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Membership of the Joint Dental Faculties (MJDF) Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics Syllabus
The Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics syllabus for Membership of the Joint Dental Faculties (MJDF) in full: 4 chapters, 16 topics and 4 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics flashcards with answers.
Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Child Patient Management
4 topics- Behaviour management and acclimatisation
- Age-appropriate communication and consent
- Dental anxiety and use of sedation in children
- Safeguarding and recognition of dental neglect and abuse
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Management of Caries in Children
4 topics- Caries risk assessment and prevention in children
- Delivering Better Oral Health toolkit guidance
- Fluoride varnish and fissure sealants
- Restoration of primary teeth and Hall technique
- Pulp therapy in primary teeth
- Management of the unrestorable primary tooth
- Caries risk assessment and prevention in children
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Developmental and Eruption Disorders
4 topics- Tooth eruption sequence and disturbances
- Molar incisor hypomineralisation and enamel defects
- Hypodontia and supernumerary teeth
- Management of the first permanent molar of poor prognosis
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Orthodontic Assessment and Interceptive Care
4 topics- Malocclusion classification
- Incisor and molar relationships
- IOTN and treatment need
- Recognition and timing of orthodontic referral
- Interceptive measures including space maintenance
- Management of ectopic and impacted teeth
- Malocclusion classification
Membership of the Joint Dental Faculties (MJDF) Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics flashcards โ 50 questions with answers
What is the recommended order of behaviour management techniques when introducing a child to dental treatment?
Use a graded, non-pharmacological approach first: tell-show-do, acclimatisation/desensitisation, positive reinforcement, modelling, distraction and voice control. Pharmacological methods (sedation, GA) are reserved for when these fail or are inappropriate.
Describe the tell-show-do technique.
Tell: explain the procedure in age-appropriate language. Show: demonstrate the procedure (e.g. on a finger, model or the child's nail). Do: carry out the procedure exactly as demonstrated. It reduces uncertainty and builds trust/acclimatisation.
What is the purpose of acclimatisation (systematic desensitisation) visits in paediatric dentistry?
To gradually expose an anxious child to the dental environment and stimuli in small, non-threatening steps, allowing them to build coping skills and trust so that treatment can later be carried out without distress.
At what age is a child in the UK generally presumed competent to consent to their own dental treatment, and on what basis?
At 16 a young person is presumed to have capacity to consent (Family Law Reform Act 1969). Under 16, a child may consent if assessed as Gillick competent โ able to understand, retain and weigh the relevant information.
Who can give valid consent for dental treatment of a young child in the UK?
A person with parental responsibility (or the Gillick-competent child themselves). Consent must be informed, given voluntarily, and the person must have capacity.
What is meant by age-appropriate communication when consenting a child?
Tailoring language, explanation and choices to the child's developmental stage โ using simple concrete terms for young children, involving them in decisions, and ensuring both child and parent understand the procedure, risks, benefits and alternatives.
Which forms of conscious sedation are most commonly used for children in UK dental practice?
Inhalation sedation with nitrous oxide/oxygen ($\ce{N2O/O2}$, relative analgesia) is first-line. Intravenous and oral sedation (e.g. midazolam) are used in specialist settings; multi-drug techniques require a hospital environment.
What is the definition of conscious sedation?
A technique producing a depressed level of consciousness that enables treatment, while verbal contact with the patient is maintained throughout. The drugs/techniques used must carry a margin of safety wide enough to make loss of consciousness unlikely.
What are the main advantages of inhalation (nitrous oxide) sedation in children?
Rapid onset and recovery, easily titratable, provides analgesia and anxiolysis, no injection needed, and maintains protective reflexes and verbal contact. It is the safest sedation technique for children.
List key alerting signs that should raise suspicion of dental neglect.
Obvious untreated dental disease causing pain/sepsis, failure to attend or complete treatment, repeated DNAs, parent ignoring advice, and dental disease out of keeping with the level of care provided โ particularly when it affects the child's wellbeing.
What does the dental safeguarding mnemonic 'preventive dental team management โ preventive multi-agency management' escalation describe?
A staged response to suspected neglect: raise concern with parents and offer support/preventive care; if no improvement, liaise with other professionals (multi-agency); and if the child remains at risk, refer to children's social care following local safeguarding procedures.
Which orofacial injuries in a child are particularly suspicious of physical abuse?
Injuries to the head, face, ears and neck; torn labial frenum (especially in a non-mobile infant); bruising of soft tissues; bite marks; and injuries whose pattern or history is inconsistent or changing.
Name the high-risk caries indicators used in a child's caries risk assessment.
Past caries experience, high/frequent sugar intake, poor oral hygiene/plaque, low fluoride exposure, medical conditions, special needs, low socioeconomic status, and infrequent dental attendance.
What fluoride toothpaste concentration does Delivering Better Oral Health recommend for children up to 3 years and for high-risk children?
All children up to 3 years: at least 1000 ppm fluoride, smear amount. Children 3โ6: 1000+ ppm, pea-sized. Children giving concern/high caries risk: prescribe higher-concentration paste (e.g. 1350โ1500 ppm, or 2800 ppm from age 10).
How often should fluoride varnish ($\ce{NaF}$ 22600 ppm, 5%) be applied to children, and from what age?
Apply at least twice yearly from age 2 (2 to 3 times a year). High-risk children may receive applications up to 4 times per year.
What is the Hall technique?
A biological (non-restorative) method of managing carious primary molars by cementing a preformed metal crown over the tooth with glass ionomer cement, sealing the caries in without local anaesthetic, caries removal or tooth preparation.
On what principle does the Hall technique work?
Sealing carious dentine from the oral biofilm arrests lesion progression by depriving cariogenic bacteria of substrate, so the caries becomes inactive even though it is not removed.
What are the contraindications to the Hall technique?
Signs of irreversible pulpitis or dental sepsis (abscess, sinus, non-physiological mobility), clinical/radiographic pulpal involvement, and inability to achieve a seated crown. Also caution where there is risk of nickel allergy or where occlusal space is inadequate.
What materials are preferred for restoring primary teeth, and why?
Preformed (stainless steel) crowns for multi-surface/extensive caries (most durable); glass ionomer/resin-modified GIC and compomers for fluoride release and ease of placement; composite for anterior aesthetics. SSCs have the highest success rate for multi-surface lesions.
Compare pulpotomy and pulpectomy in primary teeth.
Pulpotomy: removal of the coronal pulp only, leaving vital radicular pulp, used for reversible/coronal pulpitis. Pulpectomy: removal of the entire (coronal and radicular) pulp and canal filling with a resorbable material, used for irreversible pulpitis or necrosis.
Show the other 30 Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics flashcards
Which medicament is now most commonly recommended for primary molar pulpotomy, and what historically used agent has been abandoned?
Ferric sulfate or MTA/Biodentine are recommended for vital pulpotomy. Formocresol is being phased out due to concerns over formaldehyde toxicity/carcinogenicity.
What canal-filling material is used in primary tooth pulpectomy and why must it be resorbable?
A resorbable paste such as zinc oxide eugenol, iodoform-based (e.g. Vitapex/Metapex, $\ce{Ca(OH)2}$+iodoform) is used so it resorbs in step with the physiological root resorption, avoiding interference with the succedaneous permanent tooth.
What are the management options for an unrestorable primary tooth?
Extraction (under LA, sedation or GA as appropriate), with consideration of balancing/compensating extractions and space maintenance. The decision weighs the child's cooperation, symptoms, and the position relating to the developing permanent dentition.
Define balancing and compensating extractions.
Balancing extraction: removal of the contralateral tooth in the same arch to prevent a centreline shift. Compensating extraction: removal of the equivalent opposing-arch tooth to prevent over-eruption. Used mainly with primary canines/first molars to maintain symmetry.
State the eruption sequence of the primary dentition.
A (central incisor) ~6 months, B (lateral incisor) ~7โ9 months, D (first molar) ~12โ18 months, C (canine) ~16โ22 months, E (second molar) ~24โ33 months. All 20 primary teeth are usually present by ~3 years.
State the typical eruption ages of the first permanent teeth.
First permanent molars and lower central incisors erupt at ~6 years; the dentition continues with incisors (7โ8), premolars and canines (~10โ12), second molars (~12), and third molars (~18โ24).
What is the usual eruption sequence of the permanent teeth in the lower arch?
6 (first molar), 1 (central incisor), 2 (lateral incisor), 3 (canine), 4 (first premolar), 5 (second premolar), 7 (second molar), 8 (third molar) โ i.e. 6-1-2-3-4-5-7-8.
Define natal and neonatal teeth.
Natal teeth are present at birth; neonatal teeth erupt within the first 30 days of life. They are most often prematurely erupted primary lower incisors and may be removed if very mobile (aspiration risk) or causing feeding trauma (Riga-Fede).
What is meant by an ectopic eruption, and which permanent teeth are most commonly affected?
Eruption of a tooth in an abnormal position/path. Most commonly the maxillary canine (palatal impaction), maxillary first permanent molar (impacting against the E), and mandibular second premolars/incisors.
What is molar incisor hypomineralisation (MIH)?
A qualitative, systemically-derived enamel defect affecting one or more first permanent molars (often with incisors), presenting as demarcated opacities (white/cream to yellow/brown) of normal thickness enamel that may undergo post-eruptive breakdown.
How does MIH differ from fluorosis and from enamel hypoplasia?
MIH: demarcated, asymmetric opacities on FPMs/incisors (qualitative defect, normal thickness). Fluorosis: diffuse, symmetrical opacities related to excess fluoride. Hypoplasia: a quantitative defect โ reduced enamel thickness/pitting/grooves with sharp margins.
Why are MIH-affected molars often difficult to manage clinically?
The porous hypomineralised enamel is prone to rapid post-eruptive breakdown and caries, causes hypersensitivity, and gives poor anaesthesia and poor bonding โ leading to repeated restoration failure and pain.
Define hypodontia, oligodontia and anodontia.
Hypodontia: developmental absence of one or more teeth (excluding third molars). Oligodontia: absence of six or more teeth (excluding third molars). Anodontia: complete absence of all teeth.
Which teeth are most commonly congenitally absent in hypodontia (excluding third molars)?
Mandibular second premolars and maxillary lateral incisors are the most commonly missing, followed by maxillary second premolars. Third molars are the most commonly absent teeth overall.
What is a supernumerary tooth and what are the main types?
A tooth additional to the normal complement. Types: conical (peg-shaped, e.g. mesiodens), tuberculate (barrel-shaped, often paired, commonly impede incisor eruption), supplemental (normal morphology, e.g. extra lateral incisor), and odontome.
What is a mesiodens and why is it clinically important?
A mesiodens is a conical supernumerary tooth in the maxillary midline. It can cause failure of eruption, displacement or rotation of permanent central incisors, midline diastema, or cyst formation, so often warrants removal.
What factors determine the prognosis and management decision for a first permanent molar (FPM) of poor prognosis?
Degree of destruction/restorability, presence of symptoms/pulpal involvement, the child's age and dental development (ideally bifurcation of the lower 7 calcifying), presence of the third molar, the existing occlusion and crowding, and orthodontic plans.
What is the ideal dental age for elective extraction of a lower first permanent molar to allow good space closure by the second molar?
Around 8โ10 years, when there is radiographic evidence of calcification of the bifurcation of the developing lower second molar (and ideally the presence of the developing third molar).
What is the rationale for compensating extraction of an upper FPM when a lower FPM is extracted?
To prevent over-eruption of the unopposed upper first molar; the upper FPM is more forgiving of timing, but balancing extraction of a sound FPM is generally not routinely indicated.
State Angle's classification of malocclusion based on first permanent molars.
Class I: the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper first molar occludes in the buccal groove of the lower first molar. Class II: lower molar distal to this (upper buccal groove relationship anterior). Class III: lower molar mesial to the Class I position.
Describe the British Standards Institute incisor classification of malocclusion.
Class I: lower incisor edges occlude with/below the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors. Class II div 1: lower incisors posterior, upper incisors proclined, increased overjet. Class II div 2: upper incisors retroclined, minimal/normal overjet. Class III: lower incisor edges anterior to the cingulum, reduced/reversed overjet.
Define overjet and overbite.
Overjet: the horizontal distance between the upper and lower incisor edges (normal ~2โ4 mm). Overbite: the vertical overlap of the lower incisors by the upper incisors (normal ~ one-third to half the lower incisor crown).
What does the IOTN (Index of Orthodontic Treatment Need) measure, and at what grade is treatment usually warranted?
IOTN has a Dental Health Component (grades 1โ5) and an Aesthetic Component (1โ10). NHS treatment is generally indicated for DHC grade 4โ5, or grade 3 with an aesthetic component of 6 or more.
What anterior finding in a child warrants prompt orthodontic/surgical assessment for possible supernumerary or impaction?
Failure of a permanent incisor to erupt 6 months after its antimere (contralateral tooth), or asymmetry of eruption โ warranting radiographs to exclude a supernumerary, ectopic tooth or pathology.
At what age should the position of the maxillary permanent canine be assessed by palpation, and why?
By age 9โ10 years the buccal canine bulge should be palpable. Non-palpable canines at 10โ11 warrant radiographic assessment because early detection of palatal ectopia allows interceptive extraction of the primary canine.
What is the interceptive measure for a palatally ectopic maxillary canine, and how successful is it?
Extraction of the primary (deciduous) canine at age ~10โ13 years can normalise the path of eruption of the permanent canine. It is most successful when the canine is not severely displaced (e.g. its crown is distal to the lateral incisor's long axis).
What is the purpose of a space maintainer, and name common types.
To preserve arch length/space for the erupting permanent successor after premature loss of a primary tooth. Types: band-and-loop, lingual/transpalatal arch, Nance palatal arch, and removable appliances with prosthetic teeth.
What is serial extraction and when is it used?
A planned sequence of extractions (primary canines, then first primary molars, then first premolars) in cases of severe crowding with a Class I relationship, used to guide the permanent incisors and canines into better alignment and relieve crowding.
How is an ectopically erupting first permanent molar impacted against the second primary molar managed?
Mild cases may self-correct (reversible) โ monitor. If it persists, interceptive measures include placing a separating elastomeric or brass wire, a distalising appliance, or disking/extraction of the E to allow the FPM to erupt.
What is the significance of a torn maxillary labial frenum in an infant during safeguarding assessment?
In a non-ambulant (pre-walking) infant, a torn upper labial frenum is highly suspicious of inflicted trauma (e.g. forced feeding) and should prompt urgent safeguarding referral, as it is unlikely to occur accidentally in a baby who cannot move independently.
Membership of the Joint Dental Faculties (MJDF) Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics FAQ
What is in the Membership of the Joint Dental Faculties (MJDF) Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics syllabus?
Membership of the Joint Dental Faculties (MJDF) Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics is split into 4 chapters: Child Patient Management, Management of Caries in Children, Developmental and Eruption Disorders and Orthodontic Assessment and Interceptive Care. Together they contain 16 topics and 4 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Membership of the Joint Dental Faculties (MJDF) Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics?
4 chapters, containing 16 topics and 4 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Child Patient Management, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Membership of the Joint Dental Faculties (MJDF) Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics?
Yes โ a 50-card Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.