🌍 Worldwide · Medical
Emergency Medicine Syllabus
Medical Specialization. The full Emergency Medicine syllabus: 9 chapters, 32 topics and 101 sub-topics, with 50 flashcards written against it.
Emergency Medicine syllabus — full chapter and topic list
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics. This is the whole examinable outline for Emergency Medicine, not a summary of it.
-
Introduction to Emergency Medicine
2 topics- History and Evolution
- Origins of Emergency Medicine
- Development of Emergency Medical Systems
- Modern Emergency Medicine Practice
- Principles of Emergency Medicine
- Triage
- Initial Assessment and Management
- Resuscitation
- History and Evolution
-
Cardiovascular Emergencies
4 topics- Acute Coronary Syndromes
- Pathophysiology
- Clinical Presentation
- Management and Treatment
- Arrhythmias
- Types of Arrhythmias
- Recognition and Diagnosis
- Acute Management
- Heart Failure
- Acute Decompensated Heart Failure
- Management Strategies
- Long-term Care Considerations
- Hypertensive Emergencies
- Definition and Classification
- Clinical Features
- Treatment Protocols
- Acute Coronary Syndromes
-
Respiratory Emergencies
5 topics- Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
- Etiology
- Clinical Manifestations
- Management and Treatment
- Asthma Exacerbations
- Pathophysiology
- Clinical Features
- Emergency Management
- Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) Exacerbations
- Pathophysiology
- Clinical Presentation
- Management and Treatment
- Pneumonia
- Community-Acquired Pneumonia
- Hospital-Acquired Pneumonia
- Management Strategies
- Pulmonary Embolism
- Risk Factors
- Clinical Presentation
- Diagnostic Approaches
- Management and Treatment
- Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
-
Neurological Emergencies
4 topics- Stroke
- Ischemic Stroke
- Hemorrhagic Stroke
- Acute Management
- Post-Stroke Care
- Seizures
- Types of Seizures
- Acute Management
- Status Epilepticus
- Traumatic Brain Injury
- Pathophysiology
- Initial Assessment
- Management and Treatment
- Meningitis and Encephalitis
- Etiology
- Clinical Presentation
- Diagnostic Approaches
- Management and Treatment
- Stroke
-
Trauma Emergencies
6 topics- Initial Assessment and Management
- Primary Survey
- Secondary Survey
- Trauma Resuscitation
- Head and Neck Trauma
- Skull Fractures
- Cervical Spine Injuries
- Facial Trauma
- Thoracic Trauma
- Rib Fractures
- Pneumothorax
- Hemothorax
- Cardiac Tamponade
- Abdominal Trauma
- Solid Organ Injuries
- Hollow Viscus Injuries
- Pelvic Fractures
- Extremity Trauma
- Fractures and Dislocations
- Soft Tissue Injuries
- Compartment Syndrome
- Burns
- Classification of Burns
- Initial Management
- Complications and Long-term Care
- Initial Assessment and Management
-
Pediatric Emergencies
3 topics- Pediatric Assessment
- Pediatric Vital Signs
- Pediatric Assessment Triangle
- Approach to the Ill Child
- Common Pediatric Emergencies
- Respiratory Distress
- Seizures
- Dehydration
- Fever and Infections
- Pediatric Trauma
- Patterns of Injury
- Management and Resuscitation
- Child Abuse and Non-Accidental Trauma
- Pediatric Assessment
-
Toxicological Emergencies
3 topics- General Principles of Toxicology
- Toxidromes
- Decontamination
- Antidotes
- Common Poisonings
- Alcohol and Drug Overdose
- Pesticides and Herbicides
- Household Chemicals
- Environmental Exposures
- Bites and Stings
- Heat and Cold Injuries
- Drowning and Near-Drowning
- General Principles of Toxicology
-
Obstetric and Gynecological Emergencies
2 topics- Pregnancy-Related Emergencies
- Ectopic Pregnancy
- Pre-eclampsia and Eclampsia
- Postpartum Hemorrhage
- Gynecological Emergencies
- Ovarian Torsion
- Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
- Acute Vaginal Bleeding
- Pregnancy-Related Emergencies
-
Psychiatric Emergencies
3 topics- Acute Psychosis
- Etiology
- Clinical Presentation
- Management and Treatment
- Suicidal Ideation and Self-Harm
- Risk Assessment
- Management Strategies
- Follow-Up Care
- Substance Abuse Emergencies
- Acute Intoxication
- Withdrawal Syndromes
- Management and Treatment
- Acute Psychosis
Emergency Medicine flashcards
The complete Emergency Medicine deck: 50 questions with worked answers.
In the history of emergency medicine, in what year was Emergency Medicine formally recognized as a distinct medical specialty in the United States?
1979, when the American Board of Medical Specialties recognized Emergency Medicine as the 23rd medical specialty.
What does the 'golden hour' concept in emergency and trauma medicine refer to?
The principle that a critically injured patient's chance of survival is greatest if definitive care is delivered within the first hour after injury, when timely resuscitation prevents irreversible shock.
State the sequence of the primary survey (ABCDE approach) used in initial emergency assessment.
A - Airway (with cervical spine protection), B - Breathing/ventilation, C - Circulation with hemorrhage control, D - Disability (neurologic status), E - Exposure/Environment control.
What are the three components scored in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), and what is its total range?
Eye opening (1-4), Verbal response (1-5), and Motor response (1-6); total score ranges from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully alert).
Define the ECG criteria for STEMI (ST-elevation myocardial infarction) at the J-point.
New ST elevation $\geq 1\,\text{mm}$ ($0.1\,\text{mV}$) in $\geq 2$ contiguous limb leads, or $\geq 2\,\text{mm}$ in men ($\geq 1.5\,\text{mm}$ in women) in leads $V_2$-$V_3$.
List the components of the initial 'MONA-B' style medical therapy for acute coronary syndrome.
Morphine (for refractory pain), Oxygen (if $\text{SpO}_2 < 90\%$), Nitroglycerin, Aspirin ($162$-$325\,\text{mg}$ chewed), and a Beta-blocker; plus a second antiplatelet and anticoagulation.
What is the door-to-balloon time goal for primary PCI in STEMI patients presenting to a PCI-capable hospital?
$\leq 90$ minutes from first medical contact to reperfusion by primary percutaneous coronary intervention.
How do STEMI, NSTEMI, and unstable angina differ in terms of ECG and biomarkers?
STEMI: ST elevation with elevated troponin. NSTEMI: no ST elevation but elevated troponin (myocardial necrosis). Unstable angina: ischemic symptoms, no ST elevation, and normal troponin (no necrosis).
What is the first-line electrical treatment for a patient in pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation?
Immediate unsynchronized defibrillation (e.g., $200\,\text{J}$ biphasic) followed by immediate resumption of CPR.
Differentiate synchronized cardioversion from defibrillation.
Synchronized cardioversion delivers a shock timed to the R wave (for unstable patients with a pulse, e.g., unstable SVT/AF/VT); defibrillation delivers an unsynchronized shock for pulseless VT/VF.
What is the first-line drug for a stable patient with narrow-complex regular supraventricular tachycardia after vagal maneuvers fail?
Adenosine $6\,\text{mg}$ rapid IV push, followed by $12\,\text{mg}$ if needed.
Using the $CHA_2DS_2\text{-}VASc$ score, which components each contribute 2 points?
Age $\geq 75$ years and prior Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism each contribute 2 points; all other factors (CHF, hypertension, age 65-74, diabetes, vascular disease, female sex) contribute 1 point each.
Contrast systolic (HFrEF) and diastolic (HFpEF) heart failure by ejection fraction.
HFrEF (reduced): $\text{LVEF} \leq 40\%$ due to impaired contraction. HFpEF (preserved): $\text{LVEF} \geq 50\%$ with impaired relaxation/filling. HFmrEF (mildly reduced): LVEF $41$-$49\%$.
What is the mnemonic 'LMNOP' for the emergency treatment of acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema?
Lasix (furosemide/diuresis), Morphine, Nitrates, Oxygen (and positioning upright), and Positive pressure ventilation (CPAP/BiPAP).
Define a hypertensive emergency versus hypertensive urgency.
Hypertensive emergency: severely elevated BP (often $>180/120\,\text{mmHg}$) WITH acute target-organ damage. Hypertensive urgency: similarly elevated BP WITHOUT acute target-organ damage.
By how much should mean arterial pressure (MAP) generally be lowered in the first hour of most hypertensive emergencies?
By no more than about $10$-$20\%$ (roughly $\leq 25\%$) in the first hour to avoid organ hypoperfusion, then gradually toward normal over 24-48 hours.
Give the formula for mean arterial pressure (MAP) in terms of systolic (SBP) and diastolic (DBP) pressures.
$$\text{MAP} = \text{DBP} + \frac{1}{3}(\text{SBP} - \text{DBP})$$
State the Berlin definition oxygenation criterion for ARDS and its severity categories.
ARDS requires $\frac{P_aO_2}{F_iO_2} \leq 300\,\text{mmHg}$ with PEEP $\geq 5\,\text{cmH}_2\text{O}$. Mild: $200 < \text{ratio} \leq 300$; Moderate: $100 < \text{ratio} \leq 200$; Severe: ratio $\leq 100$.
What lung-protective tidal volume is recommended in ARDS ventilation, and what plateau pressure limit is targeted?
Low tidal volume of $6\,\text{mL/kg}$ of predicted body weight, targeting a plateau pressure $\leq 30\,\text{cmH}_2\text{O}$.
What are the first-line pharmacologic treatments for an acute asthma exacerbation in the ED?
Inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonists (albuterol/salbutamol), inhaled ipratropium bromide, and systemic corticosteroids; add magnesium sulfate IV for severe cases.
Show the other 30 Emergency Medicine flashcards
In an asthma exacerbation, what does a 'normal' or rising $P_aCO_2$ signify?
It is an ominous sign of impending respiratory failure/fatigue, since a tachypneic patient should be hypocapnic; a normalizing or rising $\text{CO}_2$ indicates the patient can no longer sustain ventilation.
What are the components of first-line treatment for a COPD exacerbation?
Short-acting bronchodilators (beta-agonist + anticholinergic), systemic corticosteroids, antibiotics (if increased sputum purulence/volume), controlled oxygen, and noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (BiPAP) for respiratory acidosis.
In COPD patients, what is the recommended target oxygen saturation range during exacerbation, and why is it not higher?
Target $\text{SpO}_2$ of $88$-$92\%$, because excessive oxygen can worsen ventilation-perfusion mismatch and blunt hypoxic respiratory drive, causing $\text{CO}_2$ retention.
What clinical criteria define the CURB-65 severity score for pneumonia?
Confusion, Urea $>7\,\text{mmol/L}$ (BUN $>19\,\text{mg/dL}$), Respiratory rate $\geq 30$, Blood pressure ($\text{SBP} <90$ or $\text{DBP} \leq 60$), and age $\geq 65$; each scores 1 point to guide admission decisions.
What is the most common bacterial cause of community-acquired pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus).
What is the Wells score used for, and what does a high pretest probability suggest?
The Wells score estimates the clinical (pretest) probability of pulmonary embolism; a high score warrants CT pulmonary angiography rather than starting with a D-dimer.
When is a D-dimer test most useful in the workup of pulmonary embolism?
In low/intermediate pretest probability patients: a negative (normal) D-dimer effectively rules out PE, avoiding imaging. It is not useful in high-probability patients (proceed directly to CTPA).
What is the ECG finding classically (though uncommonly) associated with pulmonary embolism?
The $S_1Q_3T_3$ pattern: a prominent S wave in lead I, a Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III (indicating right heart strain); sinus tachycardia is the most common finding.
What is the treatment for massive (high-risk) PE with hemodynamic instability?
Systemic thrombolysis (e.g., tissue plasminogen activator/alteplase) if no contraindications, or catheter-directed therapy/embolectomy; anticoagulation alone for hemodynamically stable PE.
What imaging is required before administering IV thrombolysis (tPA) for acute ischemic stroke, and what must it exclude?
A non-contrast CT head to exclude intracranial hemorrhage before giving thrombolytics.
What is the time window for IV alteplase (tPA) in acute ischemic stroke from symptom onset?
Within $4.5$ hours of symptom onset (standard window is up to $3$ hours, extended to $4.5$ hours in eligible patients).
What does the acronym FAST represent for rapid recognition of stroke?
Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call emergency services.
How is mechanical thrombectomy time window generally defined for large-vessel occlusion ischemic stroke?
Up to $24$ hours from last known well in selected patients with a large-vessel occlusion and favorable imaging (salvageable penumbra), and standardly within $6$ hours.
Define status epilepticus in operational (treatment) terms.
A single seizure lasting $\geq 5$ minutes, or $\geq 2$ seizures without full recovery of consciousness between them; treatment should begin at 5 minutes.
What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for status epilepticus?
A benzodiazepine (IV lorazepam, IV/IO diazepam, or IM midazolam), followed by a second-line antiepileptic (e.g., levetiracetam, valproate, or fosphenytoin) if seizures persist.
Classify traumatic brain injury severity by the Glasgow Coma Scale.
Mild TBI: GCS $13$-$15$; Moderate TBI: GCS $9$-$12$; Severe TBI: GCS $\leq 8$ (indicates coma and typically the need for definitive airway/intubation).
State the Monro-Kellie doctrine relevant to traumatic brain injury.
The skull is a fixed volume containing brain, blood, and CSF; because their total volume is constant, an increase in one component (e.g., a hematoma) must be offset by a decrease in another or intracranial pressure rises.
Give the formula for cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) and the typical target in TBI.
$$\text{CPP} = \text{MAP} - \text{ICP}$$ Target CPP is generally $60$-$70\,\text{mmHg}$ in traumatic brain injury.
What is Cushing's triad, and what does it indicate?
Hypertension (widening pulse pressure), bradycardia, and irregular respirations; it indicates raised intracranial pressure and impending brain herniation.
Contrast the CT appearance of epidural versus subdural hematoma.
Epidural hematoma: biconvex/lens-shaped (lentiform), does not cross suture lines, often from middle meningeal artery. Subdural hematoma: crescent-shaped (concave), crosses suture lines, from bridging veins.
What is the classic triad of bacterial meningitis?
Fever, neck stiffness (nuchal rigidity), and altered mental status; headache and photophobia are also common.
What is the most common pathogen of community-acquired bacterial meningitis in adults, and the key management priority?
Streptococcus pneumoniae is most common; management priority is not to delay empiric antibiotics (± dexamethasone) for lumbar puncture or CT.
Contrast typical CSF findings in bacterial versus viral meningitis.
Bacterial: high neutrophils, low glucose ($\frac{\text{CSF}}{\text{serum}}$ glucose ratio low), high protein, high opening pressure. Viral: lymphocyte predominance, normal glucose, normal/mildly elevated protein.
What are Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs used to detect?
Meningeal irritation (meningismus): Kernig's sign is pain/resistance on knee extension with hip flexed; Brudzinski's sign is involuntary hip/knee flexion when the neck is passively flexed.
In the initial trauma assessment, what are the components of the AMPLE history?
Allergies, Medications, Past medical history/Pregnancy, Last meal, and Events/Environment related to the injury.
List the classic components of Beck's triad, and what condition it indicates.
Muffled heart sounds, distended neck veins (elevated JVP), and hypotension; it indicates cardiac tamponade.
What are the immediately life-threatening thoracic injuries identified during the primary survey (the 'lethal six'/deadly chest injuries)?
Airway obstruction, tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive hemothorax, flail chest, and cardiac tamponade.
Describe tension pneumothorax and its immediate emergency treatment.
A one-way air leak causes progressive pleural air accumulation, collapsing the lung and shifting the mediastinum, compressing venous return (obstructive shock). Treat with immediate needle decompression followed by tube thoracostomy.
How much blood loss in the pleural space defines a massive hemothorax requiring thoracotomy?
Immediate drainage of $>1500\,\text{mL}$ ($\approx 1.5\,\text{L}$) of blood, or ongoing output of $>200\,\text{mL/hr}$ for 2-4 hours.
Classify hemorrhagic (hypovolemic) shock by ATLS Class I-IV according to approximate percent blood volume loss.
Class I: $<15\%$ loss; Class II: $15$-$30\%$; Class III: $30$-$40\%$; Class IV: $>40\%$. Adult blood volume is $\approx 70\,\text{mL/kg}$.
Emergency Medicine syllabus FAQ
What is in the Emergency Medicine syllabus?
The Emergency Medicine syllabus (Anesthesiology) is split into 9 chapters: Introduction to Emergency Medicine, Cardiovascular Emergencies, Respiratory Emergencies, Neurological Emergencies, Trauma Emergencies, Pediatric Emergencies, Toxicological Emergencies, Obstetric and Gynecological Emergencies and Psychiatric Emergencies. Together they contain 32 topics and 101 sub-topics.
How many chapters and topics are in the Emergency Medicine syllabus?
9 chapters and 32 topics, broken down further into 101 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Trauma Emergencies, with 6 topics.
Are there Emergency Medicine flashcards?
Yes — 50 question-and-answer flashcards, printed in full on this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.
Related Medical syllabuses
Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery
Clinical syllabusMedicine, Surgery, Gynecology, Pediatrics, Ophthalmology, and ENT
Pre-Clinical syllabusAnatomy, Physiology and Biochemistry
BDS syllabusBachelor of Dental Surgery
Para-Clinical syllabusPathology, Microbiology, Pharmacology, Forensic, and Community Medicine
Psychiatry syllabusMedical Specialization
Cardiology syllabusMedical Specialization
Neurology syllabusMedical Specialization
Obstetrics and Gynecology syllabusMedical Specialization