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Neurology Syllabus

Medical Specialization. The full Neurology syllabus: 5 chapters, 19 topics and 69 sub-topics, with 51 flashcards written against it.

5Chapters
19Topics
69Sub-topics
51Flashcards

Neurology syllabus — full chapter and topic list

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics. This is the whole examinable outline for Neurology, not a summary of it.

  1. Neuroanatomy

    4 topics
    • Central Nervous System
      • Brain
      • Spinal Cord
    • Peripheral Nervous System
      • Cranial Nerves
      • Spinal Nerves
    • Autonomic Nervous System
      • Sympathetic Nervous System
      • Parasympathetic Nervous System
    • Functional Neuroanatomy
      • Cerebral Cortex
      • Basal Ganglia
      • Thalamus
      • Hypothalamus
      • Brainstem
      • Cerebellum
  2. Neurophysiology

    4 topics
    • Neuronal Communication
      • Action Potentials
      • Synaptic Transmission
      • Neurotransmitters
    • Sensory Systems
      • Visual System
      • Auditory System
      • Somatosensory System
      • Olfactory System
      • Gustatory System
    • Motor Systems
      • Motor Cortex
      • Corticospinal Tract
      • Extrapyramidal System
    • Homeostatic and Higher Functions
      • Sleep and Wakefulness
      • Memory and Learning
      • Emotion and Behavior
  3. Neuropathology

    4 topics
    • Neurodegenerative Diseases
      • Alzheimer's Disease
      • Parkinson's Disease
      • Huntington's Disease
      • Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)
    • Cerebrovascular Diseases
      • Stroke
      • Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)
      • Aneurysms
      • Arteriovenous Malformations (AVMs)
    • Infectious Diseases
      • Meningitis
      • Encephalitis
      • Brain Abscess
    • Demyelinating Diseases
      • Multiple Sclerosis
      • Guillain-Barré Syndrome
  4. Clinical Neurology

    4 topics
    • Neurological Examination
      • History Taking
      • Mental Status Examination
      • Cranial Nerve Examination
      • Motor System Examination
      • Sensory System Examination
      • Reflexes
      • Coordination and Gait
    • Neurological Disorders
      • Epilepsy
      • Headaches and Migraines
      • Movement Disorders
      • Neuromuscular Disorders
      • Sleep Disorders
    • Neuroimaging
      • Computed Tomography (CT)
      • Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
      • Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
      • Electroencephalography (EEG)
    • Neuropharmacology
      • Antiepileptic Drugs
      • Antiparkinsonian Drugs
      • Antidepressants
      • Antipsychotics
      • Analgesics
  5. Neurosurgery

    3 topics
    • Principles of Neurosurgery
      • Preoperative Assessment
      • Surgical Techniques
      • Postoperative Care
    • Common Neurosurgical Procedures
      • Craniotomy
      • Spinal Surgery
      • Endovascular Neurosurgery
    • Neurosurgical Emergencies
      • Traumatic Brain Injury
      • Intracranial Hemorrhage
      • Spinal Cord Injury

Neurology flashcards

The complete Neurology deck: 51 questions with worked answers.

  1. What are the two main divisions of the human nervous system, and what does each comprise?

    The Central Nervous System (CNS), comprising the brain and spinal cord, and the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS), comprising the cranial and spinal nerves plus their ganglia that connect the CNS to the rest of the body.

  2. Name the four lobes of the cerebral cortex and one principal function of each.

    Frontal (motor control, executive function/personality); Parietal (somatosensory processing, spatial awareness); Temporal (auditory processing, memory, language comprehension); Occipital (visual processing).

  3. What are the three protective meningeal layers of the CNS, from outermost to innermost?

    Dura mater (outermost, tough), arachnoid mater (middle, web-like), and pia mater (innermost, adherent to CNS surface).

  4. Where is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) produced, and what is the approximate normal total CSF volume in an adult?

    CSF is produced by the choroid plexus in the ventricles; normal total volume is approximately $150\ \text{mL}$, with about $500\ \text{mL}$ produced per day.

  5. Trace the normal circulation of CSF from the lateral ventricles to reabsorption.

    Lateral ventricles $\to$ interventricular foramina of Monro $\to$ third ventricle $\to$ cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius $\to$ fourth ventricle $\to$ foramina of Luschka and Magendie $\to$ subarachnoid space $\to$ reabsorbed by arachnoid granulations into venous sinuses.

  6. How many pairs of spinal nerves are there, and how are they distributed by region?

    31 pairs: 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 1 coccygeal.

  7. Contrast the general functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

    Sympathetic mediates 'fight-or-flight' (increases heart rate, dilates pupils, inhibits digestion); parasympathetic mediates 'rest-and-digest' (slows heart rate, constricts pupils, stimulates digestion).

  8. What are the craniosacral versus thoracolumbar outflows of the autonomic nervous system?

    The parasympathetic division has craniosacral outflow (cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X and sacral segments S2–S4); the sympathetic division has thoracolumbar outflow (spinal segments T1–L2).

  9. Which neurotransmitters are released by preganglionic and postganglionic autonomic neurons?

    All preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine (nicotinic). Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine (muscarinic); postganglionic sympathetic neurons release norepinephrine (except sweat glands, which use acetylcholine).

  10. Define resting membrane potential and give its typical value for a neuron.

    The resting membrane potential is the electrical potential difference across the neuronal membrane at rest, typically about $-70\ \text{mV}$, maintained mainly by the $\ce{Na+}/\ce{K+}$-ATPase and $\ce{K+}$ leak channels.

  11. What are the phases of an action potential in a neuron?

    Depolarization (voltage-gated $\ce{Na+}$ channels open), repolarization (voltage-gated $\ce{K+}$ channels open, $\ce{Na+}$ channels inactivate), and hyperpolarization/undershoot before returning to resting potential; it is an all-or-none event above threshold (~$-55\ \text{mV}$).

  12. State the Nernst equation and what it calculates.

    The Nernst equation gives the equilibrium potential for a single ion: $$E_{\text{ion}} = \frac{RT}{zF}\ln\frac{[\text{ion}]_{\text{out}}}{[\text{ion}]_{\text{in}}}$$ where $R$ is the gas constant, $T$ temperature, $z$ ion valence, and $F$ the Faraday constant.

  13. What is saltatory conduction and why does it increase conduction velocity?

    Saltatory conduction is the 'jumping' of the action potential from one node of Ranvier to the next along myelinated axons; myelin insulation and the concentration of ion channels at nodes greatly increase conduction speed while reducing energy cost.

  14. List the sequential steps of chemical synaptic transmission.

    1) Action potential reaches axon terminal; 2) voltage-gated $\ce{Ca^2+}$ channels open; 3) $\ce{Ca^2+}$ influx triggers vesicle fusion; 4) neurotransmitter release into cleft; 5) binding to postsynaptic receptors; 6) postsynaptic potential; 7) neurotransmitter removal (reuptake, enzymatic breakdown, diffusion).

  15. Distinguish EPSPs from IPSPs.

    Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) depolarize the postsynaptic membrane (e.g., glutamate, $\ce{Na+}$ influx), increasing firing likelihood; inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) hyperpolarize it (e.g., GABA/glycine, $\ce{Cl-}$ influx or $\ce{K+}$ efflux), decreasing firing likelihood.

  16. What is the primary excitatory and the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS?

    Glutamate is the principal excitatory neurotransmitter; GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is the principal inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain (glycine predominates in the spinal cord).

  17. Name the main types of glial cells in the CNS and PNS and their functions.

    CNS: astrocytes (support, blood–brain barrier), oligodendrocytes (myelination), microglia (immune defense), ependymal cells (CSF lining). PNS: Schwann cells (myelination) and satellite cells (support ganglia).

  18. Describe the somatotopic organization of the primary motor and sensory cortices.

    Both are organized as a 'homunculus' — an inverted body map along the precentral (motor) and postcentral (sensory) gyri, with disproportionately large representation for body parts requiring fine control or high sensitivity (hands, face).

  19. What is the pathway of the corticospinal (pyramidal) tract and where does it decussate?

    It originates in the primary motor cortex, descends through the internal capsule and brainstem, and ~85% of fibers decussate at the pyramidal decussation in the medulla to form the lateral corticospinal tract, controlling contralateral voluntary movement.

  20. Contrast the dorsal column–medial lemniscus pathway with the spinothalamic tract.

    Dorsal column–medial lemniscus carries fine touch, vibration, and proprioception, decussating in the medulla. The spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature, decussating within one to two levels in the spinal cord.

Show the other 31 Neurology flashcards
  1. What are the signs distinguishing an upper motor neuron lesion from a lower motor neuron lesion?

    UMN lesion: spastic paralysis, hyperreflexia, positive Babinski sign, no significant atrophy. LMN lesion: flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia/areflexia, marked muscle atrophy, fasciculations.

  2. What is the function of the cerebellum, and what is the classic triad of cerebellar dysfunction?

    The cerebellum coordinates movement, balance, and motor learning. Cerebellar dysfunction causes ataxia, intention tremor, and dysmetria (plus nystagmus, dysdiadochokinesia, and scanning speech).

  3. Outline the direct pathway of the basal ganglia and its net effect on movement.

    Cortex $\to$ striatum (inhibits) $\to$ globus pallidus internus/substantia nigra pars reticulata (inhibits) $\to$ thalamus (disinhibited) $\to$ cortex. Net effect: facilitation of movement; dopamine via D1 receptors reinforces this pathway.

  4. Describe the phototransduction cascade in retinal rod cells.

    Light isomerizes 11-cis-retinal to all-trans-retinal, activating rhodopsin $\to$ transducin $\to$ phosphodiesterase, which hydrolyzes cGMP; falling cGMP closes $\ce{Na+}$ channels, hyperpolarizing the rod and reducing glutamate release.

  5. Trace the visual pathway from retina to primary visual cortex.

    Retinal ganglion cells $\to$ optic nerve $\to$ optic chiasm (nasal fibers decussate) $\to$ optic tract $\to$ lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus $\to$ optic radiations $\to$ primary visual cortex (V1) in the occipital lobe.

  6. How does the cochlea encode sound frequency (tonotopy)?

    The basilar membrane is tonotopically organized: the stiff, narrow base responds to high frequencies and the flexible, wide apex to low frequencies, so different frequencies maximally displace different regions and stimulate specific hair cells.

  7. Define homeostasis and name the brain region that is its principal integrator.

    Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment despite external changes. The hypothalamus is the principal integrator, regulating temperature, hunger, thirst, circadian rhythms, and the endocrine system via the pituitary.

  8. What structures comprise the limbic system and what is its primary role?

    The limbic system includes the hippocampus, amygdala, cingulate gyrus, fornix, and parts of the hypothalamus; it governs emotion, memory formation (hippocampus), and motivation.

  9. Differentiate the roles of the hippocampus and amygdala in memory.

    The hippocampus is essential for forming new declarative (explicit) memories and their consolidation; the amygdala attaches emotional significance to memories, especially fear-related memories.

  10. What are the core clinical and pathological features of Parkinson's disease?

    Clinical: resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. Pathology: loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta and intracytoplasmic Lewy bodies containing alpha-synuclein.

  11. What is the pathological hallmark of Alzheimer's disease?

    Extracellular beta-amyloid (senile) plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles of hyperphosphorylated tau protein, with cortical/hippocampal atrophy and a cholinergic deficit.

  12. What is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and which neurons does it affect?

    ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting both upper and lower motor neurons, producing a combination of spasticity/hyperreflexia and muscle weakness/atrophy/fasciculations, with sensation and cognition typically spared.

  13. What genetic mutation causes Huntington's disease and what is its inheritance pattern?

    An autosomal dominant CAG trinucleotide repeat expansion in the huntingtin (HTT) gene on chromosome 4; expansions of $\geq 36$ repeats cause disease, and more repeats correlate with earlier onset (anticipation).

  14. Distinguish ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke and give their approximate relative frequencies.

    Ischemic stroke (~85%) results from arterial occlusion (thrombotic or embolic) reducing blood flow; hemorrhagic stroke (~15%) results from vessel rupture causing intracerebral or subarachnoid bleeding.

  15. What is the classic presentation and most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

    A sudden 'thunderclap' worst-headache-of-life, often with neck stiffness and photophobia; the most common cause is rupture of a saccular (berry) aneurysm, typically at circle of Willis branch points.

  16. What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA) and why is it clinically important?

    A TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction from focal ischemia without acute infarction, resolving completely (traditionally within 24 hours); it is a warning sign of high short-term stroke risk.

  17. State the cerebral perfusion pressure formula and its normal target range.

    $$\text{CPP} = \text{MAP} - \text{ICP}$$ where MAP is mean arterial pressure and ICP is intracranial pressure; CPP is normally maintained around $60\text{–}80\ \text{mmHg}$.

  18. State the Monro–Kellie doctrine.

    The cranial vault is a fixed volume containing brain, blood, and CSF; an increase in one compartment must be offset by a decrease in another, or intracranial pressure rises. It explains compensation and decompensation in mass lesions.

  19. How are bacterial and viral meningitis distinguished by CSF analysis?

    Bacterial: high neutrophils, low glucose, high protein, elevated opening pressure, turbid appearance. Viral: lymphocytic predominance, normal glucose, mildly elevated protein, usually clear fluid.

  20. What virus most commonly causes sporadic encephalitis, and which brain region does it favor?

    Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) is the most common cause of sporadic viral encephalitis, characteristically causing hemorrhagic necrosis of the temporal lobes.

  21. What is multiple sclerosis and what is its underlying pathology?

    MS is a chronic autoimmune demyelinating disease of the CNS characterized by inflammatory plaques of demyelination disseminated in space and time; oligodendrocytes and myelin are targeted, slowing or blocking conduction.

  22. Contrast Guillain-Barré syndrome with multiple sclerosis in terms of location and course.

    Guillain-Barré is an acute, usually monophasic autoimmune demyelination of the PNS (ascending weakness, areflexia, often post-infectious); MS is a chronic, relapsing–remitting demyelination of the CNS.

  23. What CSF finding supports a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis?

    The presence of oligoclonal IgG bands in the CSF that are absent from serum, indicating intrathecal immunoglobulin synthesis; also an elevated IgG index.

  24. What does the Glasgow Coma Scale assess, and what is its score range?

    The GCS assesses level of consciousness via best eye opening (1–4), verbal response (1–5), and motor response (1–6); total scores range from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully alert).

  25. List the five components of a complete neurological examination.

    Mental status, cranial nerves, motor system (tone, power, bulk), sensory system, reflexes, and coordination/gait — assessing the nervous system systematically from cortex to periphery.

  26. How is muscle power graded on the Medical Research Council (MRC) scale?

    $0$ = no contraction; $1$ = flicker/trace; $2$ = movement with gravity eliminated; $3$ = movement against gravity only; $4$ = movement against some resistance; $5$ = normal power against full resistance.

  27. Compare the strengths of CT versus MRI in neuroimaging.

    CT is fast and superior for acute hemorrhage, bone, and calcification (first-line in trauma/acute stroke). MRI offers superior soft-tissue contrast for tumors, demyelination, posterior fossa, and early ischemia (DWI detects infarcts within minutes).

  28. What is the mechanism of action of levodopa, and why is it combined with carbidopa?

    Levodopa is a dopamine precursor that crosses the blood–brain barrier (dopamine cannot) and is converted to dopamine in the CNS. Carbidopa is a peripheral DOPA-decarboxylase inhibitor that prevents peripheral conversion, increasing CNS availability and reducing side effects.

  29. Name three major classes of antiepileptic drug mechanisms with an example of each.

    $\ce{Na+}$ channel blockers (phenytoin, carbamazepine); GABA enhancers (benzodiazepines, valproate, phenobarbital); and $\ce{Ca^2+}$ channel modulators / synaptic vesicle binders (ethosuximide for T-type channels, levetiracetam via SV2A).

  30. What is Cushing's triad and what does it indicate?

    Hypertension (widened pulse pressure), bradycardia, and irregular respirations — a late sign of dangerously raised intracranial pressure and impending brain herniation, requiring emergency intervention.

  31. Contrast the anatomy and typical cause of epidural versus subdural hematoma.

    Epidural hematoma: between skull and dura, usually arterial (middle meningeal artery), biconvex/lens-shaped on CT, often with a lucid interval. Subdural hematoma: between dura and arachnoid, usually venous (bridging veins), crescent-shaped, common in elderly/alcoholics.

Neurology syllabus FAQ

What is in the Neurology syllabus?

The Neurology syllabus is split into 5 chapters: Neuroanatomy, Neurophysiology, Neuropathology, Clinical Neurology and Neurosurgery. Together they contain 19 topics and 69 sub-topics.

How many chapters and topics are in the Neurology syllabus?

5 chapters and 19 topics, broken down further into 69 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Neuroanatomy, with 4 topics.

Are there Neurology flashcards?

Yes — 51 question-and-answer flashcards, printed in full on this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.