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Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Pharmacology Syllabus

The Pharmacology syllabus for Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) in full: 6 chapters, 33 topics and 29 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Pharmacology flashcards with answers.

6Chapters
33Topics
29Sub-topics
50Flashcards

Pharmacology syllabus: all 6 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics

    6 topics
    • Absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion
    • Compartment models and context-sensitive half-time
      • Volume of distribution and clearance
      • Target-controlled infusion principles
    • Drug-receptor interactions
      • Agonists, antagonists, partial agonists and efficacy
      • Dose-response curves, EC50 and potency
    • Enzyme kinetics and metabolism
      • Phase I and Phase II reactions
      • Cytochrome P450 and enzyme induction/inhibition
    • Pharmacogenetics and individual variation
      • Plasma cholinesterase variants and malignant hyperthermia
    • Isomerism, chirality and stereochemistry
  2. Anaesthetic Agents

    5 topics
    • Inhalational anaesthetics
      • MAC and factors affecting it
      • Uptake, distribution and the second gas effect
      • Sevoflurane, isoflurane, desflurane and nitrous oxide
    • Intravenous induction agents
      • Propofol pharmacology and infusion syndrome
      • Thiopental, ketamine and etomidate
    • Mechanisms of general anaesthesia
    • Total intravenous anaesthesia and TCI models
    • Sedative agents and benzodiazepines
  3. Analgesics

    5 topics
    • Opioids
      • Receptor pharmacology and signalling
      • Morphine, fentanyl, remifentanil and oxycodone
      • Tolerance, dependence and opioid-induced hyperalgesia
    • Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
      • COX selectivity and adverse effects
    • Paracetamol pharmacology
    • Adjuvant analgesics
      • Gabapentinoids, ketamine, clonidine and dexmedetomidine
    • Local anaesthetics
      • Mechanism, pKa and differential block
      • Maximum safe doses and toxicity
      • Lipid emulsion for systemic toxicity
  4. Neuromuscular and Autonomic Drugs

    6 topics
    • Depolarising neuromuscular blockers
      • Suxamethonium and its complications
    • Non-depolarising neuromuscular blockers
      • Aminosteroid and benzylisoquinolinium agents
    • Reversal agents
      • Anticholinesterases and sugammadex
    • Sympathomimetics and inotropes
      • Adrenergic agonist selectivity and clinical use
    • Anticholinergics and cholinergic drugs
    • Antihypertensives and vasodilators
  5. Drugs Acting on Major Systems

    6 topics
    • Cardiovascular drugs
      • Antiarrhythmics and the Vaughan-Williams classification
      • Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers and digoxin
    • Drugs affecting coagulation
      • Heparins, warfarin and direct oral anticoagulants
      • Antiplatelets and antifibrinolytics
    • Respiratory drugs and bronchodilators
    • Antiemetics and prokinetics
    • Endocrine drugs
      • Corticosteroids, insulin and antidiabetic agents
    • Antimicrobials relevant to anaesthesia
  6. Special Topics and Toxicology

    5 topics
    • Drug interactions and adverse drug reactions
    • Anaphylaxis and drug allergy
    • Drugs in pregnancy, lactation and at the extremes of age
    • Drugs in renal and hepatic impairment
    • Antagonism, overdose and specific antidotes

Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Pharmacology flashcards — 50 questions with answers

  1. Define bioavailability ($F$) and give its formula relative to an IV dose.

    Bioavailability is the fraction of an administered dose reaching the systemic circulation unchanged. $$F = \frac{\text{AUC}_{\text{oral}} \times \text{Dose}_{IV}}{\text{AUC}_{IV} \times \text{Dose}_{\text{oral}}}$$ By definition $F = 1$ (100%) for IV administration.

  2. What equation relates volume of distribution to total drug amount and plasma concentration?

    $$V_d = \frac{\text{Total amount of drug in body}}{\text{Plasma concentration}}$$ A large $V_d$ implies extensive tissue distribution (e.g. lipophilic or highly tissue-bound drugs).

  3. State the formula for clearance in terms of elimination rate constant and volume of distribution.

    $$Cl = k_{e} \times V_d$$ where $k_e$ is the first-order elimination rate constant. Clearance is the volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit time.

  4. What is the relationship between elimination half-life, $V_d$ and clearance?

    $$t_{1/2} = \frac{0.693 \times V_d}{Cl} = \frac{\ln 2}{k_e}$$ Half-life rises with increasing $V_d$ and falls with increasing clearance.

  5. List the four phases of pharmacokinetics (ADME).

    Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism (biotransformation) and Excretion. These describe what the body does to the drug.

  6. Distinguish Phase I from Phase II metabolic reactions.

    Phase I reactions (oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis — often cytochrome P450) introduce or expose a reactive functional group. Phase II reactions are conjugations (glucuronidation, sulphation, acetylation, glutathione) that add a polar moiety to increase water solubility for excretion.

  7. In a two-compartment model, what do the $\alpha$ and $\beta$ phases represent?

    The $\alpha$ (distribution) phase is the rapid initial fall in plasma concentration as drug redistributes from central to peripheral compartments. The $\beta$ (elimination) phase is the slower terminal decline governed by metabolism/excretion.

  8. Define context-sensitive half-time.

    The time taken for the plasma (central compartment) concentration of a drug to fall by 50% after stopping a continuous infusion designed to maintain a steady concentration. It depends on infusion duration (the 'context') and is not the same as elimination half-life.

  9. Why does remifentanil have a near-constant context-sensitive half-time?

    Remifentanil is metabolised by non-specific plasma and tissue esterases, giving rapid organ-independent clearance. Its context-sensitive half-time remains approximately 3–5 minutes regardless of infusion duration, so it does not accumulate.

  10. Define agonist, antagonist and partial agonist at a receptor.

    An agonist binds and produces a maximal response (full intrinsic activity = 1). An antagonist binds with affinity but has no efficacy (intrinsic activity = 0), blocking agonist action. A partial agonist produces a submaximal response even at full occupancy (0 < intrinsic activity < 1).

  11. Contrast competitive and non-competitive antagonism on a log dose-response curve.

    Competitive (reversible) antagonism shifts the agonist curve to the right in a parallel fashion with no reduction in maximal response (surmountable). Non-competitive antagonism reduces the maximal response and is not overcome by increasing agonist (insurmountable).

  12. Define potency and efficacy.

    Potency is the amount of drug required to produce a given effect (related to $EC_{50}$ / position on the dose axis). Efficacy is the maximal achievable effect ($E_{max}$) once bound, reflecting intrinsic activity.

  13. Write the Michaelis-Menten equation for enzyme reaction velocity.

    $$V = \frac{V_{max}[S]}{K_m + [S]}$$ where $V_{max}$ is maximal velocity, $[S]$ substrate concentration and $K_m$ the substrate concentration at half $V_{max}$.

  14. What is the significance of $K_m$ in Michaelis-Menten kinetics?

    $K_m$ is the substrate concentration at which reaction velocity is half-maximal. A low $K_m$ indicates high enzyme affinity for substrate. When $[S] \ll K_m$ kinetics are first-order; when $[S] \gg K_m$ they are zero-order (saturated).

  15. Give two examples of drugs showing zero-order (saturation) kinetics at therapeutic doses.

    Phenytoin, ethanol, and high-dose aspirin (salicylate). Their elimination enzymes saturate, so a constant amount (not a constant fraction) is eliminated per unit time, risking disproportionate accumulation.

  16. What pharmacogenetic variation affects plasma cholinesterase and suxamethonium?

    Atypical (dibucaine-resistant) plasma cholinesterase due to inherited variants of the BCHE gene prolongs suxamethonium and mirivacurium action. A low dibucaine number (e.g. ~20 in homozygotes) indicates abnormal enzyme; normal is ~80.

  17. What is the dibucaine number and what does a value of 80 versus 20 indicate?

    The dibucaine number is the percentage inhibition of plasma cholinesterase by dibucaine. ~80 = normal homozygous enzyme (normal suxamethonium duration). ~40–60 = heterozygous. ~20 = homozygous atypical, causing prolonged apnoea after suxamethonium.

  18. Define enantiomers and explain why chirality matters in anaesthetic pharmacology.

    Enantiomers are stereoisomers that are non-superimposable mirror images (differ at a chiral centre). They can differ markedly in potency, toxicity and pharmacokinetics — e.g. levobupivacaine and ropivacaine (S-enantiomers) are less cardiotoxic than racemic bupivacaine.

  19. Classify isomerism into its main structural and stereoisomeric subtypes.

    Structural (constitutional) isomerism: chain, position, functional group, and tautomerism. Stereoisomerism: geometric (cis/trans), optical (enantiomers, R/S or d/l), and diastereoisomerism. Example: isoflurane and enflurane are structural (functional-group) isomers.

  20. State the Meyer-Overton correlation and its meaning for inhalational agents.

    The Meyer-Overton correlation states that anaesthetic potency correlates with lipid solubility (oil:gas partition coefficient): higher oil:gas solubility means lower MAC (greater potency). It suggested a lipid-membrane site of action.

Show the other 30 Pharmacology flashcards
  1. Define MAC (minimum alveolar concentration).

    MAC is the alveolar concentration of a volatile agent at one atmosphere that prevents movement to a standard surgical (skin) stimulus in 50% of subjects. It is an index of potency; the lower the MAC, the more potent the agent.

  2. List factors that increase and decrease MAC.

    Increase MAC: hyperthermia, chronic alcohol, hypernatraemia, infancy (peak ~6 months), MAO inhibitors, acute amphetamine/cocaine. Decrease MAC: increasing age, hypothermia, pregnancy, opioids/sedatives, acute alcohol, hyponatraemia, lithium, hypotension, nitrous oxide.

  3. Why does the blood:gas partition coefficient determine speed of inhalational induction?

    A low blood:gas coefficient (e.g. desflurane 0.42, sevoflurane 0.69) means the agent is less soluble in blood, so alveolar (and brain) partial pressure rises rapidly — fast onset and offset. High solubility (e.g. halothane 2.4) gives slower induction.

  4. State the induction dose and key feature of propofol.

    Propofol induction dose is approximately $1.5\text{–}2.5\ \text{mg·kg}^{-1}$ IV. It acts mainly via $GABA_A$ potentiation, causes dose-dependent hypotension and apnoea, suppresses airway reflexes, and is antiemetic. It is the agent of choice for TIVA.

  5. What are the features and risks of ketamine as an induction agent?

    Ketamine ($1\text{–}2\ \text{mg·kg}^{-1}$ IV) is an NMDA-receptor antagonist producing dissociative anaesthesia. It maintains airway reflexes and respiration, is a bronchodilator, raises BP/HR (sympathomimetic), provides analgesia, but causes emergence delirium and raised secretions/ICP concerns.

  6. Why is etomidate used cautiously despite cardiovascular stability?

    Etomidate gives haemodynamic stability (useful in shock/cardiac disease) but causes adrenocortical suppression by inhibiting $11\beta$-hydroxylase, even after a single dose. It also causes pain on injection and myoclonus.

  7. State the leading molecular hypothesis for the mechanism of general anaesthesia.

    Most IV and volatile agents enhance inhibitory neurotransmission by potentiating $GABA_A$ receptor chloride currents (and glycine receptors), while some (ketamine, nitrous oxide, xenon) antagonise excitatory NMDA receptors. Two-pore $K^+$ channels are also implicated.

  8. What is target-controlled infusion (TCI) and name two propofol models.

    TCI is a computer-controlled infusion that uses a pharmacokinetic model to achieve and maintain a user-set target plasma or effect-site concentration. Common propofol models: Marsh (weight-based) and Schnider (incorporates age, height, lean body mass).

  9. Distinguish plasma-site versus effect-site targeting in TCI.

    Plasma (Cp) targeting aims for a set plasma concentration and reaches the effect site more slowly. Effect-site (Ce) targeting overshoots plasma concentration to drive the effect-site to target faster, giving more rapid onset of clinical effect but a larger initial bolus.

  10. Compare midazolam and diazepam pharmacokinetics.

    Midazolam is water-soluble in its formulation but lipophilic at physiological pH (ring closure), with short half-life (~2–4 h) and active metabolite 1-hydroxymidazolam. Diazepam is long-acting (half-life 20–100 h) with active metabolites desmethyldiazepam, oxazepam and temazepam, causing prolonged sedation.

  11. How do benzodiazepines act at the $GABA_A$ receptor and what is the antidote?

    Benzodiazepines bind a specific site on the $GABA_A$ receptor and increase the frequency of chloride channel opening (potentiating GABA). The specific competitive antagonist is flumazenil, given in $0.2\ \text{mg}$ increments.

  12. Classify opioid receptors and the main effects of the $\mu$ receptor.

    Opioid receptors: $\mu$ (MOP), $\kappa$ (KOP), $\delta$ (DOP) and the nociceptin/orphanin (NOP) receptor — all G-protein coupled. $\mu$ activation gives analgesia, respiratory depression, euphoria, miosis, bradycardia, reduced gut motility and physical dependence.

  13. Why must morphine be used cautiously in renal failure?

    Morphine is metabolised by glucuronidation to morphine-3-glucuronide (inactive/neuroexcitatory) and morphine-6-glucuronide (M6G), an active analgesic and respiratory depressant cleared renally. In renal impairment M6G accumulates, causing prolonged sedation and respiratory depression.

  14. Describe the mechanism of action of NSAIDs.

    NSAIDs inhibit cyclo-oxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2), reducing conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandins, prostacyclin and thromboxane. This gives analgesia, anti-inflammatory and antipyretic effects. COX-1 inhibition underlies gastric and renal/platelet side effects.

  15. List the main contraindications/cautions for perioperative NSAIDs.

    Renal impairment/hypovolaemia, active peptic ulceration or GI bleeding, aspirin-sensitive asthma, bleeding diatheses/anticoagulation, heart failure and uncontrolled hypertension, and caution in the elderly. They impair platelet function and renal perfusion via prostaglandin inhibition.

  16. Summarise current understanding of paracetamol's mechanism of action.

    Paracetamol is a centrally-acting analgesic and antipyretic with weak peripheral COX activity. Proposed mechanisms include central COX inhibition, the active metabolite AM404 acting on cannabinoid/TRPV1 and descending serotonergic pathways. It is not significantly anti-inflammatory.

  17. Describe paracetamol toxicity mechanism and its antidote.

    In overdose, glucuronidation/sulphation saturate and excess paracetamol forms NAPQI via CYP2E1. NAPQI depletes glutathione and causes hepatocellular necrosis. N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione and is the antidote, most effective within 8 hours.

  18. Name three classes of adjuvant analgesics and an example of each.

    Anticonvulsants (gabapentin, pregabalin — neuropathic pain), tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline) and SNRIs (duloxetine), and $\alpha_2$-agonists (clonidine, dexmedetomidine). Ketamine (NMDA antagonist) is also used as an analgesic adjuvant.

  19. What determines the speed of onset and duration of local anaesthetics?

    Onset depends on $pK_a$ (proportion unionised at tissue pH that crosses membranes — closer $pK_a$ to 7.4 means faster onset). Duration depends on protein binding and lipid solubility; potency correlates with lipid solubility.

  20. State the maximum safe doses of lidocaine with and without adrenaline.

    Plain lidocaine: approximately $3\ \text{mg·kg}^{-1}$. Lidocaine with adrenaline: approximately $7\ \text{mg·kg}^{-1}$ (adrenaline causes vasoconstriction, slowing systemic absorption). Bupivacaine maximum is approximately $2\ \text{mg·kg}^{-1}$.

  21. Outline the management of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST).

    Stop injection, call for help, manage airway/breathing/circulation with 100% oxygen, control seizures (benzodiazepine), and give IV lipid emulsion 20%: initial bolus $1.5\ \text{mL·kg}^{-1}$ over 1 min followed by an infusion of $15\ \text{mL·kg}^{-1}\text{·h}^{-1}$. Prolonged CPR may be needed.

  22. Describe the mechanism and characteristics of a phase I suxamethonium block.

    Suxamethonium is a depolarising neuromuscular blocker that binds nicotinic ACh receptors, causing sustained depolarisation. Phase I block shows fasciculations then flaccid paralysis, no fade on train-of-four, no post-tetanic potentiation, and is not antagonised (potentiated) by anticholinesterases.

  23. List key adverse effects and contraindications of suxamethonium.

    Hyperkalaemia (dangerous in burns, spinal cord injury, prolonged immobility — avoid after ~24–72 h), malignant hyperthermia trigger, bradycardia, raised intraocular/intragastric/intracranial pressure, myalgia, anaphylaxis, and prolonged block with atypical cholinesterase.

  24. Compare aminosteroid and benzylisoquinolinium non-depolarising blockers with examples.

    Aminosteroids (rocuronium, vecuronium, pancuronium) are metabolised hepatically/renally and reversible by sugammadex. Benzylisoquinoliniums (atracurium, cisatracurium, mivacurium) — atracurium/cisatracurium undergo organ-independent Hofmann elimination and may cause histamine release.

  25. Why is cisatracurium favoured in organ failure?

    Cisatracurium undergoes Hofmann elimination — spontaneous non-enzymatic degradation dependent on temperature and pH, independent of hepatic or renal function. Unlike atracurium it causes negligible histamine release and produces little laudanosine.

  26. Explain how neostigmine reverses non-depolarising blockade and why glycopyrronium is co-administered.

    Neostigmine inhibits acetylcholinesterase, increasing ACh at the neuromuscular junction to outcompete the blocker. The resulting muscarinic effects (bradycardia, salivation, bronchospasm) are countered by an antimuscarinic such as glycopyrronium or atropine.

  27. Describe sugammadex and its dosing principle.

    Sugammadex is a modified $\gamma$-cyclodextrin that encapsulates aminosteroid relaxants (rocuronium > vecuronium) in plasma, terminating their effect. Dose: $2\ \text{mg·kg}^{-1}$ for moderate block, $4\ \text{mg·kg}^{-1}$ for deep block, $16\ \text{mg·kg}^{-1}$ for immediate reversal after rocuronium.

  28. Compare the receptor actions of adrenaline, noradrenaline and dobutamine.

    Adrenaline: $\alpha_1$, $\beta_1$, $\beta_2$ (dose-dependent). Noradrenaline: predominantly $\alpha_1$ with some $\beta_1$ (vasopressor). Dobutamine: predominantly $\beta_1$ (inotrope) with mild $\beta_2$ — increases contractility and may reduce afterload.

  29. Distinguish the actions of atropine and glycopyrronium.

    Both are antimuscarinic anticholinergics. Atropine is a tertiary amine that crosses the blood-brain barrier (central effects, more tachycardia) and placenta. Glycopyrronium is a quaternary amine that does not cross the BBB or placenta, giving fewer central effects and good antisialagogue action.

  30. Outline the mechanism and reversal of warfarin and heparin.

    Warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, reducing synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, X (and proteins C/S); monitored by INR, reversed by vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate. Unfractionated heparin potentiates antithrombin III (monitored by APTT) and is reversed by protamine.

Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Pharmacology FAQ

What is in the Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Pharmacology syllabus?

Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Pharmacology is split into 6 chapters: Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics, Anaesthetic Agents, Analgesics, Neuromuscular and Autonomic Drugs, Drugs Acting on Major Systems and Special Topics and Toxicology. Together they contain 33 topics and 29 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Pharmacology?

6 chapters, containing 33 topics and 29 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Pharmacology?

Yes — a 50-card Pharmacology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.