🇬🇧 Legal Practice Course (LPC) · subject

Legal Practice Course (LPC) Business Law and Practice Syllabus

The Business Law and Practice syllabus for Legal Practice Course (LPC) in full: 6 chapters, 30 topics and 21 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 64 Business Law and Practice flashcards with answers.

6Chapters
30Topics
21Sub-topics
64Flashcards

Business Law and Practice syllabus: all 6 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Business Structures and Formation

    4 topics
    • Choice of business medium
      • Sole trader characteristics and unlimited liability
      • Comparing partnership, LLP and private limited company
      • Tax, liability and administrative considerations driving choice
    • Incorporation of a private limited company
      • Registration at Companies House and the certificate of incorporation
      • Memorandum of association and model articles
      • Shelf companies versus tailor-made incorporation
    • The constitution under the Companies Act 2006
      • Articles as a statutory contract (s.33)
      • Entrenchment and amendment by special resolution
      • Shareholders' agreements and their interaction with the articles
    • Company name, registered office and constitutional documents
  2. Directors, Shareholders and Company Decision-Making

    6 topics
    • Directors' powers and appointment
      • Appointment, removal under s.168 and disqualification
      • Board delegation and managing director authority
    • Directors' general duties (ss.171-177)
      • Duty to act within powers and promote success of the company
      • Conflicts of interest and declaration of interest in transactions
    • Board meetings and board resolutions
    • General meetings and shareholder resolutions
      • Ordinary versus special resolutions and required majorities
      • Written resolution procedure and notice periods
    • Substantial property transactions, loans and service contracts requiring approval
    • Filing and statutory registers (PSC register, confirmation statement)
  3. Partnership and Limited Liability Partnerships

    5 topics
    • Formation and the Partnership Act 1890 default rules
    • Authority of partners and liability to third parties
    • The partnership agreement and variation of default terms
    • Dissolution, retirement and expulsion
    • LLPs: separate legal personality and the LLP Act 2000
  4. Business Finance

    4 topics
    • Equity finance and share capital
      • Allotment of shares and pre-emption rights
      • Classes of shares and variation of class rights
      • Maintenance of capital and prohibition on financial assistance
    • Debt finance and security
      • Fixed and floating charges and crystallisation
      • Registration of charges and priority
      • Debentures and loan agreement terms
    • Dividends and distributions out of profit
    • Reading and interpreting company accounts
  5. Business Taxation

    5 topics
    • Corporation tax computation and rates
    • Income tax and the taxation of partnerships and sole traders
    • Capital gains tax and Business Asset Disposal Relief
    • Value Added Tax in a business context
    • Taxation of distributions to shareholders
  6. Corporate Insolvency and Distressed Businesses

    6 topics
    • Tests of insolvency: cash flow and balance sheet
    • Liquidation: compulsory, creditors' voluntary and members' voluntary
    • Administration and the moratorium
    • Company voluntary arrangements and receivership
    • Avoidance of transactions: preferences and transactions at an undervalue
    • Personal insolvency and bankruptcy basics

Legal Practice Course (LPC) Business Law and Practice flashcards — 64 questions with answers

  1. When choosing a business medium, what are the three main forms a business can take in England and Wales, and what is the key liability distinction?

    Sole trader, partnership (including LLP), and limited company. Sole traders and general partners have unlimited personal liability for business debts; shareholders of a limited company and members of an LLP benefit from limited liability (the company/LLP has separate legal personality).

  2. What is the leading authority confirming that a company is a separate legal person distinct from its members?

    Salomon v A Salomon & Co Ltd [1897] AC 22. The House of Lords held that a properly incorporated company is a separate legal entity, so its debts are its own and shareholders are only liable up to any unpaid amount on their shares.

  3. What documents must be sent to Companies House to incorporate a private company limited by shares under the Companies Act 2006?

    Form IN01 (application for registration, giving registered office, directors, secretary, statement of capital and initial shareholdings, and statement of compliance), a memorandum of association, and (optionally) bespoke articles. A registration fee is also payable. The Registrar then issues a certificate of incorporation.

  4. Under the Companies Act 2006, what is the legal nature and function of a company's articles of association?

    The articles are the company's main constitutional document, forming a statutory contract between the company and its members and between the members themselves (s.33 CA 2006). They regulate the internal management of the company (e.g. directors' powers, meetings, share transfers).

  5. What is the role of the memorandum of association under the Companies Act 2006, and how does it differ from its pre-2006 role?

    Under the CA 2006 the memorandum is a short historical document simply recording that the subscribers wish to form a company and agree to take at least one share each. Unlike under the Companies Act 1985, it no longer contains the objects clause or other ongoing constitutional provisions.

  6. What are the Model Articles, and when do they apply to a private company limited by shares?

    The Model Articles are the default standard articles prescribed by regulations under the CA 2006. They apply automatically to a company limited by shares where the company does not register its own articles, or apply to the extent its bespoke articles do not exclude or modify them.

  7. What are the statutory restrictions on a private limited company's name regarding its ending and prohibited words?

    A private limited company's name must normally end with 'Limited' or 'Ltd' (or Welsh equivalents). It must not be the same as an existing registered name, must not be offensive or constitute a criminal offence, and 'sensitive' words or words implying government/official connection require approval.

  8. What is the purpose of a company's registered office, and what must be kept there or at a SAIL?

    The registered office is the company's official address for service of documents and correspondence. Statutory registers and records must be available for inspection there or at a Single Alternative Inspection Location (SAIL) notified to Companies House.

  9. How are directors of a private company appointed under the Model Articles, and what is the statutory minimum number?

    Directors may be appointed by ordinary resolution of the shareholders or by a decision of the existing directors (Model Article 17). A private company must have at least one director, and at least one director must be a natural person (s.154 and s.155 CA 2006).

  10. Where do directors derive their general power to manage the company, and what limits this power?

    Under Model Article 3, the directors are responsible for the management of the company and may exercise all its powers. This is subject to the articles and to any special resolution by which shareholders may direct the directors to take or refrain from specified action (Model Article 4).

  11. List the seven general duties of directors codified in ss.171-177 of the Companies Act 2006.

    s.171 duty to act within powers; s.172 duty to promote the success of the company; s.173 duty to exercise independent judgment; s.174 duty to exercise reasonable care, skill and diligence; s.175 duty to avoid conflicts of interest; s.176 duty not to accept benefits from third parties; s.177 duty to declare an interest in a proposed transaction or arrangement.

  12. What must a director have regard to under s.172 CA 2006 (duty to promote the success of the company)?

    A director must act in good faith to promote the success of the company for the benefit of its members as a whole, having regard (among other matters) to: long-term consequences; employees' interests; relationships with suppliers and customers; impact on community and environment; reputation for high standards of conduct; and the need to act fairly between members.

  13. What standard of care is required of a director under s.174 CA 2006, and is it objective or subjective?

    A director must exercise reasonable care, skill and diligence to the standard of a reasonably diligent person with both: (a) the general knowledge, skill and experience reasonably expected of someone carrying out that director's functions (objective), and (b) the actual general knowledge, skill and experience the particular director has (subjective). The higher of the two standards applies.

  14. Under s.177 CA 2006, what must a director do where they are interested in a proposed transaction, and what is the effect of the Model Articles?

    A director must declare the nature and extent of any direct or indirect interest in a proposed transaction to the other directors before it is entered into. Under the Model Articles an interested director generally cannot count in the quorum or vote on the relevant board resolution, unless the conflict has been authorised.

  15. How is a board resolution passed under the Model Articles, and what quorum is required?

    A board resolution is passed by a simple majority of the directors voting at a quorate board meeting (the chair having a casting vote). The quorum for a directors' meeting is two, unless otherwise fixed (Model Article 11). Decisions may also be taken by unanimous written/informal agreement of all eligible directors.

  16. What is the difference between an ordinary resolution and a special resolution of shareholders, including the required majority?

    An ordinary resolution requires a simple majority (over 50%) of the votes cast. A special resolution requires a majority of at least 75% of the votes cast. Special resolutions are needed for major matters such as amending the articles, changing the company name, or reducing share capital.

  17. What notice and what majority are required to pass a written resolution of a private company under the Companies Act 2006?

    A private company may pass an ordinary resolution by written resolution with the agreement of members representing a simple majority (over 50%) of the total voting rights of eligible members, and a special resolution by the agreement of members representing at least 75% of total voting rights. Written resolutions cannot be used to remove a director or auditor before the expiry of their term.

  18. What notice period is required for a general meeting of a private company, and how can short notice be given?

    At least 14 clear days' notice is required for a general meeting (s.307 CA 2006). Short notice is permitted if agreed by a majority in number of members holding at least 90% of the nominal value of voting shares (the percentage can be raised to up to 95% by the articles).

  19. What is the procedure under s.168 CA 2006 to remove a director, and why can't it be done by written resolution?

    A director can be removed by ordinary resolution at a general meeting, but special notice (28 clear days to the company) is required, and the director has the right to make representations and to be heard at the meeting. Because the director has these protection rights at a meeting, the written resolution procedure cannot be used.

  20. What is a substantial property transaction (SPT) under ss.190-196 CA 2006, and what approval is required?

    An SPT is an arrangement where a director (or connected person) acquires from or sells to the company a 'substantial' non-cash asset. An asset is substantial if it exceeds £100,000, or exceeds £5,000 and is more than 10% of the company's net asset value. The transaction requires approval by ordinary resolution of the members.

Show the other 44 Business Law and Practice flashcards
  1. What approval is required for a loan by a company to one of its directors under s.197 CA 2006?

    A loan by a company to a director (or the giving of a guarantee/security for such a loan) generally requires prior approval by ordinary resolution of the members, with a memorandum setting out the loan's terms made available. Certain exceptions apply (e.g. small loans up to £10,000, expenditure on company business up to £50,000).

  2. When does a director's service contract require shareholder approval under s.188 CA 2006?

    A director's service contract guaranteeing a term of employment of more than two years (a 'long-term service contract') must be approved by ordinary resolution of the members. Without approval, the offending term is void and the contract is terminable on reasonable notice.

  3. What is the PSC register, and who must be entered on it?

    The PSC (People with Significant Control) register records individuals with significant control over the company. Broadly, a PSC is someone who directly or indirectly holds more than 25% of shares or voting rights, has the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board, or otherwise exercises significant influence or control. PSC information must be kept and filed at Companies House.

  4. What is a confirmation statement, and how often must it be filed?

    A confirmation statement (Form CS01) confirms that the company's information held at Companies House (registered office, directors, shareholders, SIC code, statement of capital, PSC details) is up to date. It must be filed at least once every 12 months.

  5. List the statutory registers a private company is generally required to keep.

    Register of members, register of directors, register of directors' residential addresses, register of secretaries (if any), register of PSCs (unless kept centrally at Companies House), and a register of charges (for charges created before April 2013). Records of resolutions and minutes must also be kept.

  6. How is a partnership defined under s.1 of the Partnership Act 1890?

    Partnership is 'the relation which subsists between persons carrying on a business in common with a view of profit'. No formal agreement or registration is required; a partnership can arise simply from the conduct of the parties.

  7. Under the default rules of the Partnership Act 1890, how are profits, losses and management rights shared between partners?

    In the absence of contrary agreement: partners share equally in capital and profits and contribute equally to losses (s.24(1)); every partner may take part in management (s.24(5)); no partner is entitled to remuneration for acting in the partnership business (s.24(6)); and ordinary matters are decided by majority, but changes in the nature of the business require unanimity (s.24(8)).

  8. How does a partner bind the firm to third parties under s.5 of the Partnership Act 1890?

    Every partner is an agent of the firm. The firm is bound by acts of a partner carried out for carrying on the partnership business in the usual way, unless the partner had no authority and the third party knew this or did not believe them to be a partner. This covers both actual and apparent (ostensible) authority.

  9. What is the nature of partners' liability for the debts of the firm under the Partnership Act 1890?

    Partners are jointly liable for the debts and obligations of the firm incurred while they are partners (s.9), and jointly and severally liable for the firm's tortious liabilities (s.10/s.12). Liability is unlimited, meaning partners' personal assets are at risk.

  10. What is the liability position of an incoming partner and a retiring (outgoing) partner under the Partnership Act 1890?

    An incoming partner is not liable for debts incurred before they joined (s.17(1)). A retiring partner remains liable for debts incurred while a partner, and may remain liable for later debts to existing customers unless proper notice of retirement is given (actual notice to existing customers and Gazette notice to the world).

  11. Name four default Partnership Act 1890 terms that a well-drafted partnership agreement commonly varies.

    Common variations include: unequal profit/loss sharing instead of equal; provision for partner salaries/remuneration; mechanisms for expulsion of a partner (no default power exists); and avoiding automatic dissolution on a partner leaving or dying (introducing a continuation/retirement mechanism). Decision-making thresholds and capital arrangements are also frequently varied.

  12. Under the Partnership Act 1890, can a majority of partners expel a partner, and how is this usually addressed?

    No. Section 25 provides that no majority can expel a partner unless an express power to do so has been agreed between the partners. A well-drafted partnership agreement therefore includes an express expulsion clause.

  13. What are the principal ways a partnership can be dissolved under the Partnership Act 1890?

    By expiry of a fixed term or completion of the venture (s.32); by a partner giving notice in a partnership at will (s.32); by the death or bankruptcy of a partner (s.33); on the business becoming unlawful (s.34); or by court order on specified grounds such as a partner's incapacity, prejudicial conduct or persistent breach (s.35).

  14. On dissolution of a partnership, in what order are the firm's assets applied under s.44 of the Partnership Act 1890?

    Assets are applied: first in paying the firm's debts to outside creditors; then in repaying to partners advances/loans made beyond capital; then in repaying partners' capital; and finally any surplus is divided among the partners in the proportion in which profits are shared.

  15. What are the key features of a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000?

    An LLP is a body corporate with separate legal personality, formed by incorporation at Companies House (filing form LL IN01). Its members have limited liability for the LLP's debts, it can hold property and contract in its own name, it must have at least two designated members, and it is taxed as a partnership (transparent) but files accounts like a company.

  16. How does an LLP differ from a traditional general partnership in terms of legal personality and liability?

    A general partnership has no separate legal personality and its partners have unlimited personal liability. An LLP is a separate legal person that can sue, be sued and own property in its own name, and its members generally enjoy limited liability (their loss is limited to their capital contribution), subject to wrongful/fraudulent trading rules.

  17. What is the distinction between authorised, issued, called-up and paid-up share capital?

    Authorised capital is the historic ceiling on shares that could be issued (abolished as a requirement under CA 2006). Issued/allotted capital is the nominal value of shares actually issued. Called-up capital is the amount the company has required shareholders to pay. Paid-up capital is the amount shareholders have actually paid on their shares.

  18. What rights typically distinguish ordinary shares, preference shares and redeemable shares?

    Ordinary shares carry voting rights and a variable dividend and rank last on a winding up. Preference shares typically carry a fixed (often cumulative) preferential dividend and priority of capital repayment, but limited or no voting rights. Redeemable shares are issued on terms that the company may or must buy them back at a future date.

  19. What is the difference between a fixed charge and a floating charge as forms of debt security?

    A fixed charge attaches to specific identified assets (e.g. land, machinery); the borrower cannot dispose of them without the lender's consent. A floating charge 'floats' over a class of changing assets (e.g. stock, book debts), allowing the company to deal with them until the charge crystallises (e.g. on default or liquidation) and fixes onto the then-existing assets.

  20. Why does the ranking of a floating charge holder matter, and how does crystallisation affect priority?

    A floating charge ranks behind fixed charges and behind preferential creditors, and a prescribed part of floating-charge realisations is ring-fenced for unsecured creditors. On crystallisation the floating charge fixes onto the assets, but it still generally ranks after pre-existing fixed charges and statutory preferential claims. Charges must be registered at Companies House within 21 days to be valid against a liquidator/administrator.

  21. Under the Companies Act 2006, out of what may a company lawfully pay a dividend (a distribution)?

    A distribution may only be made out of profits available for the purpose, i.e. accumulated, realised profits less accumulated, realised losses (s.830 CA 2006). The company must have sufficient distributable reserves; a dividend paid otherwise is an unlawful distribution and may be recoverable from shareholders who knew or had reasonable grounds to believe it was unlawful.

  22. What is the difference between an interim dividend and a final dividend, and how is each declared under the Model Articles?

    A final dividend is recommended by the directors and declared by ordinary resolution of the members at/after the year end; it creates an immediate debt due to shareholders. An interim dividend is paid during the year by decision of the directors alone, based on management accounts, and can be revoked before payment.

  23. In reading company accounts, what are the three primary financial statements and what does each show?

    The balance sheet (statement of financial position) shows assets, liabilities and equity at a point in time. The profit and loss account (income statement) shows income, expenses and profit/loss over a period. The cash flow statement shows cash inflows and outflows over the period across operating, investing and financing activities.

  24. Give the basic accounting equation and explain what it represents on a balance sheet.

    $$\text{Assets} = \text{Liabilities} + \text{Equity}$$ It represents the fundamental balance sheet identity: everything the business owns (assets) is financed either by amounts owed to others (liabilities) or by the owners' capital and retained profits (equity). Equivalently, net assets (assets minus liabilities) equal shareholders' equity.

  25. How is a UK company's corporation tax charge computed in outline, and what is the basic structure of rates from April 2023?

    Corporation tax is charged on Taxable Total Profits (income profits plus chargeable gains, less reliefs). From 1 April 2023 the main rate is 25% for profits over £250,000, the small profits rate is 19% for profits up to £50,000, and marginal relief applies between £50,000 and £250,000. The accounting profit is adjusted (e.g. add back disallowable expenditure, deduct capital allowances).

  26. How are the profits of a partnership and a sole trader taxed for income tax purposes?

    A partnership is tax-transparent: it is not taxed itself; instead each partner is taxed individually on their share of the profits as trading income. A sole trader is taxed on the profits of the trade as the proprietor's trading income. Both pay income tax (and Class 2/4 NICs) on profits, regardless of drawings.

  27. State the main UK income tax bands and rates for non-savings income for 2023/24 (with the standard personal allowance).

    Personal allowance £12,570 (taxed at 0%, tapered away above £100,000). Basic rate 20% on taxable income up to £37,700; higher rate 40% from £37,701 to £125,140; additional rate 45% above £125,140.

  28. How is capital gains tax computed in outline for an individual, and what is the basic structure of the annual exemption and rates?

    CGT is charged on the chargeable gain (disposal proceeds less allowable acquisition and enhancement costs and incidental costs), reduced by the annual exempt amount. The gain falling within an individual's remaining basic rate band is taxed at the lower rate and the excess at the higher rate (for non-residential assets, historically 10%/20%). Business Asset Disposal Relief may reduce the rate to 10%.

  29. What is Business Asset Disposal Relief (BADR), and what are its key conditions and lifetime limit?

    BADR (formerly Entrepreneurs' Relief) charges qualifying business disposals to CGT at a reduced rate of 10%, up to a lifetime limit of £1 million of gains. It applies to disposals of all or part of a trading business, or of shares in a personal trading company where the individual is an officer/employee holding at least 5% of ordinary shares and voting rights, with the qualifying conditions generally met for at least two years.

  30. What is VAT, what is the standard rate, and when must a business register?

    VAT (Value Added Tax) is an indirect tax on the supply of goods and services. The standard rate is 20% (with reduced 5% and zero rates for certain supplies). A business must register for VAT once its taxable turnover exceeds the registration threshold (£85,000 in a rolling 12-month period, frozen for the relevant years).

  31. How does the VAT system of output tax and input tax work for a VAT-registered business?

    A registered business charges output VAT on its taxable supplies to customers and pays input VAT on its purchases. It accounts to HMRC for the output tax it collects, less the input tax it has incurred. The net amount payable (or reclaimable) is: $$\text{VAT due} = \text{output tax} - \text{recoverable input tax}.$$

  32. How are dividends received by an individual shareholder taxed, and what are the dividend tax rates for 2023/24?

    Dividends are taxed as the top slice of income after a dividend allowance (£1,000 for 2023/24) is taxed at 0%. Above the allowance, dividends are taxed at 8.75% (basic rate band), 33.75% (higher rate band) and 39.35% (additional rate band). Dividends are paid out of post-corporation-tax profits, so represent a second layer of tax.

  33. What are the two statutory tests of insolvency under s.123 of the Insolvency Act 1986?

    The cash-flow test: a company is unable to pay its debts as they fall due. The balance-sheet test: the value of the company's liabilities (including contingent and prospective liabilities) exceeds the value of its assets. Either test being satisfied means the company is unable to pay its debts.

  34. What evidence of inability to pay debts is provided by a statutory demand under s.123 Insolvency Act 1986?

    A creditor owed more than £750 may serve a written statutory demand; if the company fails to pay or secure the debt within 21 days, the company is deemed unable to pay its debts. This is one of the prescribed ways of proving insolvency to support a winding-up petition.

  35. Distinguish compulsory liquidation, creditors' voluntary liquidation (CVL) and members' voluntary liquidation (MVL).

    Compulsory liquidation is by court order following a winding-up petition (usually by a creditor) where the company is insolvent. A CVL is commenced by the company's members where the company is insolvent, with creditors effectively controlling the choice of liquidator. An MVL is a solvent liquidation, requiring the directors to make a statutory declaration of solvency that debts will be paid in full within 12 months.

  36. What is the statutory order of priority for distribution of assets in a liquidation?

    Broadly: (1) fixed-charge creditors (from their charged assets); (2) liquidation expenses; (3) preferential creditors (e.g. certain employee claims, and secondary preferential HMRC claims); (4) the prescribed part ring-fenced for unsecured creditors; (5) floating-charge creditors; (6) unsecured (ordinary) creditors; (7) interest on debts; and finally (8) shareholders.

  37. What is administration under the Insolvency Act 1986, and what is the statutory purpose hierarchy?

    Administration places the company under the control of a licensed insolvency practitioner (the administrator) to pursue, in order of priority: (a) rescuing the company as a going concern; or if not reasonably practicable, (b) achieving a better result for creditors than a winding up; or if not, (c) realising property to pay secured or preferential creditors. The administrator owes duties to creditors as a whole.

  38. What is the moratorium in administration, and what protection does it give the company?

    On entering administration an automatic statutory moratorium arises: no winding-up petition may proceed, and no legal proceedings, enforcement of security, repossession of goods under hire-purchase, or forfeiture may be commenced or continued against the company without the administrator's consent or the court's permission. This gives the company breathing space to be rescued or reorganised.

  39. What is a Company Voluntary Arrangement (CVA), and what approval threshold is required?

    A CVA is a binding compromise or arrangement between a company and its creditors (e.g. to pay debts in part or over time), supervised by an insolvency practitioner. It is approved if 75% or more (by value) of creditors voting agree, subject to the rule that it is not approved if more than 50% of unconnected creditors vote against. Once approved it binds all unsecured creditors entitled to vote, but cannot bind secured/preferential creditors without their consent.

  40. What is receivership (administrative receivership), and how does it differ from administration in whose interests the office-holder acts?

    An administrative receiver is appointed by the holder of a qualifying floating charge to realise the charged assets and repay that secured creditor. The receiver acts primarily in the interests of the appointing charge holder, not creditors as a whole. Administrative receivership is now largely abolished for floating charges created after 15 September 2003, with administration the usual route instead.

  41. What is a preference under s.239 Insolvency Act 1986, and what must a liquidator/administrator show to set it aside?

    A preference is where a company does something that puts a creditor (or guarantor) in a better position on insolvency than they would otherwise have been, and the company was influenced by a desire to prefer that person. It is challengeable if given within 6 months before the onset of insolvency (2 years for a connected person, with a presumption of the requisite desire).

  42. What is a transaction at an undervalue under s.238 Insolvency Act 1986, and what is the relevant time period?

    A transaction at an undervalue is a gift or a transaction for significantly less consideration than the company provided. It can be challenged if entered into within 2 years before the onset of insolvency, while the company was (or became as a result) unable to pay its debts. The court may restore the position to what it would have been. A defence applies if the company acted in good faith for the purpose of carrying on business and reasonably believed it would benefit the company.

  43. What are the main routes into personal bankruptcy, and how long does bankruptcy typically last before discharge?

    An individual may be made bankrupt on their own application (online to the Adjudicator), or by a creditor's petition to the court for a debt of at least £5,000 where the debtor cannot pay. On bankruptcy the debtor's assets vest in the trustee in bankruptcy for distribution to creditors. The bankrupt is usually automatically discharged after 12 months, after which most debts are released.

  44. What is an Individual Voluntary Arrangement (IVA), and how does it compare to bankruptcy for an individual debtor?

    An IVA is a formal, binding agreement between an individual and their creditors to repay debts (in whole or part) over time, supervised by an insolvency practitioner and approved by 75% or more by value of voting creditors. Compared to bankruptcy it allows the debtor to avoid the asset-vesting and restrictions of bankruptcy and can preserve assets such as the home, while still binding dissenting unsecured creditors.

Legal Practice Course (LPC) Business Law and Practice FAQ

What is in the Legal Practice Course (LPC) Business Law and Practice syllabus?

Legal Practice Course (LPC) Business Law and Practice is split into 6 chapters: Business Structures and Formation, Directors, Shareholders and Company Decision-Making, Partnership and Limited Liability Partnerships, Business Finance, Business Taxation and Corporate Insolvency and Distressed Businesses. Together they contain 30 topics and 21 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Legal Practice Course (LPC) Business Law and Practice?

6 chapters, containing 30 topics and 21 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Directors, Shareholders and Company Decision-Making, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for Legal Practice Course (LPC) Business Law and Practice?

Yes — a 64-card Business Law and Practice deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.