🌍 Cybersecurity · subject
Cybersecurity Network Security Syllabus
The Network Security syllabus for Cybersecurity in full: 6 chapters and 22 topics, every one listed below, plus 61 Network Security flashcards with answers.
Network Security syllabus: all 6 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Networking Fundamentals for Security
4 topics- OSI and TCP/IP Models
- IP Addressing and Subnetting
- Core Protocols
- Ports and Services
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Network Architecture and Segmentation
4 topics- DMZ and Screened Subnets
- VLANs and Network Segmentation
- Network Access Control (NAC)
- Software-Defined Networking Security
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Perimeter Defenses
3 topics- Firewalls
- Proxies and Reverse Proxies
- IDS and IPS
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Secure Remote Access
3 topics- VPNs
- Remote Desktop and Jump Servers
- Secure Access Service Edge (SASE)
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Wireless Security
4 topics- Wireless Standards and Threats
- Wi-Fi Security Protocols
- Rogue APs and Evil Twin Attacks
- Bluetooth and RFID Security
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Network Attacks
4 topics- Denial of Service and DDoS
- Man-in-the-Middle and Spoofing
- DNS Attacks
- Packet Sniffing and Session Hijacking
Cybersecurity Network Security flashcards — 61 questions with answers
What are the seven layers of the OSI model, in order from Layer 1 to Layer 7?
Layer 1 Physical, Layer 2 Data Link, Layer 3 Network, Layer 4 Transport, Layer 5 Session, Layer 6 Presentation, Layer 7 Application. Mnemonic: Please Do Not Throw Sausage Pizza Away.
How do the four layers of the TCP/IP model map to the OSI model?
Network Access/Link layer maps to OSI Physical + Data Link; Internet layer maps to OSI Network; Transport layer maps to OSI Transport; Application layer maps to OSI Session + Presentation + Application.
At which OSI layers do the following operate: a hub, a switch, and a router?
A hub operates at Layer 1 (Physical); a switch operates at Layer 2 (Data Link, using MAC addresses); a router operates at Layer 3 (Network, using IP addresses).
What is the data unit (PDU) name at the Transport, Network, and Data Link layers?
Transport layer: segment (TCP) or datagram (UDP); Network layer: packet; Data Link layer: frame. At the Physical layer it is bits.
What are the five classful IPv4 address ranges (A through E) by first octet?
Class A: 0–127; Class B: 128–191; Class C: 192–223; Class D: 224–239 (multicast); Class E: 240–255 (experimental).
What are the three private IPv4 address ranges defined by RFC 1918?
$10.0.0.0/8$, $172.16.0.0/12$, and $192.168.0.0/16$.
For an IPv4 subnet with $n$ host bits, what is the formula for the number of usable host addresses?
$2^{n} - 2$, subtracting the network address and the broadcast address.
How many usable hosts and what is the subnet mask for a $/26$ network?
A $/26$ has 6 host bits, so $2^{6} - 2 = 62$ usable hosts. The subnet mask is $255.255.255.192$.
What is the formula for the number of subnets created when you borrow $s$ bits from the host portion?
$2^{s}$ subnets.
What is the CIDR notation and subnet mask for a network that provides exactly 30 usable host addresses?
You need 5 host bits since $2^{5} - 2 = 30$. This is a $/27$ with subnet mask $255.255.255.224$.
What is the APIPA address range and when is it assigned?
APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) uses $169.254.0.0/16$ and is self-assigned by a host when a DHCP server cannot be reached.
What is the size (in bits) of an IPv4 address versus an IPv6 address?
IPv4 is 32 bits (about $4.3 \times 10^{9}$ addresses); IPv6 is 128 bits (about $3.4 \times 10^{38}$ addresses).
What is the loopback address in IPv4 and in IPv6?
IPv4 loopback is $127.0.0.1$ (block $127.0.0.0/8$); IPv6 loopback is $::1$.
Compare TCP and UDP: connection model, reliability, and ordering.
TCP is connection-oriented, reliable, ordered, with acknowledgments and retransmission. UDP is connectionless, unreliable (best-effort), unordered, with lower overhead and latency.
What are the three steps of the TCP three-way handshake?
1) Client sends SYN; 2) Server replies SYN-ACK; 3) Client sends ACK. The connection is then established.
What transport protocol and port does DNS primarily use, and when does it switch?
DNS uses UDP port 53 for standard queries; it uses TCP port 53 for zone transfers and responses larger than 512 bytes.
What are the well-known port numbers for HTTP, HTTPS, FTP (control), and SSH?
HTTP is TCP 80; HTTPS is TCP 443; FTP control is TCP 21 (data 20); SSH is TCP 22.
What ports do SMTP, POP3, and IMAP use (both plaintext and secure)?
SMTP: 25 (587 for submission); SMTPS: 465. POP3: 110; POP3S: 995. IMAP: 143; IMAPS: 993.
What are the three port range categories defined by IANA?
Well-known ports: $0$–$1023$; Registered ports: $1024$–$49151$; Dynamic/ephemeral/private ports: $49152$–$65535$.
What ports are used by RDP, Telnet, SNMP, and LDAP?
RDP: TCP 3389; Telnet: TCP 23; SNMP: UDP 161 (traps 162); LDAP: 389 (LDAPS: 636).
Show the other 41 Network Security flashcards
What is a DMZ (demilitarized zone) in network security?
A DMZ is a perimeter network segment that sits between the untrusted internet and the trusted internal LAN, hosting public-facing servers (web, mail, DNS) so that a compromise does not directly expose the internal network.
What is a screened subnet and how does it relate to a DMZ?
A screened subnet is the modern term for a DMZ implemented with two firewalls: an external firewall between the internet and DMZ, and an internal firewall between the DMZ and the internal network, giving layered protection.
What is a VLAN and at which OSI layer does it operate?
A VLAN (Virtual LAN) is a logically segmented broadcast domain within a physical switch infrastructure. It operates at Layer 2 (Data Link) and is defined by the IEEE 802.1Q tagging standard.
What is the purpose of the IEEE 802.1Q tag and how large is its VLAN ID field?
802.1Q inserts a 4-byte tag into the Ethernet frame to identify VLAN membership. The VLAN ID (VID) field is 12 bits, allowing $2^{12} = 4096$ VLANs (0–4095, with 1–4094 usable).
What is network segmentation and what security benefit does it provide?
Segmentation divides a network into isolated zones so traffic between them must pass through control points. It limits lateral movement, reduces the attack surface/blast radius, and supports least-privilege access and compliance (e.g., PCI DSS scope reduction).
What is VLAN hopping and name two techniques used to perform it?
VLAN hopping is an attack that lets traffic reach a VLAN it shouldn't. Two techniques: switch spoofing (attacker negotiates a trunk link via DTP) and double tagging (nesting two 802.1Q tags to jump VLANs).
What is Network Access Control (NAC) and what does it evaluate before granting access?
NAC enforces policy on devices attempting to join a network. Before granting access it evaluates posture/health (patch level, antivirus, configuration) and identity, often quarantining or remediating non-compliant devices.
What is the difference between agent-based and agentless NAC?
Agent-based NAC installs software on the endpoint to continuously assess posture in detail. Agentless NAC performs scanning from the network without installed software, offering less detail but easier deployment for unmanaged devices.
What is the difference between 802.1X and MAC Authentication Bypass (MAB) in NAC?
802.1X provides strong port-based authentication using a supplicant, authenticator, and RADIUS authentication server. MAB authenticates a device by its MAC address for endpoints (printers, IoT) that cannot run an 802.1X supplicant; it is weaker because MACs can be spoofed.
In 802.1X, what are the three roles and what protocol carries the authentication?
The supplicant (client), the authenticator (switch/AP), and the authentication server (RADIUS). Authentication is carried by EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol), encapsulated as EAPOL between supplicant and authenticator.
What is Software-Defined Networking (SDN) and its three planes?
SDN decouples the control plane from the data plane, allowing centralized programmable network management. The three planes are the data/forwarding plane, the control plane (centralized controller), and the application/management plane.
What is a key security concern of the SDN control plane?
The centralized SDN controller is a single point of failure and a high-value target; compromising it could give an attacker control of the entire network. The northbound/southbound APIs (e.g., OpenFlow) must also be authenticated and encrypted.
Compare the three main firewall generations: packet-filtering, stateful, and next-generation (NGFW).
Packet-filtering (stateless) inspects individual packets by IP/port/protocol at Layers 3–4. Stateful firewalls track connection state in a session table. NGFW adds deep packet inspection, application awareness (Layer 7), IPS, and identity/user-based rules.
What is the difference between a stateless and a stateful firewall?
A stateless firewall evaluates each packet independently against static rules. A stateful firewall maintains a state table of active connections and allows return traffic that belongs to an established session automatically.
What is a Web Application Firewall (WAF) and what layer/threats does it address?
A WAF operates at Layer 7 to inspect HTTP/HTTPS traffic, protecting web applications against attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other OWASP Top 10 threats.
What is the default rule an effective firewall should end with (implicit deny)?
Implicit deny: any traffic not explicitly permitted by a rule is denied. The firewall rule base should terminate with a 'deny all' to enforce least privilege.
What is a forward proxy versus a reverse proxy?
A forward proxy sits in front of clients and forwards their outbound requests to the internet (used for filtering, caching, anonymity). A reverse proxy sits in front of servers and handles inbound client requests (used for load balancing, SSL termination, caching, hiding backend servers).
Name three security functions commonly performed by a reverse proxy.
SSL/TLS termination and offloading, load balancing across backend servers, and hiding/protecting backend server identity while enabling caching, WAF filtering, and DDoS mitigation.
What is the fundamental difference between an IDS and an IPS?
An IDS (Intrusion Detection System) is passive—it monitors and alerts on suspicious traffic (out-of-band, on a mirror/SPAN port). An IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) is active and inline—it can block or drop malicious traffic in real time.
Compare signature-based and anomaly-based detection in IDS/IPS.
Signature-based detection matches known attack patterns; it is accurate for known threats but misses zero-days. Anomaly-based (behavioral) detection flags deviations from a learned baseline; it can catch novel attacks but produces more false positives.
Define false positive and false negative in the context of an IDS.
A false positive is a legitimate/benign event incorrectly flagged as an attack. A false negative is a real attack that goes undetected (not flagged). False negatives are generally more dangerous.
What is the difference between a NIDS and a HIDS?
A NIDS (Network IDS) monitors network traffic at strategic points/segments. A HIDS (Host IDS) runs on an individual host and monitors that system's logs, files, and processes for suspicious activity.
What is a VPN and what two core security services does it provide?
A VPN (Virtual Private Network) creates an encrypted tunnel over an untrusted network. It provides confidentiality (encryption of traffic) and integrity/authentication of the endpoints, extending private network access securely.
Compare full-tunnel and split-tunnel VPN configurations.
In full tunnel, all client traffic is routed through the VPN, maximizing security/inspection but adding latency. In split tunnel, only corporate-bound traffic uses the VPN while internet traffic goes directly, improving performance but reducing visibility/control.
What are the two IPsec protocols AH and ESP, and what does each provide?
AH (Authentication Header, protocol 51) provides integrity and authentication but no encryption. ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload, protocol 50) provides confidentiality (encryption) plus integrity and authentication.
Compare IPsec transport mode and tunnel mode.
Transport mode encrypts only the packet payload, leaving the original IP header intact (used for host-to-host). Tunnel mode encrypts the entire original packet and adds a new IP header (used for site-to-site gateways).
What is a jump server (jump box / bastion host) and why is it used?
A jump server is a hardened, monitored host that acts as the single controlled entry point for administrators to access devices in a secure/isolated zone. It centralizes and audits access, reducing the attack surface by preventing direct connections to internal systems.
What is Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) and what two broad capabilities does it converge?
SASE is a cloud-delivered architecture that converges networking (SD-WAN) with security (network security as a service). It typically bundles SD-WAN, SWG, CASB, ZTNA, and FWaaS, delivered at the network edge close to users.
What is Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) and how does it differ from a traditional VPN?
ZTNA grants access per-application based on continuous identity and context verification ('never trust, always verify'), with no implicit network trust. Unlike a VPN, which grants broad network-level access after connecting, ZTNA hides resources and limits access to specific authorized applications.
List the 802.11 Wi-Fi standards a/b/g/n/ac/ax with their primary frequency bands.
802.11a: 5 GHz; 802.11b/g: 2.4 GHz; 802.11n (Wi-Fi 4): 2.4 & 5 GHz; 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5): 5 GHz; 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6/6E): 2.4, 5 & 6 GHz.
Compare the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz Wi-Fi bands in terms of range and speed.
2.4 GHz offers longer range and better wall penetration but lower throughput and more interference/congestion. 5 GHz offers higher throughput and more channels but shorter range and weaker penetration.
Rank the Wi-Fi security protocols WEP, WPA, WPA2, and WPA3 from weakest to strongest and note key encryption.
WEP (weakest, RC4, broken IVs) < WPA (TKIP) < WPA2 (CCMP/AES) < WPA3 (strongest, SAE + AES-GCMP). Only WPA2 and WPA3 are considered acceptable today.
What is SAE in WPA3 and what attack does it defend against?
SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals, aka Dragonfly) replaces the WPA2 pre-shared key handshake. It provides forward secrecy and resists offline dictionary/brute-force attacks by preventing capture-and-crack of the handshake.
What is the difference between WPA2/WPA3 Personal (PSK) and Enterprise modes?
Personal mode uses a shared pre-shared key (PSK/passphrase) for all users. Enterprise mode uses 802.1X with a RADIUS server for individual per-user authentication (EAP), providing unique credentials and centralized control.
What is a rogue access point?
A rogue AP is an unauthorized wireless access point connected to the network (often by an insider or attacker) without administrative approval, creating a backdoor that bypasses perimeter security controls.
What is an evil twin attack and how does it differ from a rogue AP?
An evil twin is a malicious AP that impersonates a legitimate one by cloning its SSID (and often a captive portal) to trick users into connecting, enabling credential theft and man-in-the-middle. A rogue AP is any unauthorized AP on the network; an evil twin specifically mimics a trusted SSID to deceive clients.
What is a deauthentication attack and why is it a precursor to an evil twin attack?
A deauth attack sends spoofed 802.11 deauthentication frames to force clients off a legitimate AP. It is used to disconnect victims so they reconnect—often to the attacker's evil twin—enabling handshake capture or MITM.
What is Bluejacking versus Bluesnarfing?
Bluejacking sends unsolicited messages to a Bluetooth device (relatively harmless). Bluesnarfing is the unauthorized access to and theft of data (contacts, messages, files) from a Bluetooth device—a serious data breach.
What is the typical range and frequency band of classic Bluetooth, and why does short range matter for security?
Classic Bluetooth operates in the 2.4 GHz ISM band with a typical Class 2 range of about 10 meters. The short range limits an attacker's proximity requirement, but it does not prevent attacks like bluesnarfing or bluebugging within range.
Compare passive and active RFID tags and note a key security concern.
Passive RFID tags have no battery and are powered by the reader's signal (short range); active tags have their own battery and longer range. A key security concern is skimming/eavesdropping and cloning, since many RFID tags transmit data without encryption or authentication.
What is an RFID relay (man-in-the-middle) attack, and what mitigations exist?
A relay attack captures an RFID/NFC signal and relays it in real time to a distant reader to impersonate the legitimate tag (e.g., keyless car entry). Mitigations include shielding (Faraday sleeves), distance-bounding protocols, encryption/mutual authentication, and requiring user action.
Cybersecurity Network Security FAQ
What is in the Cybersecurity Network Security syllabus?
Cybersecurity Network Security is split into 6 chapters: Networking Fundamentals for Security, Network Architecture and Segmentation, Perimeter Defenses, Secure Remote Access, Wireless Security and Network Attacks. Together they contain 22 topics.
How many chapters are in Cybersecurity Network Security?
6 chapters, containing 22 topics. The largest chapter is Networking Fundamentals for Security, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Cybersecurity Network Security?
Yes — a 61-card Network Security deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.