeseeable, independent superseding causes (e.g., intentional crimes, acts of God) break the causal chain and relieve the defendant.

  3. What is the eggshell-skull (thin-skull) plaintiff rule?

    A defendant takes the plaintiff as they find them. Once any injury is established, the defendant is liable for the full extent of the plaintiff's damages, even if the plaintiff's pre-existing condition or unusual susceptibility made the harm far greater than foreseeable. The extent of damages need not be foreseeable.

  4. What categories of damages are recoverable in negligence, and is there a duty to mitigate?

    Recoverable: compensatory damages—economic (medical expenses, lost earnings) and non-economic (pain and suffering). Punitive damages require wanton/willful or malicious conduct. Nominal damages are NOT available in negligence (actual harm is required). The plaintiff has a duty to mitigate (e.g., seek reasonable treatment); the collateral source rule traditionally bars reducing damages by third-party payments.

  5. Contrast contributory negligence, pure comparative negligence, and modified comparative negligence.

    Contributory negligence: any negligence by the plaintiff completely bars recovery (minority; harsh). Pure comparative: plaintiff's recovery is reduced by their percentage of fault, even if 99% at fault. Modified comparative (majority): plaintiff recovers reduced damages only if their fault is below 50% (or not greater than 50%); otherwise barred.

  6. What is assumption of the risk as a defense, and its two forms?

    Express assumption: plaintiff contractually agrees (e.g., a waiver) to relieve the defendant of a duty. Implied assumption: plaintiff (1) knew of the risk and (2) voluntarily proceeded anyway. In pure comparative-fault jurisdictions, implied assumption of risk is often merged into the comparative-fault analysis rather than being a complete bar.

  7. What are the requirements for strict liability for abnormally dangerous activities?

    An activity is abnormally dangerous if: (1) it creates a foreseeable risk of serious harm even when reasonable care is exercised; and (2) it is not a matter of common usage in the community. The defendant is strictly liable for harms resulting from the dangerous propensity that made the activity abnormally dangerous (e.g., blasting, storing toxic chemicals, keeping explosives).

  8. What is the rule for strict liability for domestic animals?

    An owner is generally NOT strictly liable for harm caused by domestic animals (including farm animals and pets). However, the owner IS strictly liable if they have knowledge of the particular animal's dangerous propensities abnormal for its category (the 'one free bite' notion). Negligence liability may also apply.

  9. What is the rule for strict liability for wild animals and for trespassing livestock?

    Owners are strictly liable for injuries caused by wild (non-domesticated) animals resulting from their dangerous propensities, even if the owner took precautions—but generally only to non-trespassers, and the harm must flow from the animal's dangerous nature. Owners of trespassing livestock (e.g., cattle) are strictly liable for the property damage they cause.

  10. What are the elements of a strict products liability claim?

    (1) The defendant is a commercial supplier (merchant) in the business of selling the product; (2) the product was defective when it left the defendant's control; (3) the defect made the product unreasonably dangerous; (4) actual and proximate causation; and (5) damages. The plaintiff need not be in privity with the defendant.

  11. What are the three types of product defects?

    (1) Manufacturing defect—the product departs from its intended design (deviates from others off the line); tested by the consumer-expectation standard. (2) Design defect—the entire line is defective; tested by a risk-utility analysis requiring a reasonable alternative design. (3) Warning defect (failure to warn/inadequate instructions)—foreseeable risks could have been reduced by reasonable warnings.

  12. What are the theories under which a plaintiff can bring a products liability claim?

    (1) Strict products liability; (2) Negligence; (3) Implied warranties of merchantability and fitness for a particular purpose; (4) Express warranty and misrepresentation; and (5) Intent (rare). Each theory has distinct elements—e.g., negligence requires a breach of the duty of care, while strict liability focuses on the defective condition regardless of care.

  13. What is the risk-utility (risk-benefit) test for a design defect?

    A product is defectively designed if a reasonable alternative design was available that would have reduced the foreseeable risks of harm, and the omission of that alternative rendered the product not reasonably safe. Courts weigh factors such as utility, risk magnitude, cost and feasibility of the alternative, and the alternative's effect on usefulness/price.

  14. What defenses are available in a strict products liability action?

    (1) Comparative/contributory fault (depending on jurisdiction—many apply comparative fault to reduce recovery); (2) Assumption of the risk (knowing, voluntary use of a known defective product); (3) Product misuse that is unforeseeable (foreseeable misuse does not bar recovery); and (4) substantial alteration of the product after it left the defendant's control.

  15. What are the elements of common law defamation?

    (1) A defamatory statement (one that tends to harm the plaintiff's reputation); (2) of or concerning the plaintiff; (3) publication to a third party (intentionally or negligently); and (4) damage to the plaintiff's reputation. For matters of public concern, the Constitution adds fault and falsity requirements.

  16. Distinguish libel from slander, and what is slander per se?

    Libel is defamation in written or permanent form—general damages are presumed. Slander is spoken/transitory defamation—the plaintiff must prove special (pecuniary) damages, UNLESS it is slander per se. Slander per se categories (damages presumed): statements about (1) the plaintiff's business/profession, (2) commission of a serious crime, (3) having a loathsome disease, and (4) sexual misconduct/unchastity.

  17. What additional constitutional elements apply when defamation involves a public official/figure versus a private figure?

    For public officials/figures, the plaintiff must prove falsity AND actual malice (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard for the truth—New York Times v. Sullivan). For private figures on matters of public concern, the plaintiff must prove falsity and at least negligence to recover actual damages; actual malice is required for presumed or punitive damages.

  18. What are the four branches of invasion of privacy?

    (1) Appropriation—unauthorized use of the plaintiff's name or likeness for commercial advantage; (2) Intrusion upon seclusion—prying into the plaintiff's private affairs in a way objectionable to a reasonable person; (3) False light—publicizing facts placing the plaintiff in a false light objectionable to a reasonable person (requires actual malice if of public concern); (4) Public disclosure of private facts—publicizing private information objectionable to a reasonable person and not of legitimate public concern.

  19. What are the elements of intentional misrepresentation (fraud/deceit)?

    (1) A misrepresentation of a material fact; (2) scienter (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard for its truth); (3) intent to induce the plaintiff's reliance; (4) causation (actual reliance); (5) justifiable reliance; and (6) damages (actual pecuniary loss). Opinions, predictions, and puffery generally are not actionable.

  20. What are the elements of negligent misrepresentation, and how does it differ from fraud?

    Elements: (1) misrepresentation by a defendant in a business/professional capacity; (2) breach of duty toward a particular plaintiff (failure to use reasonable care in obtaining/communicating information); (3) causation; (4) justifiable reliance; and (5) damages. It differs from fraud because it requires only negligence (not scienter) and liability is generally limited to commercial transactions and foreseeable plaintiffs.

  21. Distinguish private nuisance from public nuisance.

    Private nuisance is a substantial and unreasonable interference with another's use and enjoyment of their land; only those with a property interest can sue. Public nuisance is an unreasonable interference with a right common to the general public (e.g., public health/safety); a private individual may recover only if they suffered harm different in kind from the general public.

  22. How is 'unreasonable interference' determined in a private nuisance claim, and what is the role of 'coming to the nuisance'?

    Interference is unreasonable when the gravity of the harm outweighs the utility of the defendant's conduct, judged by an average person in the community (not a hypersensitive plaintiff). 'Coming to the nuisance' (plaintiff moving in after the activity existed) is not a complete defense but is a factor courts weigh.

  23. What are the elements of respondeat superior (employer vicarious liability)?

    An employer is vicariously liable for torts committed by an employee acting within the scope of employment. Conduct is within scope if it is of the kind the employee was hired to perform, occurs substantially within authorized time/space limits, and is at least partly to serve the employer. Minor detours are within scope; major 'frolics' are not.

  24. Is an employer vicariously liable for an employee's intentional torts, and what about independent contractors?

    Intentional torts are usually outside the scope of employment UNLESS force is inherent in the job (e.g., bouncers), the tort furthers the employer's business, or authorized. Generally a principal is NOT vicariously liable for an independent contractor's torts, except for: (1) inherently dangerous activities, and (2) non-delegable duties.

  25. When is a car owner vicariously liable for another driver, and what is parental liability for children's torts?

    Generally a car owner is not liable for another's negligent driving, except under the family-car doctrine (liable for family members' use) or owner-consent (permissive use) statutes. At common law, parents are generally NOT vicariously liable for their children's torts but may be directly liable for their own negligence (e.g., failure to supervise a child with known dangerous tendencies).

  26. What is joint and several liability, and how does it interact with contribution?

    Under joint and several liability, when two or more tortfeasors cause a single indivisible injury, the plaintiff may recover the entire judgment from any one defendant. That defendant may then seek contribution from the others for their proportionate share of fault (comparative contribution in most states).

  27. What is the difference between contribution and indemnity among tortfeasors?

    Contribution allows a defendant who paid more than their fair share to recover the excess from other liable tortfeasors, apportioned by relative fault. Indemnity shifts the ENTIRE loss from one party to another (e.g., a retailer held strictly liable recovering full amount from the manufacturer, or a vicariously liable party recovering from the active wrongdoer).

  28. What duty is owed to rescuers, and what is the 'firefighter's rule'?

    'Danger invites rescue'—a rescuer is a foreseeable plaintiff, so a defendant whose negligence imperils someone (or themselves) is liable for injuries to a rescuer. Exception: the firefighter's rule bars professional rescuers (firefighters, police) from recovering for injuries from the inherent risks of their job.

  29. When does a defendant owe an affirmative duty to act or rescue?

    Generally there is no duty to act for another's benefit. Exceptions creating a duty: (1) a special relationship (parent-child, common carrier-passenger, employer-employee, innkeeper-guest); (2) the defendant created the peril; (3) the defendant voluntarily undertook to assist (must then act with reasonable care); or (4) a duty imposed by contract or statute.

  30. What are the requirements for negligent infliction of emotional distress (NIED)?

    Two main theories: (1) Zone of danger—the plaintiff was in the zone of physical danger and suffered a physical manifestation of distress; or (2) Bystander recovery—the plaintiff was located near the scene, contemporaneously perceived the injury to a close relative, and (in many states) suffered resulting distress. Some jurisdictions require a physical symptom of the emotional distress.

NextGen Bar Exam Torts FAQ

What is in the NextGen Bar Exam Torts syllabus?

NextGen Bar Exam Torts is split into 4 chapters: Intentional Torts, Negligence, Strict Liability and Products Liability and Economic, Dignitary, and Other Torts. Together they contain 16 topics and 20 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in NextGen Bar Exam Torts?

4 chapters, containing 16 topics and 20 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Economic, Dignitary, and Other Torts, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for NextGen Bar Exam Torts?

Yes — a 50-card Torts deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.