🇬🇧 Legal Practice Course (LPC) · subject

Legal Practice Course (LPC) Professional Conduct and Regulation Syllabus

The Professional Conduct and Regulation syllabus for Legal Practice Course (LPC) in full: 4 chapters, 16 topics and 6 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Professional Conduct and Regulation flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
16Topics
6Sub-topics
51Flashcards

Professional Conduct and Regulation syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. The Regulatory Framework

    4 topics
    • The SRA, the Law Society and the regulatory architecture
    • The SRA Principles and Codes of Conduct
    • Outcomes-focused regulation and professional judgement
    • Authorisation, practising certificates and reserved activities
  2. Core Professional Duties

    4 topics
    • Conflicts of interest
      • Client conflict and own-interest conflict
      • Limited exceptions to acting where conflict exists
    • Confidentiality and disclosure
      • The duty of confidentiality and its limits
      • The conflicting duty of disclosure to a client
    • Duties to the court and to third parties
    • Acting with integrity and maintaining public trust
  3. Client Relationship and Service

    4 topics
    • Client care, costs information and engagement
    • Complaints handling and the Legal Ombudsman
    • Undertakings and their enforceability
    • Vulnerable clients and mental capacity considerations
  4. Compliance and Financial Crime

    4 topics
    • Anti-money laundering and the regulations
      • Customer due diligence and risk assessment
      • Suspicious activity reporting and the MLRO
    • Proceeds of Crime Act offences and tipping off
    • Bribery Act compliance and adequate procedures
    • Equality, diversity and the duty not to discriminate

Legal Practice Course (LPC) Professional Conduct and Regulation flashcards — 51 questions with answers

  1. Following the Legal Services Act 2007, what is the relationship between the Law Society and the SRA?

    The Law Society is the approved regulator and representative body for solicitors, but it must delegate its regulatory functions to an independent arm, the Solicitors Regulation Authority (SRA). The SRA carries out day-to-day regulation; the Law Society focuses on representing members' interests.

  2. What is the Legal Services Board (LSB) and where does it sit in the regulatory architecture?

    The LSB is the oversight regulator created by the Legal Services Act 2007. It supervises the approved regulators (such as the SRA, BSB, CILEx Regulation) and is itself accountable to Parliament, ensuring regulation serves the regulatory objectives.

  3. List the eight regulatory objectives set out in section 1 of the Legal Services Act 2007.

    (1) Protecting and promoting the public interest; (2) supporting the constitutional principle of the rule of law; (3) improving access to justice; (4) protecting and promoting the interests of consumers; (5) promoting competition in legal services; (6) encouraging an independent, strong, diverse and effective legal profession; (7) increasing public understanding of citizens' legal rights and duties; (8) promoting and maintaining adherence to the professional principles.

  4. What body handles consumer complaints about legal services, and which body sets standards for that body?

    The Legal Ombudsman handles consumer complaints. It is administered by the Office for Legal Complaints (OLC), which operates under the oversight of the Legal Services Board.

  5. How many SRA Principles are there in the current (2019) Standards and Regulations, and what do they represent?

    There are seven Principles. They are the fundamental tenets of ethical behaviour that all those regulated by the SRA must uphold, taking precedence over other rules where they conflict.

  6. State the seven SRA Principles (2019).

    Act: (1) in a way that upholds the constitutional principle of the rule of law and the proper administration of justice; (2) in a way that upholds public trust and confidence in the solicitors' profession; (3) with independence; (4) with honesty; (5) with integrity; (6) in a way that encourages equality, diversity and inclusion; (7) in the best interests of each client.

  7. When the SRA Principles conflict with one another, which takes precedence?

    The Principle that best serves the wider public interest takes precedence, particularly the public interest in the proper administration of justice. The duty to the court and the public interest can override the duty to act in the best interests of an individual client.

  8. Name the two Codes of Conduct in the SRA Standards and Regulations 2019.

    (1) The Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs (applying to individuals); and (2) the Code of Conduct for Firms (applying to authorised bodies and their managers/employees).

  9. What is 'outcomes-focused regulation' (OFR) and how does it differ from rules-based regulation?

    OFR is a principles-based, risk-focused approach that sets high-level outcomes and standards rather than prescriptive detailed rules, leaving solicitors to exercise professional judgement on how to achieve them. It contrasts with a tick-box, rules-based system by focusing on the substantive result for clients and the public.

  10. Under OFR, what is expected of a solicitor when the Codes do not give a precise rule?

    The solicitor must exercise professional judgement, applying the Principles and the spirit of the Codes to the specific circumstances, and be able to justify their decisions to the SRA if challenged.

  11. Which body grants authorisation to practise as a solicitor and issues practising certificates?

    The SRA. It authorises individuals (admitting solicitors and issuing practising certificates) and authorises bodies (firms) to provide regulated legal services.

  12. What is a practising certificate and when must a solicitor hold one?

    A practising certificate is the annual authorisation issued by the SRA permitting a person on the roll of solicitors to practise. It is required whenever a solicitor is practising as a solicitor, including carrying out reserved legal activities or holding themselves out as a solicitor.

  13. List the six 'reserved legal activities' under the Legal Services Act 2007.

    (1) The exercise of a right of audience; (2) the conduct of litigation; (3) reserved instrument activities (e.g. land conveyancing/registration); (4) probate activities; (5) notarial activities; (6) the administration of oaths.

  14. What is the consequence of carrying on a reserved legal activity without being authorised or exempt?

    It is a criminal offence under the Legal Services Act 2007, punishable by fine and/or imprisonment, in addition to potential regulatory action.

  15. Under the SRA Code, when may you NOT act where there is a conflict of interest between two current clients (an 'own-client conflict')?

    You must not act where there is an own-client conflict or a significant risk of one, unless one of two exceptions applies: (a) the clients have a substantially common interest, or (b) the clients are competing for the same objective. In both cases strict safeguards (informed written consent, safeguards, and reasonableness) must be satisfied.

  16. Define a 'conflict of interest' under the SRA Glossary.

    A situation where your separate duties to act in the best interests of two or more clients in the same or a related matter conflict (a 'client conflict'), or where your duty to act in the best interests of a client conflicts with your own interests in that matter (an 'own interest conflict').

  17. Can you ever act despite an 'own interest conflict'?

    No. There is no exception permitting a solicitor to act where there is an own interest conflict or a significant risk of one. You must decline or cease to act.

  18. What are the two exceptions allowing a solicitor to act despite a client conflict?

    (1) 'Substantially common interest' exception — the clients have a clear common purpose and strong consensus on how to achieve it; and (2) 'Competing for the same objective' exception — the clients are competing for an objective which, if attained by one, makes it unattainable to the others (e.g. bidding for the same asset). Both require informed written consent, effective safeguards, and that it is reasonable to act.

  19. State the solicitor's duty of confidentiality and how long it lasts.

    You must keep the affairs of current and former clients confidential unless disclosure is required or permitted by law or the client consents. The duty continues after the retainer ends and indeed after the client's death (passing to personal representatives).

  20. How does the duty of disclosure to a client differ from the duty of confidentiality?

    The duty of disclosure requires you to make a client aware of all information material to their matter of which you have knowledge. The duty of confidentiality protects another client's information. Confidentiality always trumps disclosure: you may not use confidential information of client A for the benefit of client B.

Show the other 31 Professional Conduct and Regulation flashcards
  1. What must a firm do when it holds confidential information of one client that is material to another client (the 'confidentiality vs disclosure' clash)?

    The firm should not act for the second client unless effective measures (information barriers/safeguards) are in place and the affected client gives informed consent, or the firm declines to act for one of the clients. Confidentiality must be protected even at the expense of the duty of disclosure.

  2. What is a solicitor's overriding duty when acting as an advocate or conducting litigation?

    The duty to the court and the proper administration of justice overrides the duty to the client. A solicitor must not knowingly or recklessly mislead the court, must not waste the court's time, and must draw the court's attention to relevant adverse case law/procedural irregularities.

  3. If a client admits guilt to their solicitor but wishes to plead not guilty, what may the solicitor do?

    The solicitor may continue to act and put the prosecution to proof (test the evidence), but must NOT assert a positive case inconsistent with the confession (e.g. cannot call evidence or suggest someone else did it, nor allow the client to give evidence denying guilt). To do so would mislead the court.

  4. What duties does a solicitor owe to third parties under the Code?

    You must not take unfair advantage of third parties; you must not mislead or attempt to mislead them (whether by your own acts or omissions or allowing others); and you must perform any undertakings given. You must treat them fairly and with respect.

  5. What does 'acting with integrity' require beyond mere honesty?

    Integrity is a broader, more demanding standard than honesty: it connotes adherence to the ethical standards and moral soundness of the profession, including being straightforward, fulfilling role-specific duties, and not taking unfair advantage — conduct can lack integrity without being dishonest (Wingate v SRA).

  6. What is the legal test for 'dishonesty' applied in solicitor disciplinary cases?

    The objective test from Ivey v Genting Casinos [2017]: first ascertain the individual's actual (subjective) state of knowledge or belief as to the facts; then decide whether their conduct was dishonest by the objective standards of ordinary decent people. There is no requirement that the defendant appreciated their conduct was dishonest (Ghosh's second limb is abolished).

  7. What information must a solicitor give a client about complaints at the outset (client care)?

    You must inform clients in writing at the time of engagement (or when it becomes apparent) of their right to complain, how to complain, to whom, and their right to complain to the Legal Ombudsman, the time limits, and that complaints to the SRA can be made about misconduct.

  8. What costs information must a solicitor provide to ensure clients can make informed decisions?

    You must give the best possible information about the likely overall cost of a matter, both at the outset and as the matter progresses — including the basis of charges, disbursements, VAT, and any costs the client may have to pay to a third party. Information must be updated when circumstances change.

  9. What is the standard time limit for a client to bring a complaint to the Legal Ombudsman?

    A complaint must normally be brought to the Legal Ombudsman within one year of the act/omission complained of, or within one year of when the complainant should reasonably have known there was cause for complaint. The complaint must also normally be made within six months of the firm's final response (the firm having had up to eight weeks to resolve it first).

  10. What is the maximum amount of compensation the Legal Ombudsman can currently award?

    Up to £50,000. The Ombudsman may also direct the firm to apologise, refund or reduce fees, correct errors, and take other remedial steps. (This is distinct from SRA disciplinary sanctions.)

  11. Distinguish the roles of the Legal Ombudsman and the SRA in handling complaints.

    The Legal Ombudsman deals with service complaints (poor service, delay, costs) and provides redress to the individual consumer. The SRA deals with conduct/misconduct (breaches of Principles/Codes) and imposes regulatory/disciplinary sanctions in the public interest. Serious misconduct may be referred to the Solicitors Disciplinary Tribunal (SDT).

  12. How long must a firm be given to resolve a complaint before the client goes to the Legal Ombudsman?

    Up to eight weeks. The complainant should first use the firm's internal complaints procedure; if it is unresolved after eight weeks (or the firm issues a final response sooner), the client may then refer it to the Legal Ombudsman.

  13. Define an 'undertaking' in the SRA context.

    An undertaking is a statement, given orally or in writing, whether or not using the word 'undertake' or 'undertaking', made by or on behalf of you or your firm, to someone who reasonably relies upon it, that you or a third party will do something or cause something to be done, or refrain from doing something.

  14. Why must solicitors honour undertakings, and what is the personal consequence of breach?

    Undertakings are the bedrock of commercial and conveyancing transactions because parties rely on them in lieu of other security. Breach is professional misconduct and is enforceable personally against the giver; the court has summary jurisdiction over solicitors to compel performance or order compensation.

  15. Are undertakings enforceable by the court, and how, against a solicitor versus a non-solicitor entity?

    Against a solicitor, the court can enforce an undertaking summarily through its supervisory jurisdiction over officers of the court. Following Harcus Sinclair v Your Lawyers (2021), this summary jurisdiction does NOT extend to an incorporated/ABS-type body that is not itself an officer of the court, though the SRA can still take regulatory action.

  16. What practical safeguards should a solicitor adopt when giving undertakings?

    Give undertakings only in writing where possible; ensure they are clear, specific and within your control; avoid undertaking to do something dependent on a third party; record and diarise them centrally; obtain authority; and never undertake something you cannot personally fulfil.

  17. What additional considerations arise when acting for a vulnerable client?

    You must take extra care to ensure instructions are genuinely the client's own and free from undue influence, communicate clearly and appropriately, make reasonable adjustments, consider capacity, and ensure the client understands the advice. The duty to act in the client's best interests is heightened.

  18. What is the statutory test and presumption for mental capacity under the Mental Capacity Act 2005?

    Capacity is presumed unless established otherwise. A person lacks capacity if, at the material time, they are unable to make a decision because of an impairment of, or disturbance in the functioning of, the mind or brain. Inability means being unable to understand, retain, use/weigh the relevant information, or communicate the decision. Capacity is decision- and time-specific.

  19. How should a solicitor proceed if they doubt a client's mental capacity to give instructions?

    Apply the presumption of capacity but assess decision-specific capacity; do not act on instructions from someone lacking capacity. Consider whether a person with authority (e.g. attorney under an LPA or a deputy) should give instructions, obtain a capacity assessment if needed (e.g. 'golden rule' for wills), and act in line with the Mental Capacity Act principles.

  20. Which regulations govern anti-money laundering compliance for solicitors in the UK?

    The Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017 (the MLR 2017, as amended), supplemented by the SRA's AML rules and the Legal Sector Affinity Group (LSAG) guidance.

  21. What are the three core elements of customer due diligence (CDD) under the MLR 2017?

    (1) Identifying the client and verifying their identity from reliable, independent sources; (2) identifying any beneficial owner and taking reasonable measures to verify their identity; (3) obtaining information on, and ongoing monitoring of, the purpose and intended nature of the business relationship.

  22. When must Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) be applied under the MLR 2017?

    EDD is required where there is a higher risk of money laundering/terrorist financing — e.g. where the client or transaction involves a politically exposed person (PEP), a high-risk third country, unusual or complex transactions with no apparent economic purpose, or where the business relationship is conducted non-face-to-face in higher-risk circumstances.

  23. Which firms/work fall within the regulated sector for AML purposes, requiring a written practice-wide risk assessment and MLRO/MLCO?

    Firms carrying on relevant 'independent legal professional' activities — e.g. conveyancing, company/trust formation and management, managing client money/assets, and financial/real property transactions. Such firms must appoint a Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) and a Money Laundering Compliance Officer (MLCO) and maintain a documented risk assessment, policies, controls and training.

  24. List the principal money laundering offences under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (POCA).

    Section 327 — concealing, disguising, converting, transferring or removing criminal property; Section 328 — entering into or becoming concerned in an arrangement to facilitate the acquisition/retention/use/control of criminal property; Section 329 — acquiring, using or possessing criminal property.

  25. What is a SAR and to whom is it made under POCA?

    A Suspicious Activity Report. Where a solicitor knows or suspects (or has reasonable grounds to know/suspect) money laundering, they must make an authorised disclosure (usually to the firm's MLRO, who reports to the National Crime Agency / NCA) to obtain a defence (formerly 'consent') before proceeding with a prohibited act.

  26. What is the 'tipping off' offence under section 333A POCA, and which firms does it apply to?

    It is an offence (applicable to those in the regulated sector) to disclose to a third party that a SAR/disclosure has been made, or that a money laundering investigation is being contemplated or carried out, where that disclosure is likely to prejudice any investigation. Maximum penalty on indictment is two years' imprisonment and/or a fine.

  27. Does legal professional privilege exempt a solicitor from making a disclosure under POCA?

    There is a 'privileged circumstances' / legal adviser exemption: a professional legal adviser is not required to disclose information received in privileged circumstances. However, the exemption does NOT apply where the information is communicated with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose (the crime/fraud exception).

  28. List the four offences created by the Bribery Act 2010.

    (1) Section 1 — offering, promising or giving a bribe (active bribery); (2) Section 2 — requesting, agreeing to receive or accepting a bribe (passive bribery); (3) Section 6 — bribery of a foreign public official; (4) Section 7 — failure of a commercial organisation to prevent bribery (corporate offence).

  29. What is the only defence to the section 7 Bribery Act 2010 corporate offence, and what are the six guiding principles?

    The defence is that the organisation had 'adequate procedures' in place to prevent bribery. The MOJ's six guiding principles are: (1) proportionate procedures; (2) top-level commitment; (3) risk assessment; (4) due diligence; (5) communication (including training); (6) monitoring and review.

  30. Under the Equality Act 2010, what are the nine protected characteristics?

    Age; disability; gender reassignment; marriage and civil partnership; pregnancy and maternity; race; religion or belief; sex; and sexual orientation.

  31. What forms of prohibited conduct does the Equality Act 2010 cover, and what does the SRA require of solicitors regarding equality and diversity?

    Prohibited conduct includes direct discrimination, indirect discrimination, harassment, victimisation, and (for disability) failure to make reasonable adjustments / discrimination arising from disability. SRA Principle 6 requires solicitors to act in a way that encourages equality, diversity and inclusion, and the Codes require firms not to discriminate unlawfully and to make reasonable adjustments for disabled clients/employees.

Legal Practice Course (LPC) Professional Conduct and Regulation FAQ

What is in the Legal Practice Course (LPC) Professional Conduct and Regulation syllabus?

Legal Practice Course (LPC) Professional Conduct and Regulation is split into 4 chapters: The Regulatory Framework, Core Professional Duties, Client Relationship and Service and Compliance and Financial Crime. Together they contain 16 topics and 6 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Legal Practice Course (LPC) Professional Conduct and Regulation?

4 chapters, containing 16 topics and 6 sub-topics. The largest chapter is The Regulatory Framework, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for Legal Practice Course (LPC) Professional Conduct and Regulation?

Yes — a 51-card Professional Conduct and Regulation deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.