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National MDCAT Chemistry Syllabus

The Chemistry syllabus for National MDCAT in full: 18 chapters and 54 topics, every one listed below, plus 60 Chemistry flashcards with answers.

18Chapters
54Topics
60Flashcards

Chemistry syllabus: all 18 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Fundamental Concepts and Atomic Structure

    4 topics
    • Stoichiometry and Mole Concept
    • Atomic Theory and Subatomic Particles
    • Hydrogen Spectrum
    • Quantum Numbers and Shapes of Orbitals
  2. Gases

    3 topics
    • Gas Laws
    • Kinetic Molecular Theory
    • Ideal and Real Gases
  3. Liquids and Solids

    3 topics
    • Properties of Liquids
    • Types of Solids
    • Crystal Lattice and Differences
  4. Chemical Equilibrium

    3 topics
    • Equilibrium Constant
    • Le Chatelier's Principle
    • Applications of Equilibrium
  5. Reaction Kinetics

    3 topics
    • Rate of Reaction
    • Rate Law and Order of Reaction
    • Factors Affecting Reaction Rate
  6. Thermochemistry and Energetics

    3 topics
    • Internal Energy and Enthalpy
    • Hess's Law
    • Energetics of Chemical Reactions
  7. Electrochemistry

    3 topics
    • Oxidation-Reduction Reactions
    • Electrochemical Cells
    • Electrode Potential
  8. Chemical Bonding

    4 topics
    • Types of Bonds
    • VSEPR Theory
    • Dipole Moment
    • Hybridization
  9. s- and p-Block Elements

    3 topics
    • s-Block Elements
    • p-Block Elements
    • Periodic Trends
  10. Transition Elements

    3 topics
    • Electronic Structure
    • Properties of Transition Metals
    • Coordination Compounds
  11. Fundamental Principles of Organic Chemistry

    3 topics
    • Classification of Organic Compounds
    • Functional Groups
    • Isomerism
  12. Chemistry of Hydrocarbons

    4 topics
    • Alkanes
    • Alkenes
    • Alkynes
    • Chemistry of Benzene
  13. Alkyl Halides

    3 topics
    • Nomenclature and Preparation
    • Substitution vs Elimination Reactions
    • Reaction Mechanisms
  14. Alcohols and Phenols

    3 topics
    • Reactivity of Alcohols
    • Reactivity of Phenols
    • Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution
  15. Aldehydes and Ketones

    2 topics
    • Structure and Comparison
    • Chemistry and Reactions
  16. Carboxylic Acids

    2 topics
    • Structure and Acidity
    • Reactions and Reactivity
  17. Macromolecules

    3 topics
    • Polymers
    • Proteins and Carbohydrates
    • Biological Macromolecules
  18. Industrial Chemistry

    2 topics
    • Dyes and Their Uses
    • Industrial Processes

National MDCAT Chemistry flashcards — 60 questions with answers

  1. Define one mole and state the value of Avogadro's number.

    A mole is the amount of substance containing as many elementary entities as there are atoms in exactly 12 g of carbon-12. Avogadro's number = 6.022 x 10^23 entities per mole.

  2. What is the formula relating number of moles (n) to mass and molar mass?

    n = mass (g) / molar mass (g/mol).

  3. In Stoichiometry, what is a limiting reactant?

    The reactant that is completely consumed first in a reaction, thereby limiting the amount of product formed. The other reactant(s) are in excess.

  4. How do you calculate the volume of any ideal gas at STP given the number of moles?

    Volume = n x 22.414 L, since one mole of any ideal gas occupies 22.414 dm^3 (litres) at STP (0 C, 1 atm).

  5. What is the difference between empirical formula and molecular formula?

    The empirical formula gives the simplest whole-number ratio of atoms; the molecular formula gives the actual number of each type of atom. Molecular formula = (empirical formula) x n, where n = molar mass / empirical formula mass.

  6. State the principle of the law of conservation of mass as used in stoichiometry.

    Mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction; the total mass of reactants equals the total mass of products, which is why chemical equations are balanced.

  7. How is percentage yield calculated?

    Percentage yield = (actual yield / theoretical yield) x 100.

  8. State the postulates of Dalton's atomic theory.

    Matter is made of indivisible atoms; atoms of an element are identical in mass and properties; atoms of different elements differ; atoms combine in simple whole-number ratios to form compounds; atoms are neither created nor destroyed in reactions.

  9. Give the relative charge and relative mass of the proton, neutron, and electron.

    Proton: charge +1, mass 1 amu. Neutron: charge 0, mass 1 amu. Electron: charge -1, mass approximately 1/1836 amu (negligible).

  10. Who discovered the electron, proton, and neutron respectively?

    Electron: J.J. Thomson (cathode rays). Proton: E. Goldstein discovered canal/positive rays; Rutherford identified the proton. Neutron: James Chadwick.

  11. What do the atomic number (Z) and mass number (A) represent?

    Atomic number Z = number of protons (= number of electrons in a neutral atom). Mass number A = number of protons + number of neutrons.

  12. What are isotopes? Give an example.

    Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same atomic number but different mass numbers (different numbers of neutrons), e.g., carbon-12 and carbon-14.

  13. What was the key conclusion of Rutherford's gold foil (alpha-scattering) experiment?

    Most of the atom is empty space, and the positive charge and nearly all the mass are concentrated in a tiny dense central nucleus, around which electrons revolve.

  14. How is the wavelength of spectral lines in the hydrogen spectrum calculated?

    Using the Rydberg equation: 1/lambda = R_H (1/n1^2 - 1/n2^2), where R_H = 1.097 x 10^7 m^-1, and n2 > n1.

  15. Name the spectral series of the hydrogen atom and the region in which each appears.

    Lyman (ultraviolet, n1=1), Balmer (visible, n1=2), Paschen (infrared, n1=3), Brackett (infrared, n1=4), Pfund (infrared, n1=5).

  16. Why is the hydrogen emission spectrum a line spectrum rather than continuous?

    Because electrons occupy only certain quantized energy levels; an electron emits a photon of a definite energy (and wavelength) only when it jumps between two discrete levels, giving discrete lines.

  17. According to Bohr's model, what happens when an electron jumps from a higher to a lower energy level?

    It emits a photon whose energy equals the difference between the two levels: E = E2 - E1 = h x nu, producing an emission spectral line.

  18. What is the significance of the principal quantum number (n)?

    It indicates the main energy level/shell and the size of the orbital. n = 1, 2, 3...; larger n means higher energy and greater average distance from the nucleus.

  19. What does the azimuthal (angular momentum) quantum number (l) describe, and what values can it take?

    It describes the subshell and the shape of the orbital. For a given n, l ranges from 0 to (n-1): l=0 (s), 1 (p), 2 (d), 3 (f).

  20. What does the magnetic quantum number (m) specify, and what values can it take?

    It specifies the orientation of an orbital in space. For a given l, m ranges from -l to +l including 0, giving (2l+1) orbitals per subshell.

Show the other 40 Chemistry flashcards
  1. What are the two possible values of the spin quantum number (s) and what do they represent?

    +1/2 and -1/2, representing the two opposite directions of electron spin (clockwise and anticlockwise).

  2. Describe the shapes of s, p, and d orbitals.

    s orbitals are spherical; p orbitals are dumbbell-shaped (three orientations: px, py, pz); most d orbitals are double-dumbbell (cloverleaf) shaped (five orientations).

  3. How many electrons can be accommodated in the s, p, d, and f subshells?

    s holds 2, p holds 6, d holds 10, and f holds 14 electrons.

  4. State Boyle's law and give its mathematical form.

    At constant temperature, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. PV = constant, or P1V1 = P2V2.

  5. State Charles's law and give its mathematical form.

    At constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute (Kelvin) temperature. V/T = constant, or V1/T1 = V2/T2.

  6. State Avogadro's law.

    Equal volumes of all gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal numbers of molecules; i.e., volume is directly proportional to the number of moles (V proportional to n).

  7. Write the ideal gas equation and identify each term.

    PV = nRT, where P = pressure, V = volume, n = number of moles, R = universal gas constant (0.0821 L atm mol^-1 K^-1 or 8.314 J mol^-1 K^-1), T = absolute temperature in Kelvin.

  8. State Dalton's law of partial pressures.

    The total pressure of a mixture of non-reacting gases equals the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases: P_total = P1 + P2 + P3 + ...

  9. State Graham's law of diffusion/effusion.

    At constant temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion (or effusion) of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its density (or molar mass): rate proportional to 1/sqrt(M).

  10. List the main postulates of the kinetic molecular theory of gases.

    Gases consist of tiny particles in constant random motion; the volume of the particles is negligible compared to the container; there are no intermolecular forces; collisions are perfectly elastic; and the average kinetic energy is directly proportional to absolute temperature.

  11. According to kinetic molecular theory, how is temperature related to molecular motion?

    The absolute (Kelvin) temperature is directly proportional to the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules: KE_avg = (3/2) k T.

  12. Under what conditions does a real gas behave most ideally?

    At high temperature and low pressure, because intermolecular forces and the actual volume of molecules become negligible under these conditions.

  13. Why do real gases deviate from ideal behaviour?

    Because real gas molecules have a finite volume and exert intermolecular attractive forces, both of which are assumed to be zero/negligible in the ideal gas model. Deviations are largest at high pressure and low temperature.

  14. Write van der Waals' equation for n moles of a real gas and explain the correction terms.

    (P + an^2/V^2)(V - nb) = nRT. The term an^2/V^2 corrects for intermolecular attractions (pressure correction); nb corrects for the finite volume of molecules (volume correction).

  15. What is surface tension and why does it arise?

    Surface tension is the force per unit length acting along the surface of a liquid that minimizes its surface area. It arises because surface molecules experience a net inward pull due to unbalanced intermolecular forces.

  16. Define vapour pressure of a liquid. How does it change with temperature?

    Vapour pressure is the pressure exerted by the vapour in equilibrium with its liquid at a given temperature. It increases with increasing temperature.

  17. Define the boiling point of a liquid in terms of vapour pressure.

    The boiling point is the temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid becomes equal to the external (atmospheric) pressure.

  18. What is viscosity, and how does it generally change with temperature for liquids?

    Viscosity is the resistance of a liquid to flow, caused by internal friction between layers. For liquids, viscosity decreases as temperature increases.

  19. What is the difference between crystalline and amorphous solids?

    Crystalline solids have a regular, long-range ordered arrangement of particles, sharp melting points, and are anisotropic. Amorphous solids have a disordered (short-range) arrangement, melt over a range, and are isotropic (e.g., glass).

  20. List the four main types of crystalline solids based on the particles and bonding.

    Ionic solids (ions, electrostatic bonds), covalent/network solids (atoms, covalent bonds), molecular solids (molecules, van der Waals/H-bonds), and metallic solids (cations in a sea of electrons).

  21. Compare the melting points and electrical conductivity of ionic, covalent, molecular, and metallic solids.

    Ionic: high m.p., conduct only when molten/dissolved. Covalent network: very high m.p., usually non-conducting (except graphite). Molecular: low m.p., non-conducting. Metallic: variable m.p., conduct in solid and molten states.

  22. What is a crystal lattice and a unit cell?

    A crystal lattice is the regular, repeating three-dimensional arrangement of particles in a crystal. The unit cell is the smallest repeating unit that, when repeated in all directions, generates the entire lattice.

  23. Define isomorphism and polymorphism with respect to crystals.

    Isomorphism: different substances having the same crystalline form/shape (e.g., due to similar formulae). Polymorphism: the same substance existing in two or more distinct crystalline forms (e.g., diamond and graphite for carbon).

  24. Write the expression for the equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction aA + bB <-> cC + dD.

    Kc = ([C]^c [D]^d) / ([A]^a [B]^b), where concentrations are the equilibrium molar concentrations.

  25. What does a very large value of K and a very small value of K tell you about a reaction at equilibrium?

    A large K means products are favoured (reaction goes nearly to completion); a small K means reactants are favoured (very little product forms at equilibrium).

  26. State Le Chatelier's principle.

    If a system at equilibrium is subjected to a change in concentration, temperature, or pressure, the equilibrium shifts in the direction that tends to counteract (oppose) that change.

  27. How does increasing pressure affect a gaseous equilibrium according to Le Chatelier's principle?

    Increasing pressure (decreasing volume) shifts the equilibrium toward the side with the fewer moles of gas; if both sides have equal moles of gas, pressure has no effect on the position of equilibrium.

  28. In the Haber process (N2 + 3H2 <-> 2NH3, exothermic), what conditions favour maximum yield of ammonia, and why are compromise conditions used?

    High pressure and low temperature favour ammonia yield (fewer gas moles and exothermic). In practice moderate temperature (about 450 C), high pressure (about 200 atm), and an iron catalyst are used as a compromise to achieve a reasonable rate and yield.

  29. Define the rate of a chemical reaction.

    The rate of a reaction is the change in concentration of a reactant or product per unit time (e.g., mol dm^-3 s^-1).

  30. What is the difference between average rate and instantaneous rate of reaction?

    Average rate is the change in concentration over a measurable time interval; instantaneous rate is the rate at a particular instant, obtained from the slope of the tangent to the concentration-time curve at that point.

  31. Write the general form of a rate law and define the order of reaction.

    Rate = k[A]^m[B]^n, where k is the rate constant. The order with respect to a reactant is its exponent (m or n); the overall order is the sum (m + n). Orders are determined experimentally, not from the balanced equation.

  32. State the Arrhenius equation and explain how activation energy and temperature affect the rate constant.

    k = A e^(-Ea/RT), where A is the frequency factor and Ea is the activation energy. A higher temperature or a lower Ea gives a larger rate constant k and thus a faster reaction.

  33. List the main factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

    Nature of reactants, concentration (or pressure for gases), temperature, surface area of solids, presence of a catalyst, and (for some reactions) light/radiation.

  34. How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?

    A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, allowing more molecules to react successfully, without being consumed and without changing the position of equilibrium.

  35. Define internal energy (E or U) of a system.

    Internal energy is the total energy (kinetic + potential) of all the particles in a system. Its absolute value cannot be measured; only the change (delta E) is determined.

  36. Define enthalpy (H) and write the relationship between enthalpy change and internal energy change.

    Enthalpy H = E + PV is the heat content of a system at constant pressure. The change is delta H = delta E + P delta V; delta H equals the heat absorbed or released at constant pressure (q_p).

  37. What is the sign convention of delta H for exothermic and endothermic reactions?

    Exothermic reactions release heat and have delta H negative; endothermic reactions absorb heat and have delta H positive.

  38. State the first law of thermodynamics and its mathematical form.

    Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, only converted from one form to another. delta E = q + w, where q is heat added to the system and w is work done on the system.

  39. State Hess's law of constant heat summation.

    The total enthalpy change for a reaction is the same whether it occurs in one step or several steps, depending only on the initial and final states and not on the pathway taken.

  40. How is Hess's law used to calculate an unknown enthalpy change?

    By adding or subtracting the enthalpy changes of known reactions (manipulating equations and their delta H values, reversing signs when an equation is reversed) so they sum to the target reaction, since delta H is a state function.

National MDCAT Chemistry FAQ

What is in the National MDCAT Chemistry syllabus?

National MDCAT Chemistry is split into 18 chapters: Fundamental Concepts and Atomic Structure, Gases, Liquids and Solids, Chemical Equilibrium, Reaction Kinetics, Thermochemistry and Energetics, Electrochemistry, Chemical Bonding, s- and p-Block Elements, Transition Elements, Fundamental Principles of Organic Chemistry and Chemistry of Hydrocarbons, and 6 more. Together they contain 54 topics.

How many chapters are in National MDCAT Chemistry?

18 chapters, containing 54 topics. The largest chapter is Fundamental Concepts and Atomic Structure, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for National MDCAT Chemistry?

Yes — a 60-card Chemistry deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.