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National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort Syllabus

The Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort syllabus for National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) in full: 3 chapters, 12 topics and 9 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort flashcards with answers.

3Chapters
12Topics
9Sub-topics
52Flashcards

Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort syllabus: all 3 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Activity, Mobility, and Rest

    4 topics
    • Mobility, immobility, and positioning
      • Complications of immobility and prevention
      • Range of motion and assistive devices
    • Rest and sleep
      • Sleep hygiene and sleep disturbances
    • Assistance with activities of daily living
    • Use of mobility and adaptive equipment
  2. Nutrition and Oral Hydration

    4 topics
    • Nutritional assessment and balanced diet
      • Macronutrients, micronutrients, and food groups
      • Therapeutic and culturally appropriate diets
    • Enteral and parenteral nutrition
      • Tube feeding administration and verification
    • Hydration status and fluid intake
    • Dysphagia and aspiration precautions
  3. Elimination and Comfort Measures

    4 topics
    • Bowel elimination
      • Constipation, diarrhea, and ostomy care
    • Urinary elimination
      • Catheter care and bladder retraining
    • Nonpharmacological comfort interventions
      • Positioning, relaxation, heat, and cold therapy
    • Complementary and alternative therapies

National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort flashcards — 52 questions with answers

  1. What are the complications of immobility on the cardiovascular system?

    Orthostatic hypotension, increased cardiac workload, venous stasis leading to thrombus/DVT formation, and dependent edema.

  2. What is the recommended frequency for repositioning a bedridden patient to prevent pressure injuries?

    At least every 2 hours; every 1 hour if seated in a chair.

  3. Describe the Fowler's position and its primary clinical uses.

    Head of bed elevated 45-60 degrees (semi-Fowler's 30-45, high-Fowler's 60-90). Used to promote lung expansion, ease breathing, and reduce aspiration during/after feeding.

  4. What position is used for a patient with hypovolemic shock or to promote venous return?

    Modified Trendelenburg / supine with legs elevated (the legs are raised while the trunk stays flat); classic head-down Trendelenburg is generally avoided.

  5. What position is used to administer an enema or for rectal exams?

    Left lateral Sims' position, which follows the natural anatomy of the sigmoid colon and descending colon.

  6. What musculoskeletal complications result from prolonged immobility?

    Muscle atrophy and weakness, disuse osteoporosis (bone demineralization), contractures, and foot drop.

  7. List the stages of the normal sleep cycle.

    Non-REM stages N1 (light), N2, N3 (deep/slow-wave restorative sleep), followed by REM sleep (dreaming); one full cycle lasts about 90 minutes.

  8. During which sleep stage does the body perform most physical restoration and tissue repair?

    N3 (deep/slow-wave sleep), when growth hormone is released and tissue repair occurs.

  9. What are key nonpharmacological nursing interventions to promote sleep?

    Maintain consistent sleep schedule, reduce noise/light, limit caffeine and naps, provide comfort and quiet environment, cluster nighttime care to avoid interruptions, and encourage daytime activity.

  10. Differentiate insomnia, narcolepsy, and sleep apnea.

    Insomnia = difficulty falling/staying asleep; narcolepsy = sudden uncontrollable daytime sleep attacks; sleep apnea = repeated cessation of breathing during sleep causing fragmented rest.

  11. What does the acronym ADL stand for and give examples?

    Activities of Daily Living: bathing, dressing, grooming, toileting, feeding/eating, and transferring/ambulating.

  12. What are instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)?

    More complex self-care tasks needed for independent living: managing finances, medications, cooking, shopping, housekeeping, using transportation, and using the telephone.

  13. When assisting a partially dependent patient with dressing, which extremity is dressed first?

    The affected (weak/impaired) extremity is dressed first; when undressing, the unaffected side is removed first ('dress the worst first, undress the best first').

  14. How is a cane correctly used and sized for a patient?

    Hold the cane on the strong (unaffected) side; the cane and the weak leg move together. Elbow flexed ~15-30 degrees; cane tip ~6 inches to the side of the foot.

  15. Describe correct crutch gait safety and fit.

    Weight is borne on the hands/handgrips, NOT the axillae (to avoid brachial nerve palsy). Crutch pads sit 2-3 fingerwidths below the axilla; elbows flexed ~30 degrees.

  16. How should a walker be used to advance safely?

    Patient moves the walker forward a short distance, then steps into it; all four legs should be on the floor before bearing weight. Do not use on stairs.

  17. When ascending and descending stairs with a cane or crutches, which leg leads?

    'Up with the good, down with the bad' — the strong/unaffected leg goes up first; the weak/affected leg (with the cane/crutch) goes down first.

  18. What anthropometric measurements and labs are used in a nutritional assessment?

    Height, weight, BMI, weight history, mid-arm circumference, and skinfold thickness; labs include serum albumin, prealbumin (transthyretin), transferrin, and total lymphocyte count. Prealbumin best reflects recent status.

  19. How is Body Mass Index (BMI) calculated and what are the categories?

    BMI = weight(kg) / height(m)^2. Underweight <18.5; normal 18.5-24.9; overweight 25-29.9; obese ≥30.

  20. What are the components of MyPlate / a balanced diet?

    Half the plate fruits and vegetables, with grains (half whole) and protein making up the other half, plus a serving of dairy; emphasizes variety, portion control, and limiting added sugars/saturated fat/sodium.

Show the other 32 Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort flashcards
  1. Which serum protein is the best indicator of recent/acute nutritional status and why?

    Prealbumin, because of its short half-life (~2 days) it reflects recent changes; albumin (half-life ~21 days) reflects long-term status.

  2. What clinical signs suggest protein-energy malnutrition?

    Unintended weight loss, muscle wasting, edema, poor wound healing, thin/brittle hair, low albumin/prealbumin, and impaired immunity.

  3. Differentiate enteral from parenteral nutrition.

    Enteral = nutrition delivered into a functioning GI tract via a tube (NG, NJ, PEG/G-tube). Parenteral = nutrition delivered intravenously, bypassing the GI tract (PPN or TPN).

  4. What is the priority nursing action to verify NG/feeding tube placement before each feeding?

    Confirm placement (X-ray confirmation initially; ongoing checks via gastric aspirate pH ≤5 and external tube length marking). Also check residual volume and elevate HOB 30-45 degrees during/after feeding.

  5. What is TPN and why must it be given through a central line?

    Total Parenteral Nutrition is a hypertonic IV solution of dextrose, amino acids, lipids, electrolytes, and vitamins; its high osmolarity would damage peripheral veins, so it requires a central venous catheter.

  6. What are the major complications of TPN to monitor for?

    Hyperglycemia and rebound hypoglycemia (if abruptly stopped), infection/sepsis (line), fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and refeeding syndrome. Monitor blood glucose regularly.

  7. What is refeeding syndrome and which electrolyte shift is most dangerous?

    A potentially fatal fluid/electrolyte shift when nutrition is restarted in a malnourished patient; characterized by hypophosphatemia (also hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia). Reintroduce calories slowly.

  8. What nursing measures prevent aspiration during enteral feeding?

    Keep HOB elevated 30-45 degrees during and at least 30-60 min after feeding, verify tube placement, check gastric residual volume, and use continuous over bolus feeds in high-risk patients.

  9. What is the normal recommended daily fluid intake for an average adult?

    Approximately 2,000-3,000 mL/day (about 1,500 mL from beverages); intake should roughly balance output.

  10. List clinical signs of dehydration (fluid volume deficit).

    Thirst, dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, decreased/concentrated urine output, tachycardia, hypotension, weight loss, elevated hematocrit and BUN, and increased urine specific gravity.

  11. List clinical signs of fluid volume overload.

    Edema, weight gain, bounding pulse, distended neck veins, crackles in lungs, dyspnea, hypertension, and decreased hematocrit (dilutional).

  12. What is the most reliable indicator of fluid status changes in a patient?

    Daily weight measured at the same time, same scale, same clothing; a 1 kg (2.2 lb) change equals approximately 1 liter of fluid.

  13. Define dysphagia and name common causes.

    Difficulty swallowing; causes include stroke, neuromuscular disorders (Parkinson's, ALS, MS), esophageal obstruction/strictures, and head/neck cancers.

  14. What are the standard aspiration precautions for a patient with dysphagia?

    Sit upright 90 degrees during meals and 30-60 min after, use thickened liquids and modified diet textures, small bites, chin-tuck swallowing, no straws, ensure full alertness, and keep suction available.

  15. What are clinical signs that a patient is aspirating during eating?

    Coughing or choking with swallowing, wet/gurgly voice, drooling, pocketing of food, throat clearing, and unexplained low-grade fever or recurrent pneumonia.

  16. Why should thin liquids be thickened for many dysphagia patients?

    Thin liquids move quickly and are easily aspirated; thickening slows transit, improving swallow control and reducing aspiration risk.

  17. What is the normal frequency range for bowel elimination, and how are constipation and diarrhea defined?

    Normal ranges from 3 times/day to 3 times/week. Constipation = infrequent, hard, difficult-to-pass stools; diarrhea = frequent loose/watery stools.

  18. What nursing/dietary interventions promote normal bowel elimination and prevent constipation?

    Increase dietary fiber (25-30 g/day), adequate fluids, regular physical activity, establish a toileting routine, and respond promptly to the urge to defecate.

  19. What is a fecal impaction and how is it managed?

    A hardened mass of stool that cannot be passed; signs include continuous oozing of liquid stool (paradoxical diarrhea) around the mass. Managed with oil-retention/cleansing enema and, if needed, digital removal.

  20. Differentiate a cleansing enema from a retention enema.

    Cleansing enema stimulates peristalsis and is expelled (e.g., tap water, saline, soapsuds) to empty the bowel. Retention enema is held in (e.g., oil to soften stool, medicated) for a prolonged period.

  21. What is the normal adult urine output and what defines oliguria?

    Normal ~1,500 mL/day; minimum acceptable ~30 mL/hr. Oliguria = output <400 mL/day (or <30 mL/hr); anuria = <100 mL/day.

  22. Differentiate urinary retention from urinary incontinence.

    Retention = inability to empty the bladder, causing accumulation of urine. Incontinence = involuntary loss/leakage of urine (types include stress, urge, overflow, and functional).

  23. What are key nursing measures to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI)?

    Use sterile technique on insertion, perform daily perineal care, keep the drainage bag below bladder level, maintain a closed system, ensure unobstructed flow, and remove the catheter as early as possible.

  24. What does cloudy, foul-smelling urine with dysuria and frequency typically indicate?

    A urinary tract infection (UTI); other findings may include hematuria, urgency, and suprapubic discomfort.

  25. Name nonpharmacological interventions for pain relief.

    Cutaneous stimulation (massage, heat/cold), repositioning, distraction, guided imagery, relaxation/deep breathing, music therapy, TENS, and biofeedback.

  26. When is cold therapy versus heat therapy indicated?

    Cold (vasoconstriction) for acute injury/swelling, inflammation, and to reduce bleeding and numb pain in the first 24-48 hours. Heat (vasodilation) for chronic pain, muscle stiffness/spasm, and to promote circulation and healing.

  27. What is the Gate Control Theory of pain and how does it support nonpharmacological methods?

    It proposes that non-painful stimuli (e.g., rubbing, massage, TENS) close the 'gate' in the spinal cord, blocking pain signals from reaching the brain — explaining why cutaneous stimulation relieves pain.

  28. What nonpharmacological comfort measures help with anxiety and promote relaxation?

    Deep/diaphragmatic breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, guided imagery, meditation/mindfulness, music therapy, and creating a calm environment.

  29. What is the difference between complementary and alternative therapies?

    Complementary therapies are used alongside conventional medicine; alternative therapies are used in place of conventional medicine. Combined use is called integrative medicine.

  30. Give examples of mind-body and biologically-based complementary therapies.

    Mind-body: meditation, yoga, tai chi, biofeedback, guided imagery, hypnosis. Biologically-based: herbal supplements, aromatherapy, dietary/nutritional therapies.

  31. Why must nurses assess herbal/supplement use, and name a key safety concern?

    Herbs can interact with prescribed drugs (e.g., St. John's wort reduces effectiveness of many drugs; ginkgo, garlic, ginger, and vitamin E increase bleeding risk). Always document use and check for interactions before procedures/surgery.

  32. What are acupuncture and acupressure, and what comfort outcome are they used for?

    Acupuncture inserts thin needles, and acupressure applies finger pressure, at specific body points to balance energy flow; both are used as complementary therapies for pain, nausea, and stress relief.

National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort FAQ

What is in the National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort syllabus?

National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort is split into 3 chapters: Activity, Mobility, and Rest, Nutrition and Oral Hydration and Elimination and Comfort Measures. Together they contain 12 topics and 9 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort?

3 chapters, containing 12 topics and 9 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Activity, Mobility, and Rest, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort?

Yes — a 52-card Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.