🇮🇳 GATE Biotechnology · subject

GATE Biotechnology General Biology Syllabus

The General Biology syllabus for GATE Biotechnology in full: 3 chapters, 32 topics and 4 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 General Biology flashcards with answers.

3Chapters
32Topics
4Sub-topics
51Flashcards

General Biology syllabus: all 3 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Biochemistry

    7 topics
    • Biomolecules - structure and function
    • Biological membranes
      • Structure
      • Membrane channels and pumps
      • Molecular motors
      • Action potential and transport processes
    • Basic concepts and regulation of metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, amino acids and nucleic acids
    • Photosynthesis, respiration and electron transport chain
    • Enzymes - Classification, catalytic and regulatory strategies
    • Enzyme kinetics - Michaelis-Menten equation
    • Enzyme inhibition - competitive, non-competitive and uncompetitive inhibition
  2. Microbiology

    9 topics
    • Bacterial classification and diversity
    • Microbial Ecology - microbes in marine, fresh water and terrestrial ecosystems
    • Microbial interactions
    • Viruses - structure and classification
    • Methods in microbiology
    • Microbial growth and nutrition
    • Nitrogen fixation
    • Microbial diseases and host-pathogen interactions
    • Antibiotics and antimicrobial resistance
  3. Immunology

    16 topics
    • Innate and adaptive immunity, humoral and cell mediated immunity
    • Antibody structure and function
    • Molecular basis of antibody diversity
    • T cell and B cell development
    • Antigen-antibody reaction
    • Complement
    • Primary and secondary lymphoid organs
    • Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
    • Antigen processing and presentation
    • Polyclonal and monoclonal antibody
    • Regulation of immune response
    • Immune tolerance
    • Hypersensitivity
    • Autoimmunity
    • Graft versus host reaction
    • Immunization and vaccines

GATE Biotechnology General Biology flashcards — 51 questions with answers

  1. What are the four major classes of biomolecules in living cells?

    Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins (made of amino acids), and nucleic acids (DNA/RNA).

  2. What type of bond links amino acids in a protein, and which reaction forms it?

    A peptide bond (an amide linkage), formed by a dehydration/condensation reaction releasing one water molecule between the $\alpha$-carboxyl of one residue and the $\alpha$-amino of the next.

  3. Name the four levels of protein structure and the interaction that mainly stabilizes each.

    Primary (peptide bonds/sequence), secondary ($\alpha$-helix and $\beta$-sheet, stabilized by backbone H-bonds), tertiary (side-chain interactions: H-bonds, ionic, hydrophobic, disulfides), quaternary (subunit assembly via the same non-covalent forces).

  4. What is the structural basis of base pairing in DNA, and how many H-bonds form in each pair?

    Complementary Watson–Crick pairing: adenine–thymine with 2 hydrogen bonds and guanine–cytosine with 3 hydrogen bonds; strands run antiparallel ($5'\to3'$ opposite $3'\to5'$).

  5. Describe the fluid mosaic model of biological membranes.

    A two-dimensional fluid lipid bilayer (phospholipids, cholesterol, glycolipids) in which integral and peripheral proteins are embedded and can diffuse laterally; lipids and proteins form a dynamic 'mosaic'.

  6. What property of phospholipids drives spontaneous bilayer formation in water?

    Their amphipathic nature: hydrophilic phosphate head groups face the aqueous phase while hydrophobic fatty-acid tails sequester inward, minimizing free energy via the hydrophobic effect.

  7. Distinguish a membrane channel from a membrane pump.

    A channel forms a gated/passive pore allowing ions to flow down their electrochemical gradient (no energy input); a pump uses energy (e.g., ATP) to move ions/solutes against their gradient (active transport).

  8. What does the $\ce{Na+/K+}$-ATPase pump, and in what stoichiometry per ATP?

    It exports $3\,\ce{Na+}$ out and imports $2\,\ce{K+}$ in per ATP hydrolyzed, an electrogenic primary active transporter maintaining the resting membrane gradients.

  9. Name three cytoskeletal molecular motors and the tracks they move along.

    Myosin (moves along actin filaments), kinesin (moves toward the plus/+ end of microtubules), and dynein (moves toward the minus/− end of microtubules); all are ATPases.

  10. What ionic events generate the rising (depolarization) and falling (repolarization) phases of a neuronal action potential?

    Depolarization: voltage-gated $\ce{Na+}$ channels open and $\ce{Na+}$ rushes in. Repolarization: $\ce{Na+}$ channels inactivate and voltage-gated $\ce{K+}$ channels open, letting $\ce{K+}$ flow out.

  11. Compare primary, secondary, and passive transport across membranes.

    Passive (facilitated/simple diffusion): down gradient, no energy. Primary active: uses ATP directly (e.g., $\ce{Na+/K+}$-ATPase). Secondary active: uses an ion gradient (set up by a primary pump) to co-transport another solute (symport/antiport).

  12. What is the central principle distinguishing catabolism from anabolism?

    Catabolism breaks down complex molecules to release energy (oxidative, produces ATP/NADH); anabolism builds complex molecules from simpler ones, consuming energy (reductive, uses ATP/NADPH).

  13. Which two molecules are the universal currencies of energy and reducing power in metabolism?

    ATP is the energy currency; $\ce{NADH}$/$\ce{FADH2}$ (catabolism) and $\ce{NADPH}$ (anabolism) are the reducing-power carriers.

  14. What is the committed and key regulatory step of glycolysis, and which enzyme catalyzes it?

    The phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate, catalyzed by phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1), allosterically inhibited by ATP/citrate and activated by AMP/F-2,6-BP.

  15. What is the rate-limiting enzyme of fatty acid synthesis and what activates it?

    Acetyl-CoA carboxylase (forms malonyl-CoA); activated by citrate and insulin, inhibited by palmitoyl-CoA and glucagon/AMPK phosphorylation.

  16. By what general process are amino acids deaminated, and where is the resulting ammonia detoxified?

    By transamination followed by oxidative deamination (glutamate dehydrogenase) releasing $\ce{NH3}$; ammonia is converted to urea via the urea cycle in the liver.

  17. Distinguish de novo from salvage pathways of nucleotide synthesis.

    De novo: nucleotides built from scratch using amino acids, $\ce{CO2}$, $\ce{PRPP}$, etc. (energy-expensive). Salvage: recycle free bases/nucleosides from degradation back into nucleotides (energy-saving).

  18. Write the overall (net) equation of oxygenic photosynthesis.

    $$\ce{6CO2 + 6H2O ->[light] C6H12O6 + 6O2}$$

  19. What are the products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

    $\ce{O2}$ (from water splitting), ATP (photophosphorylation), and $\ce{NADPH}$; these supply energy and reducing power to the Calvin cycle.

  20. What enzyme fixes $\ce{CO2}$ in the Calvin cycle and what is its first stable product?

    RuBisCO (ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase) fixes $\ce{CO2}$ onto RuBP, yielding two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA).

Show the other 31 General Biology flashcards
  1. Write the overall equation of aerobic cellular respiration.

    $$\ce{C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O}$$ with release of energy captured as ATP.

  2. What is the net ATP yield of glycolysis per glucose, and where does it occur?

    Net $2$ ATP (4 produced − 2 invested) plus $2\,\ce{NADH}$; it occurs in the cytoplasm and is anaerobic.

  3. List, in order, the complexes of the mitochondrial electron transport chain and the final electron acceptor.

    Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase) → Complex II (succinate dehydrogenase) → Complex III (cytochrome bc1) → Complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase); the final electron acceptor is $\ce{O2}$, reduced to $\ce{H2O}$.

  4. State the chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis.

    Electron transport pumps protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane, creating a proton-motive force (electrochemical $\ce{H+}$ gradient); $\ce{H+}$ flowing back through ATP synthase ($\ce{F_oF_1}$) drives ADP phosphorylation to ATP.

  5. What is the approximate ATP yield per $\ce{NADH}$ and per $\ce{FADH2}$ in oxidative phosphorylation?

    About $2.5$ ATP per $\ce{NADH}$ and about $1.5$ ATP per $\ce{FADH2}$ (older estimates: 3 and 2).

  6. Name the six classes of enzymes in the EC (Enzyme Commission) classification.

    1) Oxidoreductases, 2) Transferases, 3) Hydrolases, 4) Lyases, 5) Isomerases, 6) Ligases (a 7th class, Translocases, was added in 2018).

  7. Name four catalytic strategies enzymes use to accelerate reactions.

    Covalent catalysis, general acid–base catalysis, metal-ion catalysis, and catalysis by approximation/proximity and orientation (plus transition-state stabilization).

  8. Contrast allosteric regulation with covalent modification of enzyme activity.

    Allosteric: reversible binding of effectors at a site distinct from the active site shifts conformation/activity (often cooperative, sigmoidal kinetics). Covalent modification: reversible attachment of groups (e.g., phosphorylation) switches activity on/off.

  9. Write the Michaelis–Menten equation and define each term.

    $$v_0 = \frac{V_{max}[S]}{K_m + [S]}$$ where $v_0$ is initial velocity, $V_{max}$ is maximum velocity, $[S]$ is substrate concentration, and $K_m$ is the substrate concentration at half $V_{max}$.

  10. What does the Michaelis constant $K_m$ indicate about an enzyme?

    $K_m$ equals the $[S]$ at which $v_0 = \tfrac{1}{2}V_{max}$; a low $K_m$ indicates high apparent affinity for substrate, a high $K_m$ indicates low affinity.

  11. Write the Lineweaver–Burk (double-reciprocal) equation.

    $$\frac{1}{v_0} = \frac{K_m}{V_{max}}\cdot\frac{1}{[S]} + \frac{1}{V_{max}}$$ giving a straight line with slope $K_m/V_{max}$, y-intercept $1/V_{max}$, and x-intercept $-1/K_m$.

  12. Define the catalytic efficiency of an enzyme and its expression.

    Catalytic efficiency is $\dfrac{k_{cat}}{K_m}$, where $k_{cat}=V_{max}/[E]_T$ is the turnover number; the diffusion-limited upper bound is about $10^{8}$–$10^{9}\ \text{M}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}$.

  13. How does a competitive inhibitor affect $K_m$ and $V_{max}$?

    It increases the apparent $K_m$ but leaves $V_{max}$ unchanged, because the inhibitor competes at the active site and can be overcome by high $[S]$.

  14. How does a pure non-competitive inhibitor affect $K_m$ and $V_{max}$?

    $V_{max}$ decreases while $K_m$ stays unchanged; the inhibitor binds equally to E and ES at an allosteric site and cannot be overcome by adding substrate.

  15. How does an uncompetitive inhibitor affect $K_m$ and $V_{max}$?

    Both $K_m$ and $V_{max}$ decrease (their ratio stays constant); the inhibitor binds only to the enzyme–substrate (ES) complex, giving parallel lines on a Lineweaver–Burk plot.

  16. On a Lineweaver–Burk plot, how do you distinguish competitive, non-competitive, and uncompetitive inhibition?

    Competitive: lines intersect on the y-axis (same $1/V_{max}$). Non-competitive: lines intersect on the x-axis (same $-1/K_m$). Uncompetitive: parallel lines (same slope).

  17. State the basis of the Gram stain and what differentiates Gram-positive from Gram-negative bacteria.

    Gram-positive cells have a thick peptidoglycan layer that retains the crystal violet–iodine complex (stain purple); Gram-negative cells have thin peptidoglycan plus an outer membrane, lose the dye on decolorization, and counterstain pink with safranin.

  18. Which gene/molecule is used as the standard molecular marker for bacterial classification and phylogeny?

    The $16S$ ribosomal RNA gene, because it is universal, has conserved and variable regions, and is rarely subject to horizontal transfer.

  19. Distinguish the three domains of life proposed by Carl Woese.

    Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya — defined chiefly by rRNA sequence differences; Archaea share some molecular features with eukaryotes (e.g., RNA polymerase) despite a prokaryotic cell plan.

  20. Define a microbial extremophile and give three examples by habitat.

    An extremophile thrives in extreme conditions: thermophiles/hyperthermophiles (high temperature), halophiles (high salt), acidophiles/alkaliphiles (extreme pH), barophiles (high pressure), psychrophiles (cold).

  21. Define mutualism, commensalism, parasitism, and amensalism in microbial interactions.

    Mutualism: both partners benefit (+/+). Commensalism: one benefits, the other unaffected (+/0). Parasitism: one benefits at the other's expense (+/−). Amensalism: one is harmed, the other unaffected (−/0).

  22. What are syntrophy and quorum sensing in microbial communities?

    Syntrophy: metabolic cooperation where one organism's product is another's substrate (e.g., interspecies $\ce{H2}$ transfer). Quorum sensing: cell-density-dependent gene regulation via diffusible autoinducer signals.

  23. What are the essential structural components of a virus, and what defines an enveloped virus?

    A nucleic acid genome (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein capsid (made of capsomeres); an enveloped virus additionally has a host-derived lipid membrane with viral glycoprotein spikes.

  24. On what two main criteria does the Baltimore classification group viruses?

    On the nature of the viral genome (dsDNA, ssDNA, dsRNA, +ssRNA, −ssRNA, RNA-RT, DNA-RT) and the pathway used to produce mRNA; it defines seven classes (Groups I–VII).

  25. Differentiate the lytic and lysogenic cycles of a bacteriophage.

    Lytic: phage replicates immediately, lyses the host, and releases progeny. Lysogenic: phage DNA integrates as a prophage and is replicated passively with the host genome until induced into the lytic cycle.

  26. What is the principle of the streak-plate method and pour-plate method in microbiology?

    Both isolate pure colonies: the streak plate dilutes cells mechanically across an agar surface so single cells form separate colonies; the pour plate mixes serially diluted sample with molten agar so colonies grow within and on the medium (also enabling counts).

  27. Differentiate selective and differential media with an example each.

    Selective media suppress unwanted organisms and favor target growth (e.g., MacConkey inhibits Gram-positives). Differential media distinguish organisms by colony appearance via indicators (e.g., EMB or blood agar showing hemolysis).

  28. Name the four phases of a bacterial batch growth curve.

    Lag phase (adaptation, no division), log/exponential phase (maximal balanced growth), stationary phase (growth rate = death rate, nutrient depletion), and death/decline phase.

  29. Write the equation for exponential bacterial growth in terms of number and generation time.

    $$N = N_0 \times 2^{\,n}, \quad n = \frac{t}{g}$$ where $N_0$ is initial cell number, $n$ is the number of generations, $t$ is elapsed time, and $g$ is the generation (doubling) time.

  30. Classify microbes by their carbon and energy sources (the four nutritional types).

    Photoautotroph (light energy, $\ce{CO2}$ carbon), photoheterotroph (light energy, organic carbon), chemoautotroph/chemolithotroph (chemical energy, $\ce{CO2}$ carbon), and chemoheterotroph (chemical energy, organic carbon).

  31. What is biological nitrogen fixation, which enzyme catalyzes it, and why is it oxygen-sensitive?

    It is the reduction of atmospheric $\ce{N2}$ to ammonia by the nitrogenase enzyme complex: $$\ce{N2 + 8H+ + 8e- + 16ATP -> 2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi}$$ Nitrogenase is irreversibly inactivated by $\ce{O2}$, so fixers use protective strategies (e.g., leghemoglobin, heterocysts).

GATE Biotechnology General Biology FAQ

What is in the GATE Biotechnology General Biology syllabus?

GATE Biotechnology General Biology is split into 3 chapters: Biochemistry, Microbiology and Immunology. Together they contain 32 topics and 4 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in GATE Biotechnology General Biology?

3 chapters, containing 32 topics and 4 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Immunology, with 16 topics.

Are there flashcards for GATE Biotechnology General Biology?

Yes — a 51-card General Biology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.