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National Board Dental Examination / Integrated National Board Dental Examination (INBDE) Foundational Biomedical Sciences Syllabus

The Foundational Biomedical Sciences syllabus for National Board Dental Examination / Integrated National Board Dental Examination (INBDE) in full: 4 chapters, 19 topics and 27 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Foundational Biomedical Sciences flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
19Topics
27Sub-topics
50Flashcards

Foundational Biomedical Sciences syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Molecular, Biochemical, Cellular, and Systems Principles

    4 topics
    • Cell structure, organelles, and membrane transport
      • Plasma membrane composition and signaling receptors
      • Active versus passive transport mechanisms
      • Cell cycle regulation and apoptosis
    • Macromolecule biochemistry and enzyme kinetics
      • Carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism
      • Enzyme inhibition and cofactor function
      • Vitamins, minerals, and metabolic deficiencies
    • Genetics and molecular biology of disease
      • DNA replication, transcription, and translation
      • Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance patterns
      • Genetic syndromes with orofacial manifestations
    • Energy metabolism and homeostasis
      • Glycolysis, citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation
      • Acid-base balance and fluid-electrolyte regulation
  2. Anatomy of the Head, Neck, and Oral Structures

    5 topics
    • Osteology of the skull and facial skeleton
      • Maxilla, mandible, and temporomandibular joint
      • Foramina and their transmitted structures
    • Muscles of mastication and facial expression
      • Innervation and actions of masticatory muscles
      • Suprahyoid and infrahyoid muscle function
    • Cranial nerve pathways and clinical correlates
      • Trigeminal nerve branches and dental anesthesia targets
      • Facial nerve course and motor distribution
    • Vascular and lymphatic supply of the head and neck
      • External carotid branches relevant to dentistry
      • Cervical lymph node groups and drainage patterns
    • Fascial spaces and routes of odontogenic infection spread
  3. General and Oral Histology and Embryology

    5 topics
    • Embryologic development of the face and palate
      • Branchial arch derivatives
      • Cleft lip and palate developmental basis
    • Tooth development and odontogenesis stages
      • Bud, cap, bell, and apposition stages
      • Amelogenesis and dentinogenesis
    • Histology of enamel, dentin, pulp, and cementum
    • Periodontal ligament and alveolar bone histology
    • Oral mucosa types and salivary gland histology
  4. Physiology and Microbiology

    5 topics
    • Neuromuscular and cardiovascular physiology
      • Action potentials and synaptic transmission
      • Cardiac cycle and blood pressure regulation
    • Respiratory, renal, and endocrine physiology
    • Oral microbiome and biofilm ecology
      • Dental plaque formation and maturation
      • Cariogenic and periodontopathic species
    • Bacteriology, virology, and mycology of clinical relevance
    • Sterilization, disinfection, and infection control principles

National Board Dental Examination / Integrated National Board Dental Examination (INBDE) Foundational Biomedical Sciences flashcards — 50 questions with answers

  1. Which organelle is the primary site of ATP production via oxidative phosphorylation, and what unique feature does it contain?

    The mitochondrion; it contains its own circular DNA and a folded inner membrane (cristae) housing the electron transport chain and ATP synthase.

  2. Distinguish the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) from the smooth ER (SER) by function.

    RER is studded with ribosomes and synthesizes/folds secretory and membrane proteins; SER lacks ribosomes and handles lipid/steroid synthesis, detoxification, and calcium storage.

  3. Define primary versus secondary active transport across the cell membrane.

    Primary active transport uses ATP directly (e.g., Na+/K+-ATPase); secondary active transport (symport/antiport) uses the electrochemical gradient created by primary transport to move another solute (e.g., Na+/glucose cotransporter).

  4. What does the Na+/K+-ATPase pump move per ATP hydrolyzed, and in which directions?

    It pumps 3 Na+ out of the cell and 2 K+ into the cell per ATP, maintaining the resting membrane potential and cell volume.

  5. Name the four major classes of biological macromolecules and their building blocks.

    Carbohydrates (monosaccharides), proteins (amino acids), lipids (fatty acids + glycerol), and nucleic acids (nucleotides).

  6. State the Michaelis-Menten equation and define Km.

    v = (Vmax·[S]) / (Km + [S]). Km is the substrate concentration at which reaction velocity is half of Vmax; it is inversely related to enzyme affinity for substrate.

  7. How do competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors differ in their effect on Km and Vmax?

    Competitive inhibitors increase apparent Km with unchanged Vmax (reversible by more substrate); noncompetitive inhibitors decrease Vmax with unchanged Km.

  8. What is the difference between a missense, nonsense, and frameshift mutation?

    Missense changes one amino acid; nonsense creates a premature stop codon; frameshift results from insertion/deletion not in multiples of three, altering the reading frame downstream.

  9. Describe the inheritance pattern and dental relevance of amelogenesis imperfecta.

    A genetic disorder (autosomal dominant, recessive, or X-linked) of enamel formation causing thin, pitted, or hypomineralized enamel due to defective amelogenin/enamelin genes.

  10. What are the three stages of transcription in eukaryotic gene expression?

    Initiation (RNA polymerase II binds promoter with transcription factors), elongation (RNA synthesis 5' to 3'), and termination, followed by mRNA processing (cap, poly-A tail, splicing).

  11. Compare glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation by location and ATP yield.

    Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm, is anaerobic, and yields a net 2 ATP per glucose; oxidative phosphorylation occurs on the inner mitochondrial membrane and yields ~26-28 ATP.

  12. What is the net ATP yield from complete aerobic oxidation of one glucose molecule?

    Approximately 30-32 ATP total (2 from glycolysis, 2 from the citric acid cycle, and ~26-28 from oxidative phosphorylation).

  13. Which hormones regulate blood glucose homeostasis and what are their opposing actions?

    Insulin lowers blood glucose by promoting cellular uptake and glycogenesis; glucagon raises it via glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver.

  14. Which bones form the hard palate, and what suture joins them?

    The palatine processes of the maxillae (anterior) and horizontal plates of the palatine bones (posterior); they meet at the median palatine suture, with the transverse palatine suture between maxilla and palatine.

  15. Through which foramina do the contents of the pterygopalatine region and posterior maxilla pass for the greater and lesser palatine nerves?

    The greater palatine nerve exits the greater palatine foramen (hard palate); the lesser palatine nerve exits the lesser palatine foramen (soft palate).

  16. Name the four muscles of mastication and the single one that opens (depresses) the jaw.

    Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, and lateral pterygoid. The lateral pterygoid depresses/protrudes the mandible; the others elevate it.

  17. Which cranial nerve innervates all four muscles of mastication?

    The mandibular division (V3) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V).

  18. Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression, and what is a classic lesion presentation?

    The facial nerve (CN VII); a lower motor neuron lesion (Bell's palsy) causes ipsilateral paralysis of the whole face, including the forehead.

  19. List the three divisions of the trigeminal nerve and the foramina through which they exit the skull.

    Ophthalmic (V1) - superior orbital fissure; Maxillary (V2) - foramen rotundum; Mandibular (V3) - foramen ovale.

  20. Which cranial nerves carry parasympathetic fibers, and what is the mnemonic?

    CN III, VII, IX, and X (mnemonic '1973' or 'all the odd ones plus VII'). They supply pupil/ciliary, lacrimal/salivary glands, parotid, and thoracoabdominal viscera respectively.

Show the other 30 Foundational Biomedical Sciences flashcards
  1. Which cranial nerve provides taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and via which branch?

    The facial nerve (CN VII) via the chorda tympani branch; general sensation to that area is via the lingual nerve (CN V3).

  2. What is the blood supply to the maxillary and mandibular teeth?

    Maxillary teeth: posterior, middle, and anterior superior alveolar arteries (branches of the maxillary artery); mandibular teeth: inferior alveolar artery (branch of the maxillary artery).

  3. From which artery does the maxillary artery arise, and why is it clinically important in dentistry?

    It arises from the external carotid artery; it supplies the deep face, teeth, and nasal cavity, and its branches (e.g., inferior alveolar, posterior superior alveolar) are relevant during anesthesia and surgery.

  4. Which lymph nodes drain most of the oral cavity, and where does drainage ultimately converge?

    Submental, submandibular, and deep cervical (jugulodigastric) nodes drain the oral cavity; all eventually drain into the deep cervical chain along the internal jugular vein and then the jugular lymphatic trunk.

  5. Why is the danger triangle of the face clinically significant for infection spread?

    Veins of the face (from corner of mouth to nose bridge) communicate with the cavernous sinus via the ophthalmic veins without valves, so infection can spread intracranially causing cavernous sinus thrombosis.

  6. A maxillary canine infection that perforates above the muscle attachment can spread to which space, causing periorbital swelling?

    The canine space (infraorbital), which can lead to swelling near the eye and potentially cavernous sinus thrombosis if it tracks via the angular vein.

  7. Which fascial space is involved when a mandibular molar infection perforates lingual to the mylohyoid line, and what is the airway risk?

    The submandibular space (below mylohyoid); bilateral involvement of submandibular, sublingual, and submental spaces is Ludwig's angina, a life-threatening airway emergency.

  8. Determine whether a mandibular molar abscess drains to the sublingual or submandibular space based on apex position relative to the mylohyoid line.

    Apices above (superior to) the mylohyoid line drain to the sublingual space; apices below it (e.g., second and third molars) drain to the submandibular space.

  9. From which embryologic structures do the primary and secondary palate develop?

    The primary palate forms from the median palatine process (intermaxillary segment) of the medial nasal prominences; the secondary palate forms from the lateral palatine shelves of the maxillary prominences that fuse in the midline.

  10. What is the embryologic basis of a cleft lip versus a cleft palate?

    Cleft lip results from failure of fusion of the maxillary prominence with the medial nasal prominence; cleft palate results from failure of fusion of the palatine shelves with each other or with the primary palate/nasal septum.

  11. Name the stages of tooth development in order.

    Bud stage, cap stage, bell stage, then apposition and maturation (crown formation), followed by root formation and eruption.

  12. What is reciprocal induction in odontogenesis, and which two tissues are involved?

    The mutual signaling between oral ectoderm-derived dental epithelium (enamel organ) and neural crest-derived ectomesenchyme (dental papilla), which directs differentiation of ameloblasts and odontoblasts.

  13. Which cells form enamel and which form dentin, and from which embryonic origin does each arise?

    Ameloblasts (ectoderm/enamel organ) form enamel; odontoblasts (neural crest ectomesenchyme/dental papilla) form dentin.

  14. Compare the mineral content of enamel, dentin, and cementum by weight.

    Enamel is ~96% mineral (hardest), dentin ~70% mineral, and cementum ~45-50% mineral; the rest is organic matrix and water.

  15. What are the two main types of dentin produced over time, and what are dentinal tubules?

    Primary dentin forms before root completion and secondary dentin forms slowly afterward; dentinal tubules are channels housing odontoblast processes that transmit stimuli, accounting for dentin sensitivity.

  16. What are the four zones of the dental pulp from periphery to center?

    Odontoblastic layer, cell-free zone (of Weil), cell-rich zone, and the central pulp core containing vessels and nerves.

  17. Differentiate acellular (primary) from cellular (secondary) cementum.

    Acellular cementum covers the cervical root, forms slowly, and anchors Sharpey's fibers; cellular cementum covers the apical root, forms faster, contains cementocytes, and adapts to functional demands.

  18. Describe the principal fiber groups of the periodontal ligament and their function.

    Alveolar crest, horizontal, oblique (most numerous, resist axial forces), apical, and interradicular fibers; collectively they suspend the tooth and convert occlusal forces into tension on alveolar bone.

  19. What are Sharpey's fibers in the context of the periodontium?

    The terminal ends of periodontal ligament collagen fibers embedded into both the cementum and the alveolar bone, anchoring the tooth in its socket.

  20. Differentiate the three types of oral mucosa by location and keratinization.

    Masticatory mucosa (gingiva, hard palate) is keratinized; lining mucosa (cheeks, floor of mouth, soft palate) is non-keratinized; specialized mucosa (dorsum of tongue) bears taste papillae.

  21. Compare the three major salivary glands by secretion type.

    Parotid is purely serous, submandibular is mixed (predominantly serous), and sublingual is mixed (predominantly mucous).

  22. Describe the phases of the cardiac action potential in ventricular myocytes.

    Phase 0 rapid depolarization (Na+ influx), phase 1 early repolarization, phase 2 plateau (Ca2+ influx balancing K+ efflux), phase 3 repolarization (K+ efflux), phase 4 resting potential.

  23. What events occur at the neuromuscular junction to trigger muscle contraction?

    Acetylcholine released from the motor neuron binds nicotinic receptors on the motor end plate, depolarizing it; this triggers an action potential, Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and actin-myosin cross-bridge cycling.

  24. State the equation relating cardiac output, heart rate, and stroke volume.

    Cardiac output (CO) = heart rate (HR) × stroke volume (SV).

  25. Define tidal volume, residual volume, and vital capacity.

    Tidal volume is air moved in a normal breath; residual volume is air remaining after maximal expiration; vital capacity is the maximum air exhaled after maximal inhalation (TV + IRV + ERV).

  26. How do the kidneys regulate blood pressure via the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?

    Low perfusion triggers renin release, converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I; ACE converts it to angiotensin II (vasoconstriction), which stimulates aldosterone to increase Na+/water reabsorption, raising blood pressure.

  27. Which bacteria are most associated with dental caries and periodontal disease respectively?

    Caries: Streptococcus mutans (and Lactobacillus) which produce acid from sugars; chronic periodontitis: Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia, and Treponema denticola (the 'red complex').

  28. Describe the four stages of dental biofilm (plaque) formation.

    1) Acquired pellicle formation (salivary glycoproteins), 2) initial reversible bacterial adhesion (early colonizers like streptococci), 3) coaggregation/maturation, 4) formation of a structured mature biofilm with a matrix.

  29. Distinguish the virology of HSV-1 from the fungal organism causing oral candidiasis.

    HSV-1 is a DNA herpesvirus causing recurrent herpes labialis/gingivostomatitis that remains latent in the trigeminal ganglion; Candida albicans is a fungus (yeast) causing pseudomembranous candidiasis (thrush), an opportunistic infection.

  30. Differentiate sterilization, disinfection, and antisepsis, and name the most common dental sterilization method.

    Sterilization kills all microbes including spores (e.g., steam autoclave at 121°C/15 psi); disinfection kills most pathogens on inanimate surfaces but not all spores; antisepsis reduces microbes on living tissue. The autoclave is the standard dental sterilizer.

National Board Dental Examination / Integrated National Board Dental Examination (INBDE) Foundational Biomedical Sciences FAQ

What is in the National Board Dental Examination / Integrated National Board Dental Examination (INBDE) Foundational Biomedical Sciences syllabus?

National Board Dental Examination / Integrated National Board Dental Examination (INBDE) Foundational Biomedical Sciences is split into 4 chapters: Molecular, Biochemical, Cellular, and Systems Principles, Anatomy of the Head, Neck, and Oral Structures, General and Oral Histology and Embryology and Physiology and Microbiology. Together they contain 19 topics and 27 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in National Board Dental Examination / Integrated National Board Dental Examination (INBDE) Foundational Biomedical Sciences?

4 chapters, containing 19 topics and 27 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Anatomy of the Head, Neck, and Oral Structures, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for National Board Dental Examination / Integrated National Board Dental Examination (INBDE) Foundational Biomedical Sciences?

Yes — a 50-card Foundational Biomedical Sciences deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.