JIPMER Entrance Zoology Syllabus

What is the difference between inspiration and expiration in terms of diaphragm and intrapulmonary pressure?

Inspiration: diaphragm contracts/flattens, thoracic volume increases, intrapulmonary pressure falls below atmospheric (air in). Expiration: diaphragm relaxes, volume decreases, pressure rises above atmospheric (air out).

Define tidal volume, vital capacity, and residual volume.

Tidal volume: air inhaled/exhaled per normal breath (~500 mL). Vital capacity: max air expired after max inspiration (ERV+TV+IRV). Residual volume: air left in lungs after forced expiration (~1100–1200 mL).

In what three forms is CO2 transported in the blood, and which is predominant?

As bicarbonate ions (~70%, predominant), carbamino-haemoglobin (~20–25%), and dissolved in plasma (~7%).

What is the chloride shift (Hamburger's phenomenon)?

Movement of Cl- ions into RBCs to maintain ionic balance as HCO3- diffuses out into plasma during CO2 transport.

Name the four components of human blood and the plasma protein responsible for clotting.

Plasma, RBCs (erythrocytes), WBCs (leukocytes), and platelets (thrombocytes); fibrinogen is the clotting protein.

Trace the path of blood through the four chambers and major vessels of the human heart starting from the venae cavae.

Venae cavae → right atrium → (tricuspid valve) → right ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → (bicuspid/mitral valve) → left ventricle → aorta → body.

What is the pacemaker of the heart and where is it located?

The sinoatrial (SA) node, located in the wall of the right atrium.

Define cardiac output and give the formula.

Cardiac output = Stroke volume x Heart rate (volume of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute, ~5 L/min at rest).

What are the structural and functional units of the kidney, and how many per human kidney?

Nephrons; about one million (10 lakh) per kidney.

Name the three processes of urine formation.

Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion.

What is the normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in humans?

About 125 mL/min, i.e., roughly 180 litres per day.

Classify these animals by their nitrogenous waste: humans, birds, bony fishes.

Humans: ureotelic (urea); birds: uricotelic (uric acid); bony fishes: ammonotelic (ammonia).

Which hormone regulates water reabsorption in the kidney and where does it act?

ADH (vasopressin) increases water reabsorption by acting on the DCT and collecting duct.

Name the three types of muscle fibres and indicate which are voluntary.

Skeletal (striated, voluntary), smooth (visceral, involuntary), and cardiac (involuntary). Only skeletal is voluntary.

What are the two contractile proteins of muscle, and which forms the thick vs thin filament?

Myosin (thick filament) and actin (thin filament).

State the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction in one sentence.

Muscle contraction occurs when thin (actin) filaments slide over thick (myosin) filaments, shortening the sarcomere without the filaments themselves shortening.

How many bones are in the adult human body, and how is the skeleton divided?

206 bones; divided into axial skeleton (80 bones: skull, vertebral column, ribs, sternum) and appendicular skeleton (126 bones: limbs and girdles).

Name the three parts of a neuron and the direction of impulse flow.

Dendrites (receive impulse) → cell body (cyton) → axon (transmits impulse away).

What is the resting membrane potential of a neuron and which ion gradient maintains it?

About -70 mV; maintained mainly by the Na+/K+ pump and selective K+ permeability (high K+ inside, high Na+ outside).

Name the three parts of the human ear and the function of the cochlea.

Outer ear, middle ear, inner ear; the cochlea contains the organ of Corti and converts sound vibrations into nerve impulses (hearing).

Differentiate exocrine and endocrine glands.

Exocrine glands secrete through ducts (e.g., salivary, sweat); endocrine glands are ductless and secrete hormones directly into the blood.

Name the hormones of the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex's mineralocorticoid.

Adrenal medulla: adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline; adrenal cortex mineralocorticoid: aldosterone.

Which hormones from the pancreatic islets regulate blood glucose, and what does each do?

Insulin (beta cells) lowers blood glucose; glucagon (alpha cells) raises blood glucose.

Why is the pituitary gland called the 'master gland', and what controls it?

It secretes hormones that regulate other endocrine glands; it is itself controlled by the hypothalamus (releasing/inhibiting hormones).

Name the parts of the male reproductive system involved in sperm production, maturation, and gland secretions.

Testes (seminiferous tubules) produce sperm; epididymis stores/matures sperm; seminal vesicles, prostate, and bulbourethral glands add seminal fluid.

What is the role of Sertoli cells and Leydig (interstitial) cells in the testis?

Sertoli cells nourish developing sperm; Leydig cells secrete testosterone (androgens).

Describe the phases of the human menstrual cycle and the dominant hormone of each.

Menstrual phase (shedding); follicular/proliferative phase (FSH, rising estrogen); ovulatory phase (LH surge triggers ovulation ~day 14); luteal/secretory phase (progesterone from corpus luteum).

Where does fertilization normally occur and what is the product called?

In the ampulla of the fallopian tube (oviduct); the product is a diploid zygote.

Define cleavage and identify the blastocyst stage that implants in the uterus.

Cleavage = rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote without growth; the blastocyst (with trophoblast and inner cell mass) implants into the uterine endometrium.

Name the three germ layers and one organ system derived from each.

Ectoderm (nervous system/epidermis), mesoderm (muscles, skeleton, circulatory system), endoderm (gut lining, liver, lungs).

What is the function of the placenta and which hormone confirms pregnancy in urine tests?

The placenta connects fetus to mother for exchange of nutrients, gases and wastes and secretes hormones; hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) is detected in pregnancy tests.

Classify contraceptive methods into barrier, IUD, hormonal, and surgical with one example each.

Barrier: condoms/diaphragm; IUD: copper-T (Cu-T); hormonal: oral pills (Saheli)/injections; surgical: vasectomy (male) and tubectomy (female).

What does the acronym STD stand for, and name two examples.

Sexually Transmitted Disease; examples include gonorrhoea, syphilis, AIDS, and genital herpes.

Differentiate innate and acquired (adaptive) immunity.

Innate immunity is non-specific, present from birth (skin, phagocytes, inflammation); acquired immunity is pathogen-specific, develops after exposure and shows memory (antibody/cell-mediated).

Name the causative organism and vector of malaria, and the infective stage.

Plasmodium (e.g., P. vivax); transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito; the infective stage is the sporozoite.

Which virus causes AIDS, which cells does it attack, and what is its genetic material?

HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus); it attacks helper T-lymphocytes (CD4 cells); its genetic material is RNA (a retrovirus).

State Darwin's theory of evolution and the key driving force.

Theory of evolution by natural selection: organisms with favourable heritable variations survive and reproduce more ('survival of the fittest'); natural selection is the driving force.

What is the Hardy-Weinberg principle and name two factors that disturb it.

In an idealized population allele and genotype frequencies remain constant across generations; disturbed by gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, recombination, and natural selection.

Define homologous and analogous organs with one example each.

Homologous organs have similar structure/origin but different functions (forelimbs of whale, bat, human - divergent evolution); analogous organs have different structure but similar function (wings of insect and bird - convergent evolution).

Name the four key tools/steps of recombinant DNA technology.

Restriction enzymes (molecular scissors), cloning vectors (e.g., plasmids), a host organism, and DNA ligase (joins fragments); plus PCR for amplification.

What do restriction endonucleases do, and what are the resulting overhangs called?

They cut DNA at specific palindromic recognition sequences; the single-stranded overhangs produced are called sticky ends.

What is PCR and name its three steps in one cycle.

Polymerase Chain Reaction amplifies DNA in vitro; steps: denaturation (separate strands), annealing (primers bind), and extension (Taq polymerase synthesizes new strand).

Name two methods used to introduce recombinant DNA into a host cell.

Microinjection / biolistics (gene gun), heat-shock with CaCl2-treated competent cells, electroporation, or disarmed Agrobacterium-mediated transfer.

What is gene therapy and give one example disorder it was first used for.

Correction of a genetic defect by inserting a functional gene into a patient's cells; first used for ADA (adenosine deaminase) deficiency / SCID.

How is human insulin (Humulin) produced using biotechnology?

The A and B peptide chains of insulin are produced separately in E. coli using recombinant DNA, then chemically joined by disulphide bonds.

What are transgenic animals, and give one medical use.

Animals with a manipulated/foreign gene in their genome; used to produce useful proteins (e.g., the transgenic cow 'Rosie' produced human protein-enriched milk; alpha-1-antitrypsin for emphysema).

Name the microbes used to produce curd, and the change they bring about.

Lactic acid bacteria (LAB, e.g., Lactobacillus) convert milk lactose to lactic acid, coagulating milk proteins into curd and adding vitamin B12.

Which microbes are used to make bread/dough rise and to produce ethanol, and via what process?

Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) ferments sugars producing CO2 (leavening) and ethanol (brewing); process is fermentation.

What are biogas, its main constituent, and the microbes responsible?

Biogas is a mixture of gases (mainly methane) from microbial decomposition of organic waste; produced by methanogens (e.g., Methanobacterium) in anaerobic conditions.

Name two microbial biocontrol agents and the pests/uses they target.

Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) controls butterfly caterpillars/insect larvae; Trichoderma controls plant root pathogens; Baculovirus (NPV) is a species-specific insecticide; Ladybird/dragonfly control aphids/mosquitoes.

What is the source organism of the antibiotic penicillin and who discovered it?

The fungus Penicillium notatum (chrysogenum); discovered by Alexander Fleming.