🌍 Cybersecurity · subject
Cybersecurity Systems, Cloud, and Application Security Syllabus
The Systems, Cloud, and Application Security syllabus for Cybersecurity in full: 6 chapters and 23 topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Systems, Cloud, and Application Security flashcards with answers.
Systems, Cloud, and Application Security syllabus: all 6 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
-
Endpoint and Host Hardening
4 topics- Operating System Hardening
- Host-Based Firewalls and Antivirus
- Patch and Configuration Management
- Secure Boot and Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
-
Secure Software Development
4 topics- Secure SDLC
- Input Validation and Output Encoding
- Code Review and SAST/DAST
- Dependency and Supply Chain Security
-
Cloud Security
4 topics- Cloud Service and Deployment Models
- Shared Responsibility Model
- Cloud Identity and Access Management
- Cloud Misconfigurations and CASB
-
Virtualization and Container Security
3 topics- Hypervisor Security and VM Escape
- Container Security (Docker)
- Kubernetes Security
-
Mobile and IoT Security
4 topics- Mobile Device Management (MDM)
- Mobile Application Security
- IoT and Embedded Device Threats
- OT and ICS/SCADA Security
-
Data Protection and Privacy
4 topics- Data Classification and Labeling
- Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
- Encryption at Rest and in Transit
- Data Sanitization and Destruction
Cybersecurity Systems, Cloud, and Application Security flashcards — 50 questions with answers
What is operating system hardening?
The process of reducing a system's attack surface by disabling unnecessary services, ports, and accounts, applying least privilege, removing default/unused software, enforcing strong configurations, and applying patches to make the OS more resistant to attack.
Name four core techniques used in OS hardening.
Disabling/removing unneeded services and ports; removing default or unused accounts and changing default passwords; applying least-privilege permissions; enabling logging/auditing and applying security patches (often guided by CIS Benchmarks or a security baseline).
What is a security baseline (e.g., a CIS Benchmark)?
A documented, standardized set of secure configuration settings for a system or application that defines the minimum acceptable security posture; systems are configured to and audited against this baseline.
How does a host-based firewall differ from a network firewall?
A host-based firewall runs on and protects a single endpoint, filtering that host's inbound/outbound traffic (and can be application-aware), whereas a network firewall sits at a network boundary and protects many hosts at a choke point.
Contrast signature-based and heuristic/behavior-based antivirus detection.
Signature-based detection matches files against a database of known malware signatures (fast, but misses new/zero-day threats); heuristic/behavior-based detection flags suspicious code patterns or runtime behavior, catching unknown malware but producing more false positives.
What is patch management and why is it critical?
The lifecycle process of identifying, acquiring, testing, and deploying software/firmware updates. It is critical because unpatched known vulnerabilities (CVEs) are a leading cause of breaches; timely patching closes the exploit window.
What is configuration management in a security context?
The practice of establishing and maintaining known-good, consistent system configurations through baselines, version control, and drift detection, so that changes are controlled and deviations from the secure baseline are detected and corrected.
What is configuration drift?
The gradual, unmanaged divergence of a system's actual configuration from its approved secure baseline over time, caused by ad-hoc changes; it reintroduces vulnerabilities and is detected via configuration management/auditing tools.
What is UEFI Secure Boot and what does it protect against?
A firmware feature that verifies the digital signature of each boot component (bootloader, kernel) against trusted keys before execution, ensuring only trusted, unmodified code boots. It protects against bootkits and boot-level rootkits.
What is a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?
A dedicated, tamper-resistant hardware chip (or firmware equivalent) that securely generates and stores cryptographic keys, performs crypto operations, and provides platform integrity measurements; used for full-disk encryption (e.g., BitLocker), device identity, and attestation.
What are TPM Platform Configuration Registers (PCRs) used for?
PCRs store cryptographic hashes (measurements) of boot components in a way that can only be extended, not overwritten. They enable measured boot and remote attestation, and can seal secrets so keys are released only if the measured boot state is unchanged.
What is the Secure Software Development Life Cycle (Secure SDLC)?
An approach that integrates security activities into every phase of software development (requirements, design, implementation, testing, deployment, maintenance) rather than bolting security on at the end—shifting security 'left.'
What does 'shift left' mean in secure development?
Moving security activities (threat modeling, testing, static analysis, secure coding) earlier in the development lifecycle, because defects found earlier are cheaper and easier to fix than those found in production.
What is threat modeling and name a common framework?
A structured process of identifying, enumerating, and prioritizing potential threats and mitigations for a system, typically during design. A common framework is STRIDE (Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, Elevation of privilege).
Why is input validation a fundamental security control?
Because untrusted input is the root of many attacks (injection, XSS, buffer overflows); validating input ensures data conforms to expected type, length, format, and range before processing, reducing the attack surface.
Contrast allowlist (whitelist) and denylist (blacklist) input validation. Which is preferred?
Allowlist validation accepts only known-good inputs matching a defined pattern; denylist rejects known-bad inputs. Allowlisting is preferred because it is far harder to bypass—denylists inevitably miss novel malicious inputs.
What is output encoding and which attack does it primarily prevent?
Converting output data into a safe representation for its destination context (HTML, JavaScript, URL, SQL) so it is treated as data, not executable code. It primarily prevents Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) and other injection attacks.
What is the difference between static (SAST) and dynamic (DAST) application security testing?
SAST analyzes source/byte code without executing it (white-box, finds flaws early like injection sinks), while DAST tests a running application from the outside (black-box, finds runtime/config issues but later in the cycle).
What is Interactive Application Security Testing (IAST)?
A hybrid technique that instruments a running application (via agents) to observe code execution and data flow during testing, combining aspects of SAST and DAST for more accurate, lower-false-positive findings with runtime context.
What is a manual secure code review looking for that automated tools may miss?
Business-logic flaws, authorization gaps, insecure design decisions, and context-dependent issues—problems requiring human understanding of intent that pattern-based SAST/DAST tools typically cannot detect.
Show the other 30 Systems, Cloud, and Application Security flashcards
What is a software supply chain attack?
An attack that compromises software indirectly by targeting a trusted third-party component, dependency, build pipeline, or vendor update mechanism (e.g., SolarWinds, malicious npm packages), so the malicious code is delivered through legitimate distribution.
What is a Software Bill of Materials (SBOM)?
A formal, machine-readable inventory of all components, libraries, and dependencies (with versions) that make up a piece of software, enabling organizations to track and respond to vulnerabilities in their dependencies.
What is Software Composition Analysis (SCA)?
A tool/process that scans a project's open-source and third-party dependencies to identify known vulnerabilities (CVEs), license risks, and outdated components, key to managing supply chain risk.
What is a typosquatting / dependency confusion attack?
Publishing malicious packages with names similar to popular ones (typosquatting) or with the same name as an internal package but a higher version in a public registry (dependency confusion), tricking build systems into pulling the attacker's code.
List the three primary cloud service models and what each provides.
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): virtualized compute, storage, networking (e.g., EC2). PaaS (Platform as a Service): runtime/dev platform without managing OS (e.g., App Engine). SaaS (Software as a Service): complete application over the web (e.g., Gmail).
Name the four cloud deployment models.
Public cloud (shared, provider-owned), Private cloud (dedicated to one organization), Hybrid cloud (interconnected public + private), and Community cloud (shared by organizations with common concerns).
What is the cloud Shared Responsibility Model?
A framework dividing security duties between the cloud provider and customer: the provider secures the cloud (physical infrastructure, hypervisor), and the customer secures what's in the cloud (data, access, configurations)—with the split varying by service model.
Under the shared responsibility model, how does customer responsibility differ across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS?
Customer responsibility shrinks from IaaS to SaaS: in IaaS the customer manages OS, apps, and data; in PaaS the customer manages apps and data (provider handles OS/runtime); in SaaS the customer mainly manages data and user access. Data and identity are always the customer's responsibility.
What is cloud Identity and Access Management (IAM)?
The framework of policies and technologies ensuring the right identities (users, services) have appropriate access to cloud resources, using authentication, authorization, roles/policies, and enforcement of least privilege.
What is the principle of least privilege in cloud IAM?
Granting each identity only the minimum permissions necessary to perform its function, and no more, to limit the blast radius if credentials are compromised.
Why are IAM roles preferred over long-lived access keys for cloud workloads?
Roles provide temporary, automatically rotated credentials assumed for a task, eliminating long-lived static secrets that can be leaked, hard-coded, or stolen—reducing the risk and lifetime of credential exposure.
What is the most common root cause of cloud data breaches?
Cloud misconfiguration—such as publicly exposed storage buckets, overly permissive IAM policies, open security groups, and disabled logging—rather than provider infrastructure failures.
What is a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)?
A security policy enforcement point placed between cloud users and cloud services that provides visibility, data security (DLP), compliance, and threat protection, and helps discover shadow IT (unauthorized cloud usage).
What are the four pillars/capabilities of a CASB?
Visibility (discovering cloud usage/shadow IT), Compliance (meeting regulatory requirements), Data Security (DLP, encryption), and Threat Protection (detecting malware and anomalous behavior).
What is a hypervisor, and how do Type 1 and Type 2 differ?
A hypervisor is software that creates and runs virtual machines by abstracting hardware. Type 1 (bare-metal) runs directly on hardware (e.g., ESXi, Hyper-V)—more secure/performant; Type 2 (hosted) runs atop a host OS (e.g., VirtualBox)—larger attack surface via the host OS.
What is a VM escape attack?
An exploit where an attacker breaks out of an isolated guest VM to execute code on the underlying hypervisor or host, potentially compromising other VMs on the same host. It defeats the core isolation guarantee of virtualization.
What is VM sprawl and why is it a security risk?
The uncontrolled proliferation of virtual machines that outpaces management capacity, leading to unpatched, forgotten, or unmonitored VMs that expand the attack surface and violate configuration/patch baselines.
How does container isolation differ from VM isolation?
Containers share the host OS kernel and isolate at the process level using namespaces and cgroups (lightweight, faster, weaker isolation), while VMs each run a full guest OS on a hypervisor (heavier, stronger hardware-level isolation).
Name three Docker container security best practices.
Run containers as a non-root user; use minimal/trusted base images and scan them for vulnerabilities; drop unnecessary Linux capabilities and avoid the --privileged flag; keep images updated and don't embed secrets in images.
What is the risk of running a Docker container with the --privileged flag?
It grants the container nearly all host kernel capabilities and device access, effectively removing isolation and making container escape to the host trivial if the container is compromised.
What are Linux namespaces and cgroups in container security?
Namespaces isolate what a container can see (PIDs, network, mounts, users), providing separation between containers, while cgroups (control groups) limit and account for resource usage (CPU, memory), preventing resource-exhaustion DoS.
In Kubernetes, what is the role of RBAC?
Role-Based Access Control governs which subjects (users, service accounts) can perform which actions (verbs) on which resources within the cluster/namespace, enforcing least privilege on the Kubernetes API server.
What is the security purpose of Kubernetes Network Policies?
They define allowed pod-to-pod and pod-to-external network traffic (by default all pods can talk to each other), enabling micro-segmentation so that a compromised pod cannot freely reach other workloads.
Why is securing the Kubernetes etcd datastore critical?
etcd stores all cluster state and secrets, often in plaintext by default; if an attacker accesses etcd they can read all secrets and configuration and effectively control the cluster—so it must be encrypted at rest and access-restricted.
What are Kubernetes Secrets and a caveat about their default security?
Secrets are objects for storing sensitive data (passwords, tokens, keys). By default they are only base64-encoded (not encrypted) in etcd, so encryption at rest, RBAC restriction, and external secret managers should be used.
What is Mobile Device Management (MDM)?
A solution for centrally managing, securing, and enforcing policies on mobile endpoints—enabling configuration, app control, remote lock/wipe, encryption enforcement, and compliance monitoring across an organization's devices.
What is containerization in MDM (BYOD context)?
Separating corporate data and apps into an encrypted, policy-controlled container on a personal device, keeping business data isolated from personal data so IT can wipe corporate data without affecting the user's personal content.
Name two common mobile application security risks.
Insecure data storage (sensitive data stored unencrypted on the device), insecure/cleartext network communication, hard-coded secrets, improper platform usage, and reverse engineering/code tampering of the app.
What is app sandboxing on mobile platforms?
An OS-enforced isolation mechanism where each app runs in its own restricted environment with limited access to system resources and other apps' data, containing the impact of a compromised or malicious app.
Why are IoT and embedded devices particularly vulnerable, and name a famous IoT botnet?
They often ship with default/hard-coded credentials, lack update mechanisms, have weak/no encryption, and long unpatched lifespans with large deployment scale. The Mirai botnet, which enslaved IoT devices using default credentials to launch massive DDoS attacks, is a famous example.
Cybersecurity Systems, Cloud, and Application Security FAQ
What is in the Cybersecurity Systems, Cloud, and Application Security syllabus?
Cybersecurity Systems, Cloud, and Application Security is split into 6 chapters: Endpoint and Host Hardening, Secure Software Development, Cloud Security, Virtualization and Container Security, Mobile and IoT Security and Data Protection and Privacy. Together they contain 23 topics.
How many chapters are in Cybersecurity Systems, Cloud, and Application Security?
6 chapters, containing 23 topics. The largest chapter is Endpoint and Host Hardening, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Cybersecurity Systems, Cloud, and Application Security?
Yes — a 50-card Systems, Cloud, and Application Security deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.