πŸ‡¬πŸ‡§ Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Β· subject

Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Intensive Care, Pain Medicine and Resuscitation Syllabus

The Intensive Care, Pain Medicine and Resuscitation syllabus for Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) in full: 5 chapters, 26 topics and 7 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 55 Intensive Care, Pain Medicine and Resuscitation flashcards with answers.

5Chapters
26Topics
7Sub-topics
55Flashcards

Intensive Care, Pain Medicine and Resuscitation syllabus: all 5 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Critical Care Fundamentals

    5 topics
    • Admission, triage and levels of care
    • Shock states and haemodynamic support
      • Septic, cardiogenic, hypovolaemic and distributive shock
    • Sepsis recognition and management
      • Sepsis Six and source control
    • Multi-organ dysfunction syndrome
    • Scoring systems and outcome prediction
  2. Organ Support

    5 topics
    • Mechanical ventilation
      • Modes of ventilation and lung-protective strategies
      • ARDS management
    • Renal replacement therapy
    • Cardiovascular support and mechanical assist devices
    • Nutrition in critical illness
    • Sedation, analgesia and delirium management
  3. Specific Critical Illness

    5 topics
    • Acute respiratory failure
    • Acute kidney injury
    • Neurological emergencies
      • Status epilepticus and raised intracranial pressure
    • Poisoning and overdose
    • Brainstem death and organ donation
  4. Resuscitation and Emergencies

    5 topics
    • Adult advanced life support
      • Shockable and non-shockable rhythms
    • Paediatric and neonatal resuscitation
    • Trauma and major haemorrhage management
    • Peri-arrest arrhythmias
    • Post-resuscitation care
  5. Pain Medicine

    6 topics
    • Assessment and classification of pain
    • Acute pain services and management
    • Chronic pain management
      • Neuropathic pain and pharmacological ladder
    • Cancer pain and palliative care
    • Interventional pain techniques
    • Psychological and multidisciplinary approaches

Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Intensive Care, Pain Medicine and Resuscitation flashcards β€” 55 questions with answers

  1. What are the UK Intensive Care Society levels of care, from Level 0 to Level 3?

    Level 0: normal ward care. Level 1: ward care with additional monitoring/support or recently stepped down from higher levels. Level 2: HDU β€” single organ support (excluding advanced respiratory) and more detailed observation, e.g. 1:2 nursing. Level 3: ICU β€” advanced respiratory support alone, or support of $\geq 2$ organ systems, typically 1:1 nursing.

  2. Define shock and list the four broad physiological categories.

    Shock is inadequate tissue oxygen delivery/perfusion to meet metabolic demand, causing cellular hypoxia. Categories: hypovolaemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive (e.g. septic, anaphylactic, neurogenic).

  3. Give the formula for oxygen delivery ($DO_2$) and a normal value.

    $$DO_2 = CO \times CaO_2 = CO \times (1.34 \times Hb \times SaO_2 + 0.003 \times PaO_2)$$ Normal $DO_2 \approx 1000\ \text{mL min}^{-1}$ (or $\approx 500\text{–}550\ \text{mL min}^{-1}\,\text{m}^{-2}$ indexed).

  4. What is the Surviving Sepsis Campaign 'Hour-1' bundle?

    Measure lactate (re-measure if $>2$); obtain blood cultures before antibiotics; give broad-spectrum antibiotics; begin rapid crystalloid $30\ \text{mL kg}^{-1}$ for hypotension or lactate $\geq 4\ \text{mmol L}^{-1}$; start vasopressors if hypotensive during/after fluids to maintain MAP $\geq 65\ \text{mmHg}$.

  5. State the Sepsis-3 definitions of sepsis and septic shock.

    Sepsis: life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, identified as an acute rise in SOFA score $\geq 2$ points. Septic shock: sepsis with vasopressor requirement to maintain MAP $\geq 65\ \text{mmHg}$ AND lactate $>2\ \text{mmol L}^{-1}$ despite adequate fluid resuscitation.

  6. What is the qSOFA score and what defines a positive screen?

    qSOFA (quick SOFA) is a bedside screen: respiratory rate $\geq 22\ \text{min}^{-1}$, altered mentation (GCS $<15$), systolic BP $\leq 100\ \text{mmHg}$ β€” 1 point each. A score $\geq 2$ identifies patients at higher risk of poor outcome.

  7. What is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock, and what is added if MAP targets are not met?

    Noradrenaline is first-line. If MAP remains inadequate, add vasopressin (up to $0.03\ \text{units min}^{-1}$); add adrenaline as third-line. Hydrocortisone is considered in refractory shock requiring ongoing vasopressors.

  8. Define Multi-Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS).

    MODS is the presence of altered organ function in an acutely ill patient such that homeostasis cannot be maintained without intervention. It typically involves progressive, potentially reversible dysfunction of $\geq 2$ organ systems following an insult such as sepsis, trauma, or major surgery.

  9. In the SOFA score, which six organ systems are assessed?

    Respiratory ($PaO_2/FiO_2$ ratio), coagulation (platelets), liver (bilirubin), cardiovascular (MAP/vasopressor dose), central nervous system (GCS), and renal (creatinine/urine output). Each scored 0–4.

  10. What are the components of the original APACHE II score?

    Acute Physiology score (12 physiological variables including temperature, MAP, heart rate, respiratory rate, oxygenation, arterial pH, sodium, potassium, creatinine, haematocrit, WCC, GCS) plus age points and chronic health points. Maximum 71; higher scores predict higher hospital mortality.

  11. State the Berlin definition criteria for ARDS, including severity bands.

    Acute onset within 1 week, bilateral infiltrates on imaging not fully explained by effusions/collapse, respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure/fluid overload, with PEEP $\geq 5\ \text{cmH}_2\text{O}$. Severity by $PaO_2/FiO_2$: mild $201\text{–}300$, moderate $101\text{–}200$, severe $\leq 100\ \text{mmHg}$.

  12. Summarise the key lung-protective ventilation strategy for ARDS.

    Tidal volume $6\ \text{mL kg}^{-1}$ predicted body weight, plateau pressure $\leq 30\ \text{cmH}_2\text{O}$, driving pressure ideally $<15\ \text{cmH}_2\text{O}$, adequate PEEP, permissive hypercapnia, and prone positioning ($\geq 16$ h/day) for $PaO_2/FiO_2 < 150$.

  13. What is compliance of the respiratory system and how is static compliance calculated?

    Compliance is change in volume per unit change in pressure. $$C_{static} = \frac{V_T}{P_{plateau} - PEEP}$$ Normal static compliance is approximately $50\text{–}100\ \text{mL cmH}_2\text{O}^{-1}$.

  14. Define driving pressure and its significance in mechanical ventilation.

    Driving pressure $\Delta P = P_{plateau} - PEEP$ (equals $V_T/C_{rs}$). It reflects cyclic lung strain; values $>15\ \text{cmH}_2\text{O}$ are associated with increased mortality in ARDS, so it is targeted to be kept low.

  15. What are the KDIGO stages of Acute Kidney Injury?

    Stage 1: creatinine $1.5\text{–}1.9\times$ baseline or rise $\geq 26.5\ \mu\text{mol L}^{-1}$, or urine output $<0.5\ \text{mL kg}^{-1}\text{h}^{-1}$ for 6–12 h. Stage 2: creatinine $2.0\text{–}2.9\times$, or UO $<0.5$ for $\geq 12$ h. Stage 3: creatinine $\geq 3\times$ or $\geq 353.6\ \mu\text{mol L}^{-1}$ or RRT initiated, or UO $<0.3$ for $\geq 24$ h or anuria $\geq 12$ h.

  16. List the urgent (AEIOU) indications for renal replacement therapy in AKI.

    Acidosis (severe metabolic, pH $<7.1$), Electrolyte disturbance (refractory hyperkalaemia $>6.5\ \text{mmol L}^{-1}$), Intoxication (dialysable toxins e.g. lithium, salicylate, metformin, ethylene glycol), Overload (refractory fluid/pulmonary oedema), Uraemia (encephalopathy, pericarditis, bleeding).

  17. Compare CVVH and CVVHD modes of continuous renal replacement therapy.

    CVVH (continuous veno-venous haemofiltration) clears solutes by convection (solvent drag across membrane with replacement fluid), favouring middle molecules. CVVHD (haemodialysis) clears by diffusion down a concentration gradient using countercurrent dialysate, favouring small solutes. CVVHDF combines both.

  18. Give the formula for cardiac output and a normal value.

    $$CO = HR \times SV$$ Normal cardiac output is approximately $4\text{–}8\ \text{L min}^{-1}$; cardiac index (CO/BSA) is $2.5\text{–}4.0\ \text{L min}^{-1}\,\text{m}^{-2}$.

  19. How does an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) work and what are its haemodynamic effects?

    A balloon in the descending aorta inflates during diastole and deflates just before systole (counterpulsation). Diastolic inflation augments coronary perfusion; presystolic deflation reduces afterload, decreasing myocardial oxygen demand and improving cardiac output. Timed to the ECG/arterial waveform.

  20. What is the difference between VA-ECMO and VV-ECMO?

    VA (veno-arterial) ECMO provides both cardiac and respiratory support by draining venous blood and returning oxygenated blood into the arterial system, bypassing heart and lungs β€” used in cardiogenic shock/cardiac arrest. VV (veno-venous) ECMO provides respiratory support only, returning oxygenated blood to the venous side; the native heart maintains circulation β€” used in severe respiratory failure.

Show the other 35 Intensive Care, Pain Medicine and Resuscitation flashcards
  1. What are the calorie and protein targets in critical illness nutrition?

    Energy target approximately $25\text{–}30\ \text{kcal kg}^{-1}\text{day}^{-1}$ and protein $1.2\text{–}2.0\ \text{g kg}^{-1}\text{day}^{-1}$, ideally introduced gradually. Enteral nutrition is preferred over parenteral; underfeeding is common early and full targets are typically reached by day 3–7.

  2. What is refeeding syndrome and which electrolyte change is the hallmark?

    A potentially fatal shift in fluids and electrolytes when nutrition is reintroduced to a malnourished/starved patient, driven by an insulin surge. The hallmark is hypophosphataemia; hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia and thiamine deficiency also occur. Manage by slow refeeding and electrolyte/thiamine replacement.

  3. What scoring tools are recommended for ICU sedation and delirium assessment?

    Sedation: Richmond Agitation–Sedation Scale (RASS, $-5$ to $+4$) with a target around $0$ to $-2$. Delirium: CAM-ICU (Confusion Assessment Method for the ICU) or ICDSC (Intensive Care Delirium Screening Checklist).

  4. What is the ABCDEF bundle for ICU liberation and delirium prevention?

    A β€” Assess/manage pain; B β€” Both spontaneous awakening and breathing trials; C β€” Choice of analgesia and sedation; D β€” Delirium assess, prevent, manage; E β€” Early mobility/exercise; F β€” Family engagement and empowerment.

  5. What are the four main types of acute respiratory failure by mechanism/blood gas?

    Type 1: hypoxaemic ($PaO_2 < 8\ \text{kPa}$, normal/low $PaCO_2$) β€” V/Q mismatch, shunt. Type 2: hypercapnic ($PaCO_2 > 6.0\ \text{kPa}$ with hypoxaemia) β€” alveolar hypoventilation. Type 3: perioperative/atelectasis. Type 4: shock-related (hypoperfusion of respiratory muscles).

  6. State the alveolar gas equation.

    $$P_AO_2 = FiO_2(P_{atm} - P_{H_2O}) - \frac{P_aCO_2}{R}$$ where $R$ (respiratory quotient) $\approx 0.8$ and $P_{H_2O} = 6.3\ \text{kPa}$ at $37^\circ\text{C}$. At sea level on air: $P_AO_2 \approx 0.21(101 - 6.3) - \frac{5.3}{0.8} \approx 13\ \text{kPa}$.

  7. What are the UK preconditions and exclusions before performing brainstem death testing?

    Precondition: known, irreversible cause of catastrophic brain injury causing apnoeic coma. Exclusions: no sedative/neuromuscular blocking drug effect, no severe metabolic/endocrine derangement, normothermia (temp $>34^\circ\text{C}$), and acceptable physiological parameters. Two competent doctors perform two sets of tests.

  8. List the brainstem reflexes tested in UK brainstem death testing.

    Pupillary light reflex (fixed, unreactive pupils), corneal reflex, vestibulo-ocular reflex (cold caloric β€” no eye movement), no motor response within cranial nerve distribution to supraorbital pressure, gag and cough reflexes, and the apnoea test (no respiratory effort with $PaCO_2 > 6.65\ \text{kPa}$ and pH $<7.4$).

  9. Outline the adult ALS shockable rhythm algorithm.

    For VF/pulseless VT: deliver a shock, immediately resume CPR for 2 min. Reassess; if still shockable, second shock then CPR. After the 3rd shock give adrenaline $1\ \text{mg}$ IV and amiodarone $300\ \text{mg}$ IV, then adrenaline every 3–5 min (alternate cycles). Give a further amiodarone $150\ \text{mg}$ after the 5th shock.

  10. How is adrenaline used differently between shockable and non-shockable cardiac arrest?

    In non-shockable rhythms (PEA/asystole), give adrenaline $1\ \text{mg}$ IV as soon as access is obtained. In shockable rhythms (VF/pVT), give adrenaline $1\ \text{mg}$ only after the 3rd shock. Thereafter repeat every 3–5 minutes (every other 2-minute loop) in both.

  11. List the reversible causes of cardiac arrest (4 Hs and 4 Ts).

    4 Hs: Hypoxia, Hypovolaemia, Hyper/hypokalaemia (and metabolic), Hypothermia. 4 Ts: Thrombosis (coronary/pulmonary), Tension pneumothorax, Tamponade (cardiac), Toxins.

  12. What are the key drug doses in paediatric advanced life support?

    Adrenaline $10\ \mu\text{g kg}^{-1}$ ($0.1\ \text{mL kg}^{-1}$ of $1{:}10\,000$) IV/IO. Amiodarone $5\ \text{mg kg}^{-1}$ after the 3rd and 5th shocks in shockable rhythm. Defibrillation energy $4\ \text{J kg}^{-1}$. Fluid bolus $10\text{–}20\ \text{mL kg}^{-1}$.

  13. Describe the initial steps of newborn life support at birth.

    Dry, wrap and stimulate, start the clock, assess tone/breathing/heart rate. If gasping/not breathing, open airway and give 5 inflation breaths (sustained, $\sim 30\ \text{cmH}_2\text{O}$). Reassess; if HR $<60\ \text{min}^{-1}$ despite effective ventilation, start chest compressions at a 3:1 compression:ventilation ratio.

  14. What ratio of fluid/blood and ventilation differs in neonatal versus adult resuscitation?

    Neonatal resuscitation uses a compression:ventilation ratio of 3:1 (aiming ~120 events/min: 90 compressions + 30 breaths), reflecting the respiratory cause of most neonatal arrests. Adult single/two-rescuer CPR uses 30:2, and paediatric (with 2 rescuers) uses 15:2.

  15. Define major haemorrhage and outline the typical massive transfusion ratio.

    Major haemorrhage is loss of one entire blood volume within 24 h, or 50% of blood volume in 3 h, or ongoing loss $>150\ \text{mL min}^{-1}$. Empirical resuscitation targets a balanced ratio of red cells : FFP : platelets approaching $1{:}1{:}1$. Give tranexamic acid $1\ \text{g}$ early (within 3 h).

  16. What is the lethal triad (trauma triad of death) in major haemorrhage?

    Hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy. These three reinforce each other in a vicious cycle, worsening bleeding. Management emphasises damage control resuscitation: permissive hypotension, haemostatic resuscitation, and rapid surgical/haemorrhage control.

  17. How is a regular narrow-complex tachycardia with adverse features managed in the peri-arrest setting?

    If unstable (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure): synchronised DC cardioversion (up to 3 attempts), then amiodarone $300\ \text{mg}$ IV if unsuccessful. If stable and regular narrow-complex: vagal manoeuvres, then adenosine $6\ \text{mg}$ rapid IV (then $12\ \text{mg}$, then $18\text{ mg}$).

  18. How is bradycardia with adverse features or risk of asystole managed?

    Give atropine $500\ \mu\text{g}$ IV, repeat to a maximum of $3\ \text{mg}$. If no response, use second-line measures: transcutaneous pacing, or isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion, or alternatives (aminophylline, glucagon for beta-blocker overdose). Seek expert help for transvenous pacing.

  19. What are the key targets of post-resuscitation (post-cardiac arrest) care?

    Maintain $SpO_2$ $94\text{–}98\%$ (avoid hyperoxia) and normocapnia, target MAP to achieve adequate urine output and normal/falling lactate, treat the cause (e.g. PCI for STEMI), control temperature (targeted temperature management, avoid fever $\geq 37.7^\circ\text{C}$ for $\geq 72$ h), control seizures, and maintain normoglycaemia.

  20. Define post-cardiac arrest syndrome and its four components.

    A pathophysiological state after ROSC comprising: (1) post-cardiac arrest brain injury, (2) post-cardiac arrest myocardial dysfunction, (3) systemic ischaemia/reperfusion response (sepsis-like), and (4) the persistent precipitating pathology.

  21. Differentiate nociceptive, neuropathic and nociplastic pain.

    Nociceptive: arises from actual/threatened tissue damage activating nociceptors (e.g. surgical, inflammatory). Neuropathic: caused by a lesion or disease of the somatosensory nervous system (e.g. burning, shooting, allodynia). Nociplastic: pain from altered nociception without clear tissue damage or nerve lesion (e.g. fibromyalgia).

  22. Outline the WHO analgesic ladder.

    Step 1: non-opioid $\pm$ adjuvant (paracetamol, NSAID). Step 2: weak opioid (codeine, tramadol) $\pm$ non-opioid $\pm$ adjuvant. Step 3: strong opioid (morphine) $\pm$ non-opioid $\pm$ adjuvant. Originally for cancer pain; analgesia given 'by mouth, by the clock, by the ladder'. A 4th interventional step is sometimes added.

  23. What are the core roles of an acute pain service (APS)?

    To manage and optimise post-operative and acute pain, supervise techniques such as PCA and epidural analgesia, provide staff education and protocols, audit pain outcomes and complications, manage opioid-tolerant/complex patients, and act as a multidisciplinary link improving safety and quality of pain relief.

  24. What are typical settings for a morphine PCA in a postoperative adult?

    Bolus dose $1\ \text{mg}$ IV with a lockout interval of 5 minutes, usually no background infusion in opioid-naive patients. The lockout prevents stacking; the patient self-titrates within safe limits, with monitoring of sedation and respiratory rate.

  25. What is the mechanism and a key safety concern of epidural local anaesthetic/opioid analgesia?

    Local anaesthetic blocks neuraxial sodium channels (segmental sensory/sympathetic block) and opioids act on dorsal horn opioid receptors. Key concerns: hypotension from sympathetic block, motor block, urinary retention, respiratory depression (especially with neuraxial opioids), and the rare but serious epidural haematoma or abscess.

  26. Name three drug classes used for neuropathic pain and an example of each.

    Tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline), gabapentinoids (gabapentin, pregabalin), and SNRIs (duloxetine). NICE first-line options for neuropathic pain are amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin; topical capsaicin or lidocaine for localised pain.

  27. What principles guide cancer pain management and opioid dosing for breakthrough pain?

    Use regular background analgesia (often modified-release strong opioid) titrated to a 24-hour requirement, with immediate-release opioid for breakthrough pain at approximately $\frac{1}{6}$ ($\frac{1}{10}\text{–}\frac{1}{6}$) of the total daily dose. Add adjuvants for specific pain types and treat opioid side effects (e.g. prophylactic laxatives).

  28. How do you convert oral morphine to subcutaneous morphine and to oral oxycodone?

    Oral morphine to subcutaneous morphine: divide by 2. Oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine: divide by 3. Oral morphine to oral oxycodone: divide by approximately 1.5–2. Always reduce the calculated dose when switching opioids to account for incomplete cross-tolerance.

  29. Give examples of interventional pain techniques and a typical indication for each.

    Epidural/transforaminal steroid injection (radicular leg pain), medial branch block/radiofrequency denervation (facet joint pain), coeliac plexus block (upper abdominal/pancreatic cancer pain), stellate ganglion block (CRPS of the arm), and spinal cord stimulation (failed back surgery syndrome, refractory neuropathic pain).

  30. What is the biopsychosocial model and why is a multidisciplinary approach used in chronic pain?

    The biopsychosocial model views pain as the product of interacting biological, psychological (mood, beliefs, catastrophising) and social (work, relationships) factors. Because chronic pain is multifactorial, a multidisciplinary team (physicians, physiotherapists, psychologists, nurses) addresses physical function, psychological coping (e.g. CBT, acceptance and commitment therapy) and social reintegration rather than pain intensity alone.

  31. Name common pain assessment tools, including one for non-verbal/critically ill patients.

    Unidimensional: Visual Analogue Scale (VAS), Numerical Rating Scale (NRS 0–10), Verbal Rating Scale. Multidimensional: McGill Pain Questionnaire, Brief Pain Inventory. Neuropathic screening: DN4, painDETECT, LANSS. For non-verbal/ventilated ICU patients: Behavioural Pain Scale (BPS) or Critical-Care Pain Observation Tool (CPOT).

  32. What general approach is used in the assessment of an acutely poisoned patient?

    Resuscitate using ABCDE first (airway protection, support breathing/circulation), correct hypoglycaemia, then take a focused toxicological history and identify toxidromes. Use supportive care as the mainstay; consider decontamination (activated charcoal if within ~1 h), specific antidotes, and enhanced elimination. Consult TOXBASE/National Poisons Information Service.

  33. Match these poisons to their specific antidotes: paracetamol, opioids, benzodiazepines, organophosphates, and beta-blockers.

    Paracetamol β€” N-acetylcysteine; opioids β€” naloxone; benzodiazepines β€” flumazenil (used cautiously); organophosphates β€” atropine (plus pralidoxime); beta-blockers β€” glucagon (plus high-dose insulin euglycaemia therapy). Other notables: digoxin β€” Fab fragments; iron β€” desferrioxamine; cyanide β€” hydroxocobalamin.

  34. How is the conscious level of a neurological emergency graded, and what GCS threshold mandates airway protection?

    The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS, score 3–15) grades eye (4), verbal (5) and motor (6) responses. A GCS $\leq 8$ indicates coma and typically mandates definitive airway protection (intubation) because of the loss of protective airway reflexes and risk of aspiration.

  35. What physiological targets are used in the management of raised intracranial pressure / acute brain injury?

    Maintain cerebral perfusion pressure $CPP = MAP - ICP$, targeting CPP $\geq 60\text{–}70\ \text{mmHg}$ and ICP $<22\ \text{mmHg}$. Strategies: head-up $30^\circ$, normocapnia ($PaCO_2$ ~$4.5\text{–}5.0\ \text{kPa}$), adequate oxygenation, normothermia, avoid hyponatraemia, osmotherapy (mannitol or hypertonic saline), and treat seizures.

Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Intensive Care, Pain Medicine and Resuscitation FAQ

What is in the Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Intensive Care, Pain Medicine and Resuscitation syllabus?

Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Intensive Care, Pain Medicine and Resuscitation is split into 5 chapters: Critical Care Fundamentals, Organ Support, Specific Critical Illness, Resuscitation and Emergencies and Pain Medicine. Together they contain 26 topics and 7 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Intensive Care, Pain Medicine and Resuscitation?

5 chapters, containing 26 topics and 7 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Pain Medicine, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists (FRCA) Intensive Care, Pain Medicine and Resuscitation?

Yes β€” a 55-card Intensive Care, Pain Medicine and Resuscitation deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.