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CSEET Legal Aptitude and Logical Reasoning Syllabus
The Legal Aptitude and Logical Reasoning syllabus for CSEET in full: 4 chapters and 18 topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Legal Aptitude and Logical Reasoning flashcards with answers.
Legal Aptitude and Logical Reasoning syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Indian Constitution
4 topics- Preamble
- Fundamental Rights and Duties
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Amendments
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Elements of Company Law
4 topics- Companies Act, 2013
- Types of Companies
- Formation of Company
- Memorandum and Articles of Association
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Elements of Law of Contract
5 topics- Indian Contract Act, 1872
- Offer and Acceptance
- Consideration
- Capacity to Contract
- Free Consent
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Logical Reasoning
5 topics- Number Series
- Coding-Decoding
- Syllogism
- Blood Relations
- Seating Arrangement
CSEET Legal Aptitude and Logical Reasoning flashcards ā 51 questions with answers
What is the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
It is the introductory statement that sets out the guiding purposes, principles, and philosophy of the Constitution. It declares India a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic and secures Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity to all citizens.
Which words were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment (1976)?
The words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
What does the Preamble declare as the source of authority of the Constitution?
'We, the People of India' ā the Constitution derives its authority from the people, who adopted, enacted, and gave it to themselves on 26th November 1949.
In which landmark case was the Preamble held to be a part of the Constitution?
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended without altering its basic structure.
How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed by the Indian Constitution and which one was removed?
There are six Fundamental Rights. The Right to Property was removed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Amendment (1978) and made a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A.
List the six Fundamental Rights and their Article ranges.
1) Right to Equality (Art. 14-18), 2) Right to Freedom (Art. 19-22), 3) Right against Exploitation (Art. 23-24), 4) Right to Freedom of Religion (Art. 25-28), 5) Cultural and Educational Rights (Art. 29-30), 6) Right to Constitutional Remedies (Art. 32).
Why did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar call Article 32 the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution?
Because Article 32 guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies, allowing citizens to directly approach the Supreme Court to enforce Fundamental Rights through writs.
Name the five types of writs available under Articles 32 and 226.
Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto.
Where are the Fundamental Duties listed and how many are there?
Fundamental Duties are listed in Article 51A in Part IVA. There are 11 Fundamental Duties (the 11th was added by the 86th Amendment, 2002). They were originally added by the 42nd Amendment (1976) on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
What are Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) and in which Part are they found?
DPSPs are guidelines/instructions to the State for framing laws and policies to establish social and economic justice. They are contained in Part IV (Articles 36-51) and are borrowed from the Irish Constitution. They are non-justiciable (not enforceable in court).
How do Fundamental Rights differ from Directive Principles of State Policy?
Fundamental Rights are justiciable (enforceable in court) and aim at political democracy; DPSPs are non-justiciable (not enforceable) and aim at social and economic democracy.
Under which Article is the procedure for amending the Constitution provided, and what are the three methods?
Article 368. The three methods are: (1) by simple majority, (2) by special majority of Parliament, and (3) by special majority plus ratification by at least half of the State legislatures.
What is the 'Basic Structure Doctrine' regarding amendments?
Established in Kesavananda Bharati (1973), it holds that Parliament can amend the Constitution under Article 368 but cannot alter or destroy its 'basic structure' (e.g., supremacy of Constitution, rule of law, judicial review, federalism).
What did the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments establish?
The 73rd Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural local government), and the 74th Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to Municipalities (urban local government).
When did the Companies Act, 2013 come into force and which Act did it replace?
The Companies Act, 2013 received Presidential assent on 29th August 2013 and replaced the Companies Act, 1956. It came into force in phases.
How is a 'company' defined under the Companies Act, 2013?
Under Section 2(20), a company means a company incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 or under any previous company law.
What does the principle of 'separate legal entity' mean for a company?
A company is a legal person distinct from its members. It can own property, sue and be sued in its own name. This was established in the landmark case Salomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd. (1897).
What is meant by 'lifting/piercing the corporate veil'?
It is when courts disregard the separate legal personality of a company and hold its members/directors personally liable, typically in cases of fraud, improper conduct, or evasion of law.
Classify companies on the basis of incorporation.
1) Chartered companies (formed by royal charter), 2) Statutory companies (formed by a special Act of legislature, e.g., RBI), and 3) Registered/Incorporated companies (registered under the Companies Act).
What is the difference between a Private Company and a Public Company under the Companies Act, 2013?
A Private Company restricts transfer of shares, limits members to 200 (excluding present/past employees), and prohibits public invitation to subscribe shares; minimum 2 members. A Public Company has no such restrictions; minimum 7 members and minimum 3 directors.
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What is a One Person Company (OPC) under the Companies Act, 2013?
An OPC (Section 2(62)) is a company with only one person as its member. It is a private company concept introduced by the 2013 Act, requiring a nominee to be named.
Differentiate between a company limited by shares and a company limited by guarantee.
In a company limited by shares, members' liability is limited to the unpaid amount on their shares. In a company limited by guarantee, members' liability is limited to the amount they undertake to contribute to the assets in the event of winding up.
What is the minimum and maximum number of directors for a public and private company?
Public company: minimum 3 directors; Private company: minimum 2 directors; OPC: minimum 1 director. Maximum for any company: 15 directors (can be exceeded by passing a special resolution).
What are the key documents required to be filed for the formation/incorporation of a company?
Memorandum of Association (MOA), Articles of Association (AOA), declaration of compliance, details of registered office, and consent of directors ā filed with the Registrar of Companies (ROC) to obtain the Certificate of Incorporation.
What is a 'Certificate of Incorporation' and what is its effect?
It is the document issued by the Registrar of Companies certifying that a company is registered. It is conclusive evidence that the company is duly incorporated and brings the company into legal existence as a separate entity.
What is the Memorandum of Association (MOA) and what are its clauses?
The MOA is the charter/constitution of the company defining its scope. Its clauses are: Name Clause, Registered Office (Situation) Clause, Object Clause, Liability Clause, Capital Clause, and Subscription/Association Clause.
What is the doctrine of 'ultra vires' in relation to the MOA?
Any act done by a company beyond the powers/objects stated in its Memorandum is 'ultra vires' (beyond powers) and is void and not binding on the company. Established in Ashbury Railway Carriage Co. v. Riche (1875).
What are the Articles of Association (AOA) and how do they differ from the MOA?
The AOA contains the rules and regulations for internal management of the company. The MOA defines the company's relationship with the outside world and its objects (supreme document); the AOA is subordinate to the MOA and governs internal affairs.
What is the doctrine of 'constructive notice' regarding MOA and AOA?
Since MOA and AOA are public documents registered with ROC, every person dealing with the company is deemed to have knowledge of their contents, whether or not they actually read them.
What is the doctrine of 'indoor management' (Turquand Rule)?
Outsiders dealing with a company are entitled to assume that the internal procedures/formalities have been duly complied with. They are not bound to inquire into internal proceedings. Established in Royal British Bank v. Turquand (1856).
How is a 'contract' defined under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Under Section 2(h), a contract is 'an agreement enforceable by law'. Thus, Contract = Agreement + Enforceability by law.
What are the essential elements of a valid contract under Section 10?
Offer and acceptance, intention to create legal relations, lawful consideration, capacity of parties, free consent, lawful object, certainty, possibility of performance, and not expressly declared void.
Distinguish between a void agreement and a voidable contract.
A void agreement [Sec 2(g)] is not enforceable by law from the beginning. A voidable contract [Sec 2(i)] is enforceable at the option of one party (the aggrieved party) but not at the option of the other ā valid until rescinded.
What is the difference between an offer (proposal) and an invitation to offer?
An offer [Sec 2(a)] is a final willingness to enter a contract that, when accepted, forms an agreement. An invitation to offer (e.g., goods displayed in a shop, advertisements, tenders) merely invites others to make offers; it cannot be accepted to form a contract.
State the essentials of a valid acceptance.
Acceptance must be absolute and unqualified, communicated to the offeror, in the prescribed/reasonable manner, given within a reasonable time, and made while the offer is still alive (before lapse/revocation).
When is communication of offer and acceptance complete (Section 4)?
Communication of an offer is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the offeree. Communication of acceptance is complete: as against the proposer when it is put in course of transmission; as against the acceptor when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
How is 'consideration' defined under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Under Section 2(d), consideration is when, at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or abstain from doing, something. It is the price for the promise ('quid pro quo').
State the general rule and key exceptions to 'no consideration, no contract' (Section 25).
General rule: an agreement without consideration is void. Exceptions: (1) natural love and affection (written & registered, between near relations), (2) compensation for past voluntary services, (3) promise to pay a time-barred debt (in writing & signed).
Can consideration move from a person who is not the promisee under Indian law?
Yes. Under Indian law, consideration may move from the promisee 'or any other person' (a stranger to consideration can sue). This differs from English law where consideration must move from the promisee.
Who is competent to contract under Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act?
A person who (1) is of the age of majority (18 years), (2) is of sound mind, and (3) is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which they are subject.
What is the legal status of an agreement entered into by a minor?
An agreement with a minor is void ab initio (void from the beginning). A minor cannot ratify it on attaining majority. This was established in Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903).
Is a minor liable for 'necessaries' supplied to him?
A minor is not personally liable, but the person who supplies necessaries (suited to the minor's condition in life) is entitled to be reimbursed from the property/estate of the minor (Section 68 ā quasi-contract).
What is 'free consent' under Section 14 of the Indian Contract Act?
Consent is free when it is not caused by coercion (Sec 15), undue influence (Sec 16), fraud (Sec 17), misrepresentation (Sec 18), or mistake (Sec 20-22). Consent means 'consensus ad idem' ā agreeing upon the same thing in the same sense (Sec 13).
Distinguish between coercion and undue influence.
Coercion (Sec 15) involves physical force or threat (committing/threatening acts forbidden by IPC). Undue influence (Sec 16) involves mental/moral pressure where one party dominates the will of another due to a relationship. Both make the contract voidable.
What is the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ...?
42. The differences increase by 2 each time (4, 6, 8, 10, 12); 30 + 12 = 42. (Pattern: n(n+1) ā 1x2, 2x3, 3x4, 4x5, 5x6, 6x7=42.)
Find the next term: 3, 6, 12, 24, 48, ...?
96. Each term is multiplied by 2 (geometric progression with common ratio 2); 48 x 2 = 96.
In a certain code, if 'CAT' is written as 'DBU', how is 'DOG' written?
'EPH'. Each letter is shifted forward by one position (+1): DāE, OāP, GāH.
In a coding system, if 'A=1, B=2, ... Z=26', what is the code for the word 'CAB'?
3-1-2. C=3, A=1, B=2.
Syllogism: All cats are animals. All animals are living things. What necessarily follows?
All cats are living things. (Valid conclusion through transitivity of the universal premises.)
Blood Relations: Pointing to a man, a woman said, 'His mother is the only daughter of my mother.' How is the woman related to the man?
She is his mother. (The only daughter of the woman's mother is the woman herself; so the man's mother is the woman.)
Seating Arrangement: Five friends A, B, C, D, E sit in a row facing north. C is in the middle. A is to the immediate left of C and B is to the immediate right of C. D is at the extreme left end. Who sits at the extreme right end?
E. Order from left to right: D, A, C, B, E. So E is at the extreme right end.
CSEET Legal Aptitude and Logical Reasoning FAQ
What is in the CSEET Legal Aptitude and Logical Reasoning syllabus?
CSEET Legal Aptitude and Logical Reasoning is split into 4 chapters: Indian Constitution, Elements of Company Law, Elements of Law of Contract and Logical Reasoning. Together they contain 18 topics.
How many chapters are in CSEET Legal Aptitude and Logical Reasoning?
4 chapters, containing 18 topics. The largest chapter is Elements of Law of Contract, with 5 topics.
Are there flashcards for CSEET Legal Aptitude and Logical Reasoning?
Yes ā a 51-card Legal Aptitude and Logical Reasoning deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.