🇺🇸 NextGen Bar Exam · subject
NextGen Bar Exam Evidence Syllabus
The Evidence syllabus for NextGen Bar Exam in full: 4 chapters, 17 topics and 22 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 58 Evidence flashcards with answers.
Evidence syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Relevance and Its Limits
4 topics- Logical and Legal Relevance
- Probative value versus unfair prejudice
- Character Evidence
- Propensity prohibition and exceptions
- Permissible non-propensity uses
- Methods of proving character
- Habit and Routine Practice
- Specialized Relevance Rules
- Subsequent remedial measures and settlement offers
- Liability insurance and pleas
- Logical and Legal Relevance
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Witnesses, Impeachment, and Privileges
4 topics- Competency and Personal Knowledge
- Impeachment Methods
- Prior inconsistent statements and bias
- Conviction of a crime and prior bad acts
- Refreshing Recollection and Recorded Recollection
- Privileges
- Attorney-client privilege
- Spousal privileges
- Physician-patient and psychotherapist privileges
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Hearsay
5 topics- Definition of Hearsay
- Out-of-court statements offered for their truth
- Non-hearsay purposes
- Statements That Are Not Hearsay by Rule
- Prior statements by witnesses
- Opposing party statements and admissions
- Exceptions Regardless of Availability
- Present sense impression and excited utterance
- State of mind and medical diagnosis
- Business and public records
- Exceptions Requiring Unavailability
- Former testimony and dying declarations
- Statements against interest
- Confrontation Clause and Hearsay
- Definition of Hearsay
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Expert Testimony, Authentication, and Writings
4 topics- Lay and Expert Opinion
- Qualification and reliable methodology under Daubert
- Bases of expert opinion
- Authentication of Evidence
- The Best Evidence Rule
- Judicial Notice and Presumptions
- Lay and Expert Opinion
NextGen Bar Exam Evidence flashcards — 58 questions with answers
What is the test for logical relevance under FRE 401?
Evidence is logically relevant if it has any tendency to make a fact of consequence more or less probable than it would be without the evidence (probative value + materiality). The bar is very low.
Under FRE 403, when may logically relevant evidence still be excluded?
When its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, misleading the jury, undue delay, waste of time, or needlessly presenting cumulative evidence.
What is the general rule on admitting subsequent remedial measures, and what are the permitted purposes?
Inadmissible to prove negligence, culpable conduct, a defect, or need for a warning. Admissible for other purposes such as proving ownership/control, feasibility (if disputed), or impeachment.
Are offers to settle a disputed civil claim admissible, and to prove what?
No. Settlement offers, completed settlements, and statements made during compromise negotiations are inadmissible to prove validity/amount of a disputed claim or for impeachment by prior inconsistent statement. There must be a disputed claim (as to validity or amount).
What is the general prohibition on character evidence in FRE 404(a)?
Evidence of a person's character or character trait is not admissible to prove that on a particular occasion the person acted in accordance with that character (i.e., propensity).
How may a criminal defendant open the door to character evidence, and how may the prosecution respond?
The defendant may offer evidence of a pertinent good character trait (via reputation or opinion). Once the defendant opens the door, the prosecution may rebut with reputation/opinion evidence and cross-examine with relevant specific-act inquiries (good-faith basis).
For what non-propensity purposes may specific prior acts (other crimes/wrongs) be admitted under FRE 404(b)?
MIMIC purposes: Motive, Intent, absence of Mistake/accident, Identity, Common plan or scheme. Also opportunity, knowledge, preparation. Must not be offered to show propensity.
In which case types are a defendant's prior sexual assault or child molestation acts admissible to show propensity?
Under FRE 413-415, in criminal or civil cases of sexual assault or child molestation, evidence of the defendant's prior commission of such offenses IS admissible and may be considered for any matter, including propensity.
What three methods can be used to prove character, and when is each available?
(1) Reputation and (2) Opinion testimony — generally allowed when character is admissible; (3) Specific instances of conduct — allowed on cross-examination of a character witness, and when character is an essential element of a claim/charge/defense (e.g., defamation, negligent entrustment).
Define 'habit' and contrast it with character evidence under FRE 406.
Habit is a person's regular, specific response to a particular repeated situation (semi-automatic, particularized conduct). Unlike character, habit evidence IS admissible to prove the person acted in accordance with it on a particular occasion, and needs no corroboration or eyewitness.
How is the admissibility of routine practice of an organization treated under FRE 406?
Routine practice of an organization is admissible, just like personal habit, to prove the organization acted in accordance with that routine on a particular occasion.
Is evidence that a person was or was not insured against liability admissible to prove negligence?
No. Liability insurance is inadmissible to prove negligence or wrongdoing. It may be admitted for other purposes such as proving agency, ownership, control, or witness bias/prejudice.
In a criminal sex-offense case, what does the rape shield rule (FRE 412) generally exclude and what are its exceptions?
It excludes evidence of a victim's other sexual behavior or sexual predisposition. Criminal exceptions: (1) specific instances to show another source of semen/injury, (2) specific instances with the accused to show consent, (3) where exclusion would violate the defendant's constitutional rights.
Are pleas of guilty later withdrawn, nolo contendere pleas, and plea-discussion statements admissible against the defendant?
No. Withdrawn guilty pleas, nolo contendere pleas, and statements made during plea negotiations with a prosecutor are generally inadmissible against the defendant.
What is the modern rule on witness competency under FRE 601?
Every person is presumed competent to be a witness. There is no general disqualification for mental capacity, age, etc.; such matters go to credibility/weight (in diversity cases, state competency law applies to elements/defenses governed by state law).
What is the personal knowledge requirement of FRE 602?
A witness may testify to a matter only if evidence is introduced sufficient to support a finding that the witness has personal knowledge of the matter (does not apply to expert opinion testimony under 703).
What must a witness do before testifying under FRE 603, and what is the Dead Man's Statute?
A witness must give an oath or affirmation to testify truthfully. A Dead Man's Statute (state law only; no federal equivalent) bars an interested party from testifying about a personal transaction/communication with a deceased person when the testimony is against the decedent's estate.
What are the categories of impeachment by prior conviction under FRE 609?
(1) Crimes of dishonesty/false statement (crimen falsi): automatically admissible, no balancing, regardless of felony/misdemeanor. (2) Other felonies: admissible subject to balancing — for a criminal defendant witness, admissible only if probative value outweighs prejudice; for other witnesses, standard FRE 403 balancing.
What is the 10-year limit rule for impeachment by conviction under FRE 609(b)?
If more than 10 years have passed since conviction or release from confinement (whichever is later), the conviction is admissible only if its probative value substantially outweighs its prejudicial effect and the proponent gives reasonable written notice.
How may a witness be impeached with a prior inconsistent statement, and what foundation is required?
A prior inconsistent statement can be used to impeach (show the witness is unreliable). Extrinsic evidence requires that the witness be given an opportunity to explain or deny and the opposing party a chance to examine (timing flexible). If made under oath at a prior proceeding, it is also substantive (non-hearsay under 801(d)(1)(A)).
Show the other 38 Evidence flashcards
What is impeachment by bias, and may extrinsic evidence be used?
Bias impeachment shows the witness has a motive to lie (interest, relationship, hostility, payment). It is a non-collateral matter, so extrinsic evidence IS allowed (typically after the witness is asked about it).
What is the collateral matter rule in impeachment by contradiction?
A cross-examiner may not introduce extrinsic evidence to contradict a witness on a collateral matter (one relevant only to credibility, not to the merits). The examiner is 'stuck with the answer' on collateral points.
How may a witness's character for truthfulness be attacked and supported under FRE 608?
Character for truthfulness may be attacked by reputation/opinion evidence; it may be supported only after it has been attacked. Specific instances of conduct (not resulting in conviction) may be inquired into on cross-examination if probative of truthfulness, but extrinsic evidence of those acts is barred.
What is required to refresh a witness's recollection under FRE 612?
A witness whose memory fails may be shown anything (a writing or object) to jog memory. The item is NOT evidence and is not read into the record by the proponent; the witness testifies from refreshed memory. The adverse party may inspect it, cross-examine on it, and introduce relevant portions.
State the five foundational elements of the recorded recollection hearsay exception (FRE 803(5)).
(1) The witness once had personal knowledge; (2) the record was made or adopted by the witness; (3) when the matter was fresh in memory; (4) the record accurately reflects that knowledge; and (5) the witness now cannot recall well enough to testify fully. If admitted, it is read into evidence but received as an exhibit only if offered by an adverse party.
What are the elements of the attorney-client privilege?
A confidential communication between a client (or representative) and attorney (or representative), made for the purpose of obtaining or providing legal services, is protected from disclosure. Held by the client; survives the client's death; does not protect underlying facts or attendance of third parties who destroy confidentiality.
What is the crime-fraud exception to attorney-client privilege?
There is no privilege if the client sought or used the attorney's services to enable or aid in committing or planning what the client knew or should have known was a crime or fraud (future/ongoing wrongdoing, not past acts).
Who holds the spousal privileges and what does each cover?
(1) Spousal (testimonial) immunity: in CRIMINAL cases, the witness-spouse may refuse to testify against the defendant-spouse; held by the witness-spouse; requires a valid marriage at time of trial. (2) Confidential marital communications: protects confidential communications made during marriage; applies in civil and criminal cases; held by both spouses; survives divorce for statements made during the marriage.
Define hearsay under FRE 801(c).
An out-of-court statement (oral, written, or assertive conduct) offered in evidence to prove the truth of the matter asserted in the statement.
Name three common non-hearsay purposes for which an out-of-court statement may be offered.
To show: (1) effect on the listener (notice, fear, motive); (2) a verbal act / legally operative words (contract, defamation, gift); (3) the declarant's state of mind circumstantially, or that the statement was made at all (not its truth). Also for impeachment as a prior inconsistent statement.
Which prior statements by a testifying witness are non-hearsay under FRE 801(d)(1)?
If the declarant testifies and is subject to cross-examination: (A) a prior inconsistent statement made under penalty of perjury at a prior proceeding; (B) a prior consistent statement offered to rebut a charge of recent fabrication/improper influence or to rehabilitate; (C) a prior statement of identification of a person.
What statements qualify as non-hearsay opposing-party (admission) statements under FRE 801(d)(2)?
A statement offered against an opposing party that: (A) was made by the party; (B) is one the party adopted/believed true; (C) was made by a person the party authorized to speak; (D) was made by the party's agent/employee on a matter within scope during employment; or (E) was made by a coconspirator during and in furtherance of the conspiracy.
What is required for the coconspirator non-hearsay exclusion to apply?
The statement must be made by a coconspirator (1) during the course of and (2) in furtherance of the conspiracy. The existence of the conspiracy and the defendant's participation are determined by the judge, who may consider the statement itself plus independent evidence.
List the requirements of the present sense impression exception (FRE 803(1)).
A statement describing or explaining an event or condition, made while or immediately after the declarant perceived it. No startling event required; the key is near-contemporaneity (little time to fabricate).
What are the elements of the excited utterance exception (FRE 803(2))?
A statement relating to a startling event or condition, made while the declarant was under the stress of excitement that the event caused. Time gap can be longer than a present sense impression as long as the declarant remains under the stress.
What does the state-of-mind exception (FRE 803(3)) cover, and what is excluded?
A statement of the declarant's then-existing state of mind (intent, plan, motive, emotional/physical condition). It can prove future conduct (intent to do something). It does NOT include a statement of memory or belief to prove the fact remembered/believed (except about the terms of declarant's will).
What statements qualify under the medical diagnosis/treatment exception (FRE 803(4))?
Statements made for, and reasonably pertinent to, medical diagnosis or treatment, describing medical history, past or present symptoms, or their general cause. Statements of fault/identity are usually excluded (exception: identity of an abuser in domestic/child abuse cases).
State the elements of the business records exception (FRE 803(6)).
(1) Record of acts/events/conditions made at or near the time; (2) by or from someone with knowledge; (3) kept in the course of a regularly conducted business activity; (4) making the record was a regular practice; (5) shown by a custodian/qualified witness or certification; and (6) the source/method do not indicate a lack of trustworthiness. Note: records prepared primarily for litigation may lack trustworthiness.
What is required for the public records exception (FRE 803(8)), and its limit in criminal cases?
Records of a public office setting out its activities, observed matters under a legal duty (excluding police observations in criminal cases against the defendant), or factual findings from a legally authorized investigation (civil cases / against the government in criminal). Police reports/observations are not admissible against a criminal defendant.
What does it mean for a hearsay declarant to be 'unavailable' under FRE 804(a)?
The declarant is exempt by privilege; refuses to testify despite a court order; testifies to lack of memory; is dead or has a then-existing infirmity/illness; or is absent and the proponent cannot procure attendance/testimony by reasonable means. A party cannot create unavailability through wrongdoing.
State the elements of the former testimony exception (FRE 804(b)(1)).
Testimony given at a prior trial, hearing, or deposition is admissible if the declarant is now unavailable and the party against whom it is offered (or, in civil cases, a predecessor in interest) had an opportunity AND a similar motive to develop the testimony by direct, cross, or redirect examination.
What are the elements of a dying declaration (FRE 804(b)(2))?
Declarant is unavailable; the statement was made while believing death was imminent; and it concerns the cause or circumstances of what the declarant believed to be impending death. Admissible only in a homicide prosecution or any civil case (not other criminal cases). Declarant need not actually die.
What is a statement against interest (FRE 804(b)(3)) and its corroboration requirement?
A statement that, when made, was so contrary to the declarant's pecuniary, proprietary, or penal interest that a reasonable person would have made it only if true; requires the declarant to be unavailable. If it exposes the declarant to criminal liability and is offered to exculpate the accused, corroborating circumstances indicating trustworthiness are required.
What is the forfeiture-by-wrongdoing exception (FRE 804(b)(6))?
A statement offered against a party who wrongfully caused — or acquiesced in wrongfully causing — the declarant's unavailability, intending that result. The party forfeits both hearsay and Confrontation Clause objections.
Under the Confrontation Clause (Crawford), when is a hearsay statement inadmissible against a criminal defendant?
When the statement is (1) testimonial, (2) the declarant is unavailable, and (3) the defendant had no prior opportunity to cross-examine the declarant. Testimonial statements require confrontation regardless of whether a hearsay exception applies.
How is a statement to police classified as testimonial vs. nontestimonial (Davis v. Washington)?
Nontestimonial: made to enable police to meet an ongoing emergency (primary purpose). Testimonial: made when there is no ongoing emergency and the primary purpose is to establish or prove past events potentially relevant to later criminal prosecution.
What are the requirements for lay opinion testimony under FRE 701?
A lay witness's opinion must be (1) rationally based on the witness's perception, (2) helpful to understanding the testimony or determining a fact, and (3) not based on scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge (which is governed by 702).
State the FRE 702 / Daubert requirements for expert testimony.
(1) The expert is qualified by knowledge, skill, experience, training, or education; (2) the testimony will help the trier of fact; (3) it is based on sufficient facts/data; (4) it is the product of reliable principles and methods; and (5) the expert reliably applied those methods to the facts. Reliability factors: testability, peer review, error rate, general acceptance.
On what bases may an expert form an opinion under FRE 703, and when may inadmissible facts be disclosed to the jury?
An expert may rely on facts personally observed, facts admitted at trial, or facts reasonably relied upon by experts in the field (even if inadmissible). Inadmissible underlying facts may be disclosed to the jury only if their probative value in helping evaluate the opinion substantially outweighs their prejudicial effect.
What is the rule on expert opinion regarding a criminal defendant's mental state (FRE 704(b))?
In a criminal case, an expert may not state an opinion about whether the defendant did or did not have the mental state or condition that is an element of the crime or defense; that ultimate issue is reserved for the trier of fact. (Otherwise, opinions on ultimate issues are generally permitted under 704(a).)
What is the general standard for authenticating evidence under FRE 901?
The proponent must produce evidence sufficient to support a finding that the item is what the proponent claims it is. This is a low bar (conditional relevance); the jury ultimately decides genuineness. Methods include witness testimony, distinctive characteristics, comparison, or chain of custody.
What categories of evidence are self-authenticating under FRE 902 (no extrinsic proof needed)?
Examples: domestic and foreign public documents under seal, certified copies of public records, official publications, newspapers/periodicals, trade inscriptions/labels, acknowledged (notarized) documents, commercial paper, and certified business records/electronic data.
How may a voice or telephone conversation be authenticated under FRE 901?
A voice may be identified by anyone who has heard it (including familiarity gained for litigation). A phone call to a business may be authenticated by showing the call was made to the business's number and the conversation related to business reasonably transacted over the phone; a call to a person, by showing the call was to that person's number and the speaker was that person.
State the Best Evidence (Original Document) Rule under FRE 1002.
To prove the content of a writing, recording, or photograph, the original (or a duplicate) is required when the contents are at issue — i.e., when the writing is a legally operative document or when a witness testifies relying on (not merely with knowledge independent of) the writing.
When does the Best Evidence Rule NOT require the original?
When the writing's contents are merely collateral, or when a witness has independent personal knowledge of the underlying facts. Also, duplicates are admissible to the same extent as originals unless authenticity is genuinely disputed or it would be unfair; secondary evidence is allowed if the original is lost/destroyed (not in bad faith), unobtainable, or in the opponent's control.
What may a court take judicial notice of under FRE 201, and what is its effect?
A court may judicially notice an adjudicative fact that is not subject to reasonable dispute because it is generally known within the jurisdiction or can be accurately and readily determined from reliable sources. In a CIVIL case the noticed fact is conclusive; in a CRIMINAL case the jury may, but is not required to, accept it as conclusive.
Distinguish a rebuttable presumption from a conclusive presumption in civil cases (FRE 301).
A rebuttable presumption shifts the burden of production to the opposing party; once met, the presumption disappears (bursting bubble), and the burden of persuasion remains on the original party. A conclusive (irrebuttable) presumption is a rule of substantive law that cannot be challenged with contrary evidence.
What is the difference between competency of evidence at a preliminary question (FRE 104(a)) and conditional relevance (FRE 104(b))?
Under 104(a), the judge decides preliminary questions of admissibility (e.g., privilege, qualification of an expert, whether a hearsay exception applies) and is not bound by the rules of evidence. Under 104(b), when relevance depends on a fact (conditional relevance, e.g., authentication), the judge admits it once there is evidence sufficient for the jury to find the fact.
NextGen Bar Exam Evidence FAQ
What is in the NextGen Bar Exam Evidence syllabus?
NextGen Bar Exam Evidence is split into 4 chapters: Relevance and Its Limits, Witnesses, Impeachment, and Privileges, Hearsay and Expert Testimony, Authentication, and Writings. Together they contain 17 topics and 22 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in NextGen Bar Exam Evidence?
4 chapters, containing 17 topics and 22 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Hearsay, with 5 topics.
Are there flashcards for NextGen Bar Exam Evidence?
Yes — a 58-card Evidence deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.