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NEET / State Class 12 Board (e.g. ISC) Biology Syllabus
The Biology syllabus for NEET / State Class 12 Board (e.g. ISC) in full: 4 chapters, 13 topics and 39 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 Biology flashcards with answers.
Biology syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Reproduction in Organisms
3 topics- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
- Structure of flower; microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis
- Pollination, double fertilisation and endosperm
- Apomixis, polyembryony and parthenocarpy
- Human Reproduction
- Male and female reproductive systems
- Gametogenesis and menstrual cycle
- Fertilisation, embryonic development and parturition
- Reproductive Health
- Contraception and birth control methods
- Infertility and assisted reproductive technologies
- Sexually transmitted infections
- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
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Genetics and Evolution
3 topics- Principles of Inheritance and Variation
- Mendel's laws and dihybrid cross
- Linkage, recombination and chromosomal theory
- Sex determination and genetic disorders
- Molecular Basis of Inheritance
- DNA as genetic material; structure and replication
- Transcription, genetic code and translation
- Lac operon and regulation of gene expression
- Evolution
- Origin of life and evidences of evolution
- Darwinism, natural selection and Hardy-Weinberg principle
- Adaptive radiation and human evolution
- Principles of Inheritance and Variation
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Biology in Human Welfare
3 topics- Human Health and Disease
- Pathogens and common human diseases
- Immunity: innate, acquired, vaccination
- Cancer, AIDS and drug abuse
- Microbes in Human Welfare
- Microbes in household and industrial products
- Microbes in sewage treatment and biogas
- Microbes as biocontrol agents and biofertilisers
- Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
- Animal husbandry and breeding
- Plant breeding and single cell protein
- Tissue culture and biofortification
- Human Health and Disease
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Biotechnology and Ecology
4 topics- Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
- Tools of recombinant DNA technology
- Restriction enzymes, vectors and cloning
- PCR and bioreactors
- Biotechnology and Its Applications
- Genetically modified organisms; Bt crops
- Gene therapy and molecular diagnosis
- Biopiracy and ethical issues
- Ecosystem
- Components, productivity and decomposition
- Energy flow and ecological pyramids
- Nutrient cycling and ecological succession
- Biodiversity and Conservation
- Levels and patterns of biodiversity
- Causes of biodiversity loss
- In-situ and ex-situ conservation
- Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
NEET / State Class 12 Board (e.g. ISC) Biology flashcards — 52 questions with answers
In a flowering plant, what is the function of the tapetum in the anther?
It is the innermost wall layer of the microsporangium that nourishes the developing pollen grains (microspores).
What is the typical structure of a mature male gametophyte (pollen grain) in angiosperms?
A 2-celled structure: a large vegetative (tube) cell and a smaller generative cell. The generative cell later divides to form two male gametes (3-celled stage).
Describe the most common type of mature embryo sac (female gametophyte) in angiosperms.
A 7-celled, 8-nucleate structure: one egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells, and one central cell with two polar nuclei (Polygonum type).
What is double fertilization in angiosperms?
One male gamete fuses with the egg (syngamy) to form the zygote (2n); the other fuses with the two polar nuclei (triple fusion) to form the primary endosperm cell (3n).
What is the ploidy of the endosperm in a typical angiosperm seed and why?
Triploid (3n), formed by triple fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei of the central cell.
Define apomixis.
A form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction, producing seeds without fertilization (e.g., in some grasses and Citrus).
What is the role of the filiform apparatus in the synergids?
It guides the entry of the pollen tube into the synergid, directing it toward the embryo sac.
Where does spermatogenesis occur and what hormone stimulates it?
In the seminiferous tubules of the testis; stimulated by FSH (and supported by testosterone from Leydig cells under LH).
What is the function of Sertoli cells and Leydig (interstitial) cells in the testis?
Sertoli cells nourish developing sperm (regulated by FSH); Leydig cells secrete testosterone (androgens) under the influence of LH.
Name the hormones of the menstrual cycle and the events of the LH surge.
FSH, LH, estrogen, progesterone. A rapid LH surge at mid-cycle (~day 14) induces ovulation (release of the secondary oocyte).
At what stage is the human egg released at ovulation?
As a secondary oocyte arrested in metaphase of meiosis II; it completes meiosis II only after fertilization.
What is the function of hCG in early human pregnancy?
Human chorionic gonadotropin maintains the corpus luteum so it continues secreting progesterone to sustain the endometrium; it is the basis of pregnancy tests.
What is the role of oxytocin and prolactin in reproduction?
Oxytocin causes uterine contractions during parturition and milk ejection (let-down); prolactin stimulates milk production (lactogenesis).
Where does fertilization normally occur in the human female and where does implantation occur?
Fertilization occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube (oviduct); implantation occurs in the wall of the uterus (endometrium).
What does the acrosome of a sperm contain and why is it important?
It contains hydrolytic/lytic enzymes that help the sperm penetrate the zona pellucida and enter the egg during fertilization.
What is the full form and purpose of MTP and ART?
MTP = Medical Termination of Pregnancy (induced abortion); ART = Assisted Reproductive Technology (techniques like IVF, ZIFT, GIFT to aid infertile couples).
Distinguish between IVF (ZIFT) and GIFT.
In IVF/ZIFT, fertilization occurs outside the body and the zygote/early embryo is transferred to the fallopian tube. In GIFT, an ovum (from a donor) is transferred into the fallopian tube of a woman who cannot produce ova, where fertilization occurs in vivo.
What does IUD stand for and how do copper-releasing IUDs (e.g., CuT) work as contraceptives?
Intra-Uterine Device. Copper ions released suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity, preventing fertilization.
What are STDs and name three examples mentioned in the syllabus.
Sexually Transmitted Diseases (infections transmitted through sexual contact). Examples: gonorrhoea, syphilis, AIDS (also chlamydiasis, genital herpes, hepatitis B).
State Mendel's Law of Segregation.
During gamete formation, the two alleles of a gene separate (segregate) so that each gamete carries only one allele of the pair.
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State Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment.
Alleles of different genes assort independently of one another during gamete formation (applies to genes on different chromosomes).
What are the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of a Mendelian dihybrid cross (F2)?
Phenotypic ratio 9:3:3:1; genotypic ratio 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1.
What is incomplete dominance? Give an example.
The heterozygote shows an intermediate phenotype between the two homozygotes. Example: pink flowers in Snapdragon (Antirrhinum) from red x white cross.
What is codominance? Give an example.
Both alleles express themselves fully in the heterozygote. Example: the AB blood group in humans, where both I^A and I^B are expressed.
How is sex determined in humans, and which parent determines the sex of the child?
XX = female, XY = male. The father determines sex, since he can contribute either an X or a Y sperm (males are heterogametic).
What is pleiotropy? Give an example.
A single gene influencing multiple phenotypic traits. Example: phenylketonuria, or sickle-cell gene affecting multiple characters.
What causes Down's syndrome and Klinefelter's syndrome?
Down's syndrome: trisomy of chromosome 21 (47, 21+). Klinefelter's syndrome: an extra X chromosome (47, XXY) producing a sterile male with some feminine features.
What is the genetic basis of sickle-cell anaemia?
An autosomal recessive point mutation: substitution of glutamic acid by valine at the 6th position of the beta-globin chain (GAG to GUG), caused by alleles Hb^S.
State Chargaff's rule for DNA base composition.
In double-stranded DNA, the amount of adenine equals thymine (A=T) and guanine equals cytosine (G=C); thus purines = pyrimidines.
Who proposed the double-helix model of DNA and what is its key dimensional feature?
Watson and Crick (1953). It is a right-handed double helix; one full turn is 3.4 nm long with 10 base pairs per turn, so adjacent bases are spaced 0.34 nm apart.
What experiments established DNA as the genetic material?
Griffith's transformation experiment, Avery-MacLeod-McCarty's biochemical work, and the Hershey-Chase experiment (using radioactive bacteriophages) confirmed DNA as the genetic material.
What did the Meselson-Stahl experiment prove?
That DNA replication is semiconservative (each daughter DNA has one parental and one newly synthesized strand), shown using N-15/N-14 isotopes in E. coli.
What are the salient features of the genetic code?
It is triplet, degenerate (more than one codon per amino acid), unambiguous, non-overlapping, comma-less, nearly universal, and has start (AUG) and stop (UAA, UAG, UGA) codons.
In the lac operon, what role does the repressor and the inducer (lactose) play?
The repressor protein binds the operator and blocks transcription. When lactose (the inducer) is present, it binds the repressor, inactivating it, so transcription of the structural genes (z, y, a) proceeds.
What was the goal of the Human Genome Project (HGP)?
To sequence all the base pairs in the human genome (~3.1 billion bp) and identify all genes, to understand human genetics and disease.
What is DNA fingerprinting based on, and who developed the technique?
Based on polymorphism in repetitive DNA sequences called VNTRs (variable number of tandem repeats/satellite DNA); developed by Alec Jeffreys.
State the theory of biogenesis and who disproved spontaneous generation.
Biogenesis states life arises only from pre-existing life. Louis Pasteur disproved spontaneous generation with his swan-necked flask experiments.
What did the Miller-Urey experiment demonstrate?
That simple organic molecules (amino acids) could form abiotically from a mixture of gases (CH4, NH3, H2, water vapour) sparked by electric discharge, supporting chemical evolution.
Define analogous and homologous organs with an example each.
Homologous organs: same structure/origin, different functions (e.g., forelimbs of whale, bat, human) showing divergent evolution. Analogous organs: different structure, similar function (e.g., wings of butterfly and bird) showing convergent evolution.
State the Hardy-Weinberg principle and its allele frequency equations.
In a large, randomly mating population with no evolutionary influences, allele and genotype frequencies remain constant. p + q = 1 and p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1, where p and q are allele frequencies.
What is industrial melanism (peppered moth) an example of?
Natural selection in action: after industrialization, dark-coloured (melanic) moths were favoured over light ones on soot-darkened trees, demonstrating directional selection.
Define adaptive radiation with an example.
The evolution of different species from a common ancestor adapted to different habitats/niches. Example: Darwin's finches of the Galapagos Islands.
Name the four levels of immune defense terms: innate vs acquired immunity.
Innate immunity is non-specific and present from birth (physical, physiological, cellular, cytokine barriers). Acquired (adaptive) immunity is pathogen-specific and has memory, mediated by B-lymphocytes (humoral) and T-lymphocytes (cell-mediated).
What is the difference between active and passive immunity?
Active immunity: the body produces its own antibodies after exposure to antigen/vaccine (slow, long-lasting). Passive immunity: ready-made antibodies are given from outside (e.g., colostrum, anti-tetanus serum) (fast, short-lived).
Which cells does HIV primarily attack, and what disease results?
HIV attacks helper T-lymphocytes (T-helper/CD4 cells), reducing immunity and causing AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome).
Name the causative organisms of malaria, typhoid, and pneumonia.
Malaria: Plasmodium (e.g., P. vivax, P. falciparum). Typhoid: Salmonella typhi. Pneumonia: Streptococcus pneumoniae / Haemophilus influenzae.
What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumour?
Benign tumours remain at their site and do not spread (non-cancerous). Malignant tumours are cancerous: cells proliferate uncontrollably, invade surrounding tissue, and spread to distant sites (metastasis).
Which microbes are used to produce curd, and in the production of cheese and the antibiotic penicillin?
Curd: Lactobacillus (lactic acid bacteria, LAB). Cheese ripening: e.g., Propionibacterium sharmanii (large holes) and Penicillium roqueforti (Roquefort). Penicillin: the fungus Penicillium notatum/chrysogenum.
What are biofertilizers? Name three types.
Organisms that enrich soil nutrients. Examples: Rhizobium (symbiotic N-fixer in legume roots), Azospirillum/Azotobacter (free-living N-fixers), and mycorrhiza (Glomus) plus cyanobacteria (Anabaena, Nostoc).
What are the two key enzymes/tools used in recombinant DNA technology and their roles?
Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific palindromic recognition sites (producing sticky ends); DNA ligase joins DNA fragments. Vectors (e.g., plasmids, like pBR322) carry the foreign DNA into the host.
What is the function of Bt cotton and the cry genes?
Bt cotton is genetically engineered with cry genes from Bacillus thuringiensis, producing Bt toxin (a protoxin activated in the insect's alkaline gut) that kills bollworm pests.
What is the productivity-based and trophic structure of an ecological pyramid; which pyramid is always upright?
Pyramids of number, biomass, and energy represent the trophic structure. The pyramid of energy is always upright because energy decreases at each successive trophic level (only ~10% transferred per level, the 10% law).
NEET / State Class 12 Board (e.g. ISC) Biology FAQ
What is in the NEET / State Class 12 Board (e.g. ISC) Biology syllabus?
NEET / State Class 12 Board (e.g. ISC) Biology is split into 4 chapters: Reproduction in Organisms, Genetics and Evolution, Biology in Human Welfare and Biotechnology and Ecology. Together they contain 13 topics and 39 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in NEET / State Class 12 Board (e.g. ISC) Biology?
4 chapters, containing 13 topics and 39 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Biotechnology and Ecology, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for NEET / State Class 12 Board (e.g. ISC) Biology?
Yes — a 52-card Biology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.