🇮🇳 GATE Biotechnology · subject

GATE Biotechnology Recombinant DNA technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology Syllabus

The Recombinant DNA technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology syllabus for GATE Biotechnology in full: 4 chapters, 33 topics and 28 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Recombinant DNA technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
33Topics
28Sub-topics
51Flashcards

Recombinant DNA technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Recombinant DNA technology

    7 topics
    • Restriction and modification enzymes
    • Vectors
      • Plasmids
      • Bacteriophage and other viral vectors
      • Cosmids
      • Ti plasmid
      • Bacterial and yeast artificial chromosomes
    • Expression vectors
    • cDNA and genomic DNA library
    • Gene isolation and cloning
    • Strategies for production of recombinant proteins
    • Transposons and gene targeting
  2. Molecular tools

    8 topics
    • Polymerase chain reaction
    • DNA/RNA labelling and sequencing
    • Southern and northern blotting
    • In-situ hybridization
    • DNA fingerprinting
      • RAPD
      • RFLP
    • Site-directed mutagenesis
    • Gene transfer technologies
      • CRISPR-Cas
    • Biosensing and biosensors
  3. Analytical tools

    8 topics
    • Principles of microscopy
      • Light
      • Electron
      • Fluorescent
      • Confocal
    • Principles of spectroscopy
      • UV
      • Visible
      • CD
      • IR
      • Fluorescence
      • FT-IR
      • MS
      • NMR
    • Electrophoresis
    • Micro-arrays
    • Enzymatic assays
    • Immunoassays
      • ELISA
      • RIA
      • Immunohistochemistry
      • Immunoblotting
    • Flow cytometry
    • Whole genome and ChIP sequencing
  4. Computational tools

    10 topics
    • Bioinformatics resources and search tools
    • Sequence and structure databases
    • Sequence analysis
      • Sequence file formats
      • Scoring matrices
      • Alignment
      • Phylogeny
    • Genomics, proteomics, metabolomics
    • Gene prediction
    • Functional annotation
    • Secondary structure and 3D structure prediction
    • Knowledge discovery in biochemical databases
    • Metagenomics
    • Metabolic engineering and systems biology

GATE Biotechnology Recombinant DNA technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology flashcards — 51 questions with answers

  1. What are restriction endonucleases and what type of bond do they cleave?

    Restriction endonucleases are bacterial enzymes that recognize specific short (usually 4-8 bp) palindromic DNA sequences and cleave the phosphodiester backbone of double-stranded DNA, producing either blunt or sticky (cohesive) ends. They are part of the bacterial restriction-modification defense system against foreign (phage) DNA.

  2. Compare the three types (I, II, III) of restriction enzymes.

    Type I: single multifunctional enzyme with both restriction and methylation activity; cleaves DNA at random sites far from the recognition sequence; requires ATP, $\text{Mg}^{2+}$ and SAM. Type II: separate restriction and methylation enzymes; cleaves at or very near the specific recognition site; requires only $\text{Mg}^{2+}$ (most useful in cloning). Type III: cleaves DNA ~24-26 bp downstream of recognition site; requires ATP and $\text{Mg}^{2+}$.

  3. What is the role of modification (methylase) enzymes in the restriction-modification system?

    Modification methylases add a methyl group (from SAM) to specific bases within the host's own recognition sequences (e.g., on adenine to form N6-methyladenine or cytosine to form 5-methylcytosine). This methylation protects the host's own DNA from being cleaved by its cognate restriction enzyme, while unmethylated foreign DNA is degraded.

  4. What is a palindromic recognition sequence? Give the example for EcoRI.

    A palindrome reads the same $5' \to 3'$ on both complementary strands. EcoRI recognizes $5'\text{-GAATTC-}3'$ / $3'\text{-CTTAAG-}5'$ and cuts between G and A, leaving $5'$ AATT sticky overhangs.

  5. Distinguish isoschizomers, neoschizomers, and isocaudomers.

    Isoschizomers: different enzymes recognizing the same sequence and cutting at the same position. Neoschizomers: recognize the same sequence but cut at different positions. Isocaudomers: recognize different sequences but generate identical (compatible) cohesive ends.

  6. What essential properties must a cloning vector possess?

    (1) An origin of replication (ori) for autonomous replication in the host; (2) a selectable marker (e.g., antibiotic resistance) to identify transformed cells; (3) unique restriction sites in a multiple cloning site (MCS/polylinker) for inserting foreign DNA; (4) small size and high copy number; (5) a means to distinguish recombinants (e.g., insertional inactivation / blue-white screening).

  7. What is a plasmid and what is meant by its copy number?

    A plasmid is a small, circular, double-stranded extrachromosomal DNA molecule that replicates independently of the host chromosome. Copy number is the number of plasmid copies maintained per host cell, controlled by the ori; relaxed plasmids (e.g., pUC) are high-copy, while stringent plasmids are low-copy.

  8. How does blue-white screening identify recombinant clones?

    The vector carries the lacZ' gene encoding the $\alpha$-fragment of $\beta$-galactosidase, with the MCS inside it. Insertion of foreign DNA disrupts lacZ' (insertional inactivation), so no functional enzyme forms via $\alpha$-complementation. On X-gal/IPTG plates, recombinant (insert-containing) colonies are white, while non-recombinant colonies are blue.

  9. What is plasmid incompatibility?

    Two plasmids are incompatible if they cannot be stably co-maintained in the same cell line, because they share the same replication control system (same incompatibility group / ori) and compete for the same regulatory machinery. Plasmids of different incompatibility groups can coexist.

  10. What is the maximum insert size that can be cloned in a typical plasmid vector?

    Plasmid vectors efficiently accommodate inserts up to about 10-15 kb (typically <10 kb); larger inserts reduce transformation efficiency and plasmid stability.

  11. Describe the bacteriophage $\lambda$ as a cloning vector, including insertion vs. replacement vectors.

    Bacteriophage $\lambda$ has a ~48.5 kb genome with a central ~15-20 kb dispensable region (non-essential for lytic growth). Insertion vectors have a single cloning site and accept small inserts (up to ~10 kb). Replacement (substitution) vectors have a removable central 'stuffer' fragment replaced by foreign DNA, accepting inserts of ~9-23 kb. Packaging constraints require the recombinant genome to be ~75-105% of wild-type length.

  12. What is the role of cos sites and in vitro packaging in $\lambda$ vectors?

    cos (cohesive end) sites are the 12-nucleotide single-stranded complementary ends of $\lambda$ DNA. During in vitro packaging, the terminase enzyme recognizes cos sites and cuts concatemeric DNA into unit-length genomes that are inserted into phage heads. Only DNA between ~38-52 kb (two cos sites at correct spacing) is efficiently packaged into infectious particles.

  13. What is M13 phage used for in molecular biology?

    M13 is a filamentous bacteriophage with a single-stranded circular DNA genome. It is used to produce single-stranded recombinant DNA, which is valuable for Sanger dideoxy sequencing and site-directed mutagenesis. It does not lyse the host but is continuously extruded.

  14. What is a cosmid and what insert sizes can it carry?

    A cosmid is a hybrid vector combining plasmid features (ori, selectable marker, MCS) with the $\lambda$ cos sequence. This lets it be packaged into $\lambda$ phage particles for efficient delivery, then replicate as a plasmid. Cosmids carry large inserts of about 35-45 kb.

  15. What is a phagemid?

    A phagemid is a hybrid vector containing both a plasmid origin of replication and a filamentous phage (f1/M13) origin. It can replicate as a double-stranded plasmid, but upon superinfection with a helper phage it produces single-stranded DNA packaged into phage particles.

  16. Describe the Ti plasmid and its role in plant genetic engineering.

    The Ti (Tumour-inducing) plasmid is a large (~200 kb) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens that causes crown gall disease. It contains the T-DNA region (transferred to and integrated into the plant genome) and the vir (virulence) genes that mediate transfer. For engineering, the tumour-causing (onc) genes in T-DNA are removed (disarmed) and replaced with the gene of interest, making it a natural vector for plant transformation.

  17. What are the T-DNA borders and vir genes of the Ti plasmid?

    T-DNA is flanked by 25 bp imperfect direct repeats called the left and right border sequences; these define the region transferred into the plant genome (the right border is essential). The vir genes (virA, virB, virC, virD, virE, virG), located outside T-DNA on the Ti plasmid, encode the machinery that processes and transfers the T-DNA into the plant cell.

  18. What is a binary vector system in Agrobacterium-mediated transformation?

    A binary system splits the functions onto two plasmids: a small binary vector containing the engineered T-DNA (with the gene of interest, between the borders) that replicates in both E. coli and Agrobacterium, and a separate disarmed helper Ti plasmid supplying the vir genes in trans. This avoids manipulating the very large Ti plasmid directly.

  19. Compare BAC and YAC vectors (host, basis, insert capacity).

    BAC (Bacterial Artificial Chromosome): based on the F-plasmid (single-copy), propagated in E. coli, carries inserts ~100-300 kb. YAC (Yeast Artificial Chromosome): based on yeast chromosomal elements, propagated in Saccharomyces cerevisiae, carries the largest inserts ~100 kb up to ~1000 kb (1 Mb). BACs are more stable and easier to handle; YACs hold larger inserts but show more chimerism and instability.

  20. What three functional elements must a YAC contain to behave like a chromosome?

    (1) A centromere (CEN) for proper segregation during mitosis; (2) two telomeres (TEL) at the ends to protect and replicate chromosome termini; (3) an autonomously replicating sequence (ARS, the yeast origin of replication). It also includes selectable markers (e.g., TRP1, URA3).

Show the other 31 Recombinant DNA technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology flashcards
  1. What is an expression vector and what features distinguish it from a cloning vector?

    An expression vector is designed to produce protein from a cloned gene. In addition to cloning-vector features, it contains expression signals: a strong promoter, a ribosome binding site (Shine-Dalgarno sequence in prokaryotes / Kozak in eukaryotes), a start codon, a transcription terminator, and often an inducible regulatory element and an affinity tag for purification.

  2. Name common strong/inducible promoters used in bacterial expression vectors.

    lac/lacUV5, tac and trc (hybrid trp-lac, IPTG-inducible), trp (tryptophan-regulated), $\lambda$ $p_L$/$p_R$ (temperature-regulated via cI857), araBAD (arabinose-inducible, BAD promoter), and the T7 promoter (requires T7 RNA polymerase, as in the pET system).

  3. How does the T7/pET expression system work?

    The gene of interest is placed under a T7 promoter on a pET vector. Expression requires T7 RNA polymerase, supplied by a host strain (e.g., E. coli BL21(DE3)) carrying the T7 polymerase gene under control of the IPTG-inducible lacUV5 promoter. Adding IPTG induces T7 polymerase, which then drives high-level, selective transcription of the target gene.

  4. What is a cDNA library and how is it constructed?

    A cDNA library is a collection of clones derived from the mRNA of a cell/tissue. mRNA is isolated, reverse transcribed into first-strand cDNA using reverse transcriptase (primed by oligo-dT), the second strand is synthesized, and the double-stranded cDNA is ligated into a vector. It represents only the expressed (exon-only) genes of that cell type and contains no introns.

  5. What is a genomic DNA library and how does it differ from a cDNA library?

    A genomic library contains clones representing the entire genome, made by fragmenting total genomic DNA (e.g., by partial restriction digestion) and cloning the fragments. Unlike a cDNA library, it includes introns, regulatory/intergenic regions, and non-transcribed sequences; it is identical for all tissues of an organism, whereas a cDNA library is tissue/condition-specific and reflects gene expression.

  6. How is the number of clones needed for a complete genomic library calculated?

    The number of clones $N$ required to have a given probability $P$ that any sequence is present is given by the Clarke-Carbon formula: $$N = \frac{\ln(1-P)}{\ln\left(1-\frac{i}{g}\right)}$$ where $i$ is the average insert size and $g$ is the genome size (so $i/g$ is the fraction of the genome per clone).

  7. What does reverse transcriptase do and from which sources is it derived?

    Reverse transcriptase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase that synthesizes a complementary DNA (cDNA) strand using an RNA template; it also has RNase H and DNA-dependent DNA polymerase activities. It is derived from retroviruses, commonly AMV (Avian Myeloblastosis Virus) and M-MLV (Moloney Murine Leukemia Virus).

  8. Outline the basic steps of gene cloning.

    (1) Isolate the DNA fragment of interest and cut it (and the vector) with restriction enzymes; (2) ligate the insert into the vector using DNA ligase to form recombinant DNA; (3) introduce the recombinant DNA into a host cell (transformation/transfection); (4) select and screen for recombinant clones (e.g., antibiotic resistance, blue-white screening); (5) grow the host to propagate (clone) the recombinant DNA.

  9. What is the function of DNA ligase in cloning?

    DNA ligase catalyzes the formation of a phosphodiester bond between the $3'$-hydroxyl and $5'$-phosphate ends of DNA, sealing nicks and joining insert to vector. T4 DNA ligase can join both cohesive (sticky) and blunt ends and uses ATP as cofactor; E. coli ligase uses NAD$^{+}$ and joins sticky ends only.

  10. What is alkaline phosphatase used for in cloning, and why?

    Alkaline phosphatase (e.g., CIP or SAP) removes the $5'$-phosphate groups from the linearized vector ends. Without $5'$-phosphates, the vector cannot self-ligate (recircularize), so it greatly reduces vector background and favors ligation of insert (which still carries phosphates) into the vector.

  11. What is TA cloning?

    TA cloning exploits the template-independent addition of a single $3'$ deoxyadenosine (A) overhang to PCR products by Taq polymerase. These products are ligated directly into a linearized vector bearing complementary single $3'$ thymidine (T) overhangs, allowing efficient cloning of PCR amplicons without restriction digestion.

  12. Compare the major strategies/hosts for producing recombinant proteins.

    E. coli: cheap, fast, high yield, but no post-translational modifications (PTMs) and risk of inclusion bodies. Yeast (S. cerevisiae, P. pastoris): eukaryotic, can secrete and glycosylate (though hyperglycosylation occurs). Insect cells (baculovirus): good for complex proteins with most PTMs. Mammalian cells (CHO, HEK293): authentic human-like glycosylation and folding, used for therapeutic proteins, but slow and expensive.

  13. What are inclusion bodies and why are they a problem in recombinant protein production?

    Inclusion bodies are dense aggregates of misfolded, insoluble recombinant protein that form in the cytoplasm (often in E. coli) during high-level overexpression. The protein is usually inactive and must be solubilized (e.g., with urea/guanidinium) and refolded in vitro to recover activity, complicating purification.

  14. What are fusion tags and give examples used for purification.

    Fusion tags are peptide/protein sequences fused to a recombinant protein to aid purification (and sometimes solubility/detection). Examples: His-tag (6xHis, binds Ni-NTA / IMAC), GST (binds glutathione resin), MBP (maltose-binding protein, also improves solubility), FLAG and c-myc epitope tags. Tags can be removed with site-specific proteases (e.g., thrombin, TEV).

  15. What are transposons (transposable elements)?

    Transposons are mobile DNA segments that can move (transpose) from one location to another within a genome, often flanked by inverted repeats and encoding transposase. They can cause insertional mutations and genome rearrangements. They are classified as DNA transposons (move via DNA 'cut-and-paste' or 'copy-and-paste') and retrotransposons (move via an RNA intermediate using reverse transcriptase, 'copy-and-paste').

  16. Differentiate replicative (copy-and-paste) and non-replicative (cut-and-paste) transposition.

    Non-replicative (conservative, cut-and-paste): the transposon is excised from the donor site and inserted at a new target site; copy number stays the same. Replicative (copy-and-paste): the transposon is copied and one copy moves to a new site while the original remains, increasing copy number (often via a cointegrate intermediate resolved by resolvase).

  17. What is gene targeting and what mechanism does it rely on?

    Gene targeting is the precise modification (knockout, knock-in, or replacement) of a specific endogenous gene using homologous recombination between an introduced DNA construct and the chromosomal locus. The targeting vector carries arms homologous to the target gene flanking a selectable marker, enabling site-specific integration (used to make knockout mice via ES cells).

  18. State the principle of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).

    PCR is an in vitro method to exponentially amplify a specific DNA region using a thermostable DNA polymerase, two flanking primers, dNTPs, and $\text{Mg}^{2+}$. Repeated thermal cycles each double the target, so after $n$ cycles the amount of product is approximately $2^{n}$ times the starting target copies.

  19. List the three steps of one PCR cycle with their typical temperatures.

    (1) Denaturation: ~94-95 $^\circ$C, separates the double-stranded template. (2) Annealing: ~50-65 $^\circ$C, primers hybridize to complementary sequences. (3) Extension (elongation): ~72 $^\circ$C, Taq polymerase synthesizes new strands $5' \to 3'$. An initial denaturation and final extension flank the cycles.

  20. How is PCR primer melting temperature (Tm) approximately estimated?

    For short primers, the Wallace rule estimates: $$T_m = 2(A+T) + 4(G+C)\ ^\circ C$$ where A, T, G, C are the counts of each base. Annealing temperature is usually set ~3-5 $^\circ$C below the lower primer $T_m$.

  21. What is the advantage of using a proofreading polymerase (e.g., Pfu) over Taq in PCR?

    Pfu polymerase has $3' \to 5'$ exonuclease (proofreading) activity, giving much higher fidelity (lower error rate) than Taq, which lacks proofreading. Pfu produces blunt-ended products and is preferred for cloning and applications requiring sequence accuracy, though it is slower; Taq is faster and adds 3'-A overhangs.

  22. What is RT-PCR and how does it differ from qPCR (real-time PCR)?

    RT-PCR (Reverse Transcription PCR) first converts RNA into cDNA using reverse transcriptase, then amplifies it by PCR; it is used to detect/analyze gene expression. qPCR (real-time/quantitative PCR) monitors product accumulation in real time using fluorescent dyes (SYBR Green) or probes (TaqMan), quantifying DNA by the threshold cycle ($C_t$). The two are often combined as RT-qPCR.

  23. Explain the principle of Sanger (dideoxy / chain-termination) sequencing.

    DNA is synthesized by DNA polymerase from a primer in the presence of normal dNTPs plus a small amount of chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs), which lack the $3'$-OH and stop extension when incorporated. This produces fragments of every possible length ending in a known base; separation by size (capillary/gel electrophoresis, with fluorescently labeled ddNTPs) reveals the sequence.

  24. What is the principle of Maxam-Gilbert sequencing?

    Maxam-Gilbert (chemical) sequencing uses base-specific chemical reagents to modify and then cleave end-labeled DNA at particular bases (G; A+G; C; C+T). Partial cleavage generates labeled fragments of varying lengths, which are resolved on a gel to read the sequence. It does not require DNA synthesis but uses hazardous chemicals and is now largely obsolete.

  25. What are common methods of labelling DNA/RNA probes?

    Radioactive labels (e.g., $^{32}\text{P}$, $^{35}\text{S}$) and non-radioactive labels (biotin, digoxigenin, fluorophores). Labelling methods include nick translation (DNA Pol I + DNase I incorporates labeled nucleotides), random primer (hexamer) labelling (Klenow fragment, gives high specific activity), end-labelling ($5'$ with T4 polynucleotide kinase and $\gamma$-$^{32}$P-ATP; $3'$ with terminal transferase), and in vitro transcription for RNA probes.

  26. Describe Southern blotting and what it detects.

    Southern blotting detects specific DNA sequences. Genomic DNA is digested with restriction enzymes, separated by agarose gel electrophoresis, denatured, and transferred (blotted) onto a nitrocellulose/nylon membrane. The membrane is hybridized with a labelled complementary probe, and the target band is visualized by autoradiography or detection. Used for gene detection, RFLP, and mutation analysis.

  27. Describe Northern blotting and how it differs from Southern blotting.

    Northern blotting detects specific RNA (mRNA) molecules to study gene expression and transcript size/abundance. RNA is separated (often under denaturing conditions to prevent secondary structure), transferred to a membrane, and probed with a labelled complementary nucleic acid probe. Difference: Southern analyzes DNA, Northern analyzes RNA (and Northern uses no restriction digestion).

  28. What is a Western blot (for contrast with Southern/Northern)?

    A Western blot detects specific proteins. Proteins are separated by SDS-PAGE, transferred to a membrane, and detected using specific primary antibodies followed by enzyme- or fluorophore-conjugated secondary antibodies. Mnemonic: Southern = DNA, Northern = RNA, Western = protein, Eastern = post-translational modifications.

  29. What is in-situ hybridization (ISH) and FISH?

    In-situ hybridization detects specific nucleic acid sequences directly within intact cells, tissue sections, or chromosomes using a labelled complementary probe, preserving spatial/positional information. FISH (Fluorescence In-Situ Hybridization) uses fluorescently labelled probes to localize genes/sequences on chromosomes or to detect transcripts, widely used in cytogenetics for mapping and detecting chromosomal abnormalities.

  30. What is DNA fingerprinting and what is its molecular basis?

    DNA fingerprinting is a technique to identify individuals based on unique patterns in their DNA. Its basis is variation in the number of tandemly repeated sequences such as VNTRs (minisatellites) and STRs (microsatellites), which differ between individuals. These polymorphic loci are detected by RFLP/Southern blotting or, more commonly, multiplex PCR of STRs, giving an individual-specific banding pattern used in forensics and paternity testing.

  31. What is RAPD and what are its key features?

    RAPD (Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA) is a PCR-based marker technique using a single short (~10 bp) primer of arbitrary sequence and low annealing temperature to amplify random genomic regions. Polymorphisms appear as presence/absence of bands due to differences in primer-binding sites. Features: no prior sequence knowledge needed, quick and cheap, but dominant markers with low reproducibility and sensitivity to reaction conditions.

GATE Biotechnology Recombinant DNA technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology FAQ

What is in the GATE Biotechnology Recombinant DNA technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology syllabus?

GATE Biotechnology Recombinant DNA technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology is split into 4 chapters: Recombinant DNA technology, Molecular tools, Analytical tools and Computational tools. Together they contain 33 topics and 28 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in GATE Biotechnology Recombinant DNA technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology?

4 chapters, containing 33 topics and 28 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Computational tools, with 10 topics.

Are there flashcards for GATE Biotechnology Recombinant DNA technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology?

Yes — a 51-card Recombinant DNA technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.