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Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Family Medicine, Primary Care, and Health Promotion Syllabus

The Family Medicine, Primary Care, and Health Promotion syllabus for Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) in full: 4 chapters, 16 topics and 22 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Family Medicine, Primary Care, and Health Promotion flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
16Topics
22Sub-topics
51Flashcards

Family Medicine, Primary Care, and Health Promotion syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Preventive Medicine and Screening

    4 topics
    • Cancer Screening Guidelines
      • Breast, cervical, colorectal, lung screening
    • Immunization Schedules
      • Pediatric and adult vaccination
    • Cardiovascular and Metabolic Risk Reduction
      • Lipid and blood pressure screening
    • Lifestyle Counseling
      • Tobacco cessation and obesity management
  2. Ambulatory and Chronic Disease Management

    4 topics
    • Chronic Disease Coordination
      • Multimorbidity and polypharmacy
    • Common Outpatient Complaints
      • Cough, fatigue, and dizziness
      • Joint pain and rash
    • Dermatologic Conditions
      • Eczema, psoriasis, and acne
      • Skin cancer recognition
    • Pain Management in Primary Care
      • Multimodal and osteopathic approaches
      • Opioid stewardship
  3. Geriatrics and Palliative Care

    4 topics
    • Geriatric Syndromes
      • Falls, frailty, and polypharmacy
      • Delirium and cognitive decline
    • Functional Assessment
      • Activities of daily living evaluation
    • End-of-Life and Hospice Care
      • Symptom management and goals of care
    • Advance Care Planning
      • Advance directives and surrogate decisions
  4. Population Health and Epidemiology

    4 topics
    • Epidemiologic Measures
      • Incidence, prevalence, and risk measures
    • Biostatistics and Study Design
      • Sensitivity, specificity, and predictive value
      • Trial design and bias
    • Public Health and Disease Prevention
      • Levels of prevention
      • Reportable diseases and surveillance
    • Social Determinants of Health
      • Health disparities and access to care

Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Family Medicine, Primary Care, and Health Promotion flashcards — 51 questions with answers

  1. At what age does the USPSTF recommend starting routine screening colonoscopy (or other CRC screening) for average-risk adults?

    Age 45 (Grade B); continue through age 75. Options include colonoscopy every 10 years, FIT annually, or FIT-DNA every 1-3 years.

  2. What is the USPSTF recommendation for breast cancer screening mammography in average-risk women?

    Biennial (every 2 years) screening mammography for women aged 40-74.

  3. How often should cervical cancer screening be done for women aged 21-29 vs 30-65?

    Ages 21-29: Pap cytology every 3 years. Ages 30-65: cytology every 3 years, OR hrHPV testing every 5 years, OR co-testing every 5 years.

  4. Who qualifies for lung cancer screening with low-dose CT per USPSTF?

    Adults 50-80 years old with a 20 pack-year smoking history who currently smoke or quit within the past 15 years. Annual LDCT.

  5. What is the recommended schedule for the routine infant DTaP series?

    DTaP at 2, 4, 6, and 15-18 months, with a booster at 4-6 years (5 doses total).

  6. When is the Tdap booster recommended in adults, and what about during pregnancy?

    Tdap once in place of a Td booster, then Td/Tdap every 10 years. During EVERY pregnancy, give Tdap at 27-36 weeks gestation.

  7. What is the recommended age and dosing for the shingles (recombinant zoster, RZV/Shingrix) vaccine?

    Two doses for adults aged 50 and older (and immunocompromised 19+), given 2-6 months apart.

  8. Which pneumococcal vaccine schedule is recommended for adults 65 and older who are vaccine-naive?

    A single dose of PCV20 alone, OR PCV15 followed by PPSV23 at least 1 year later.

  9. At what age is the first dose of MMR given, and when is the second?

    First dose at 12-15 months; second dose at 4-6 years.

  10. What blood pressure threshold defines Stage 1 vs Stage 2 hypertension per the ACC/AHA 2017 guidelines?

    Stage 1: 130-139/80-89 mmHg. Stage 2: 140/90 mmHg or higher. Elevated: 120-129/<80.

  11. What LDL-lowering benefit defines a high-intensity statin, and name two examples.

    High-intensity statins lower LDL by 50% or more. Examples: atorvastatin 40-80 mg and rosuvastatin 20-40 mg.

  12. What 10-year ASCVD risk threshold generally warrants statin therapy in primary prevention (ages 40-75)?

    A 10-year ASCVD risk of 7.5% or higher favors statin therapy (intermediate risk 7.5-19.9%; high risk 20% or more).

  13. What HbA1c level is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus, and what range defines prediabetes?

    Diabetes: HbA1c 6.5% or higher. Prediabetes: 5.7-6.4%.

  14. What is the first-line pharmacologic agent for type 2 diabetes, and its key contraindication?

    Metformin; contraindicated when eGFR < 30 mL/min/1.73m2 due to lactic acidosis risk.

  15. What are the '5 A's' framework for smoking cessation counseling?

    Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange.

  16. According to the Transtheoretical (Stages of Change) Model, name the five stages of behavior change in order.

    Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance.

  17. What is the recommended amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week for adults?

    At least 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity (or 75 minutes vigorous) aerobic activity, plus muscle-strengthening 2 days/week.

  18. What counseling/screening interval does USPSTF recommend for unhealthy alcohol use, and what is a positive single-question screen?

    Screen all adults; brief behavioral counseling for risky drinkers. Positive single-item screen: 5+ drinks (men) or 4+ (women) in one day in the past year.

  19. In chronic disease care coordination, what is the role of the 'medical home' (PCMH)?

    The Patient-Centered Medical Home provides comprehensive, coordinated, patient-centered, accessible care with a focus on quality and safety, centralizing management of chronic conditions.

  20. What medication reconciliation step is most critical at care transitions to prevent adverse drug events?

    Comparing the patient's current full medication list against newly ordered medications at every transition (admission, transfer, discharge) to identify discrepancies.

Show the other 31 Family Medicine, Primary Care, and Health Promotion flashcards
  1. What is the most common cause of acute cough lasting less than 3 weeks in outpatients?

    Viral upper respiratory infection (the common cold).

  2. What is the Centor/McIsaac criteria used for, and name its components?

    Estimating likelihood of group A strep pharyngitis. Components: fever, tonsillar exudates, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, absence of cough (+ age adjustment).

  3. What are the alarm ('red flag') symptoms in a patient with low back pain that warrant imaging?

    Saddle anesthesia, bowel/bladder dysfunction, progressive neuro deficit, fever, IV drug use, history of cancer, unexplained weight loss, or significant trauma.

  4. What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated acute cystitis in a non-pregnant woman?

    Nitrofurantoin x5 days, OR TMP-SMX x3 days, OR fosfomycin single dose.

  5. Describe the classic appearance and distribution of atopic dermatitis (eczema) in adults.

    Pruritic, erythematous, scaly, lichenified patches in flexural areas (antecubital and popliteal fossae, neck, wrists).

  6. What is the ABCDE rule for evaluating a suspicious pigmented skin lesion for melanoma?

    Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter > 6 mm, Evolving/change over time.

  7. What is the typical clinical presentation of psoriasis (vulgaris)?

    Well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scale on extensor surfaces (elbows, knees), scalp; may show Auspitz sign (pinpoint bleeding on scale removal).

  8. What distinguishes basal cell carcinoma morphology from squamous cell carcinoma?

    BCC: pearly/translucent papule with rolled borders and telangiectasias, rarely metastasizes. SCC: scaly, ulcerated, indurated lesion or non-healing sore, higher metastatic potential.

  9. What is the first-line non-opioid analgesic recommended for chronic musculoskeletal pain in primary care?

    Acetaminophen and/or NSAIDs; combined with non-pharmacologic therapy (exercise, physical therapy).

  10. What does the WHO analgesic ladder recommend for escalating cancer pain management?

    Step 1: non-opioids (NSAIDs/acetaminophen) +/- adjuvants. Step 2: weak opioids (e.g., codeine, tramadol). Step 3: strong opioids (e.g., morphine) for severe pain, +/- adjuvants at each step.

  11. Per CDC opioid guidelines, what morphine milligram equivalent (MME)/day threshold prompts heightened caution and reassessment?

    50 MME/day or more warrants caution and reassessment; avoid or carefully justify reaching 90 MME/day or more.

  12. What are the components of the geriatric '5 Ms' framework?

    Mind (cognition/mood), Mobility, Medications, Multicomplexity, and what Matters most (patient goals).

  13. Name the most common modifiable risk factors for falls in older adults.

    Polypharmacy (esp. psychoactive drugs), muscle weakness/gait instability, vision impairment, orthostatic hypotension, and environmental hazards.

  14. What is the diagnostic triad ('3 D's') often distinguished in geriatric cognitive/behavioral assessment?

    Delirium (acute, fluctuating, inattention), Dementia (chronic, progressive), and Depression (pseudodementia) — must be differentiated.

  15. What are the four key features of delirium per DSM/CAM criteria?

    Acute onset with fluctuating course, inattention, plus either disorganized thinking OR altered level of consciousness.

  16. What is polypharmacy and which screening tool helps identify potentially inappropriate medications in the elderly?

    Polypharmacy: use of 5 or more medications. The Beers Criteria (and STOPP/START) identify potentially inappropriate medications in older adults.

  17. What domains are included in a functional assessment using the basic ADLs (Katz index)?

    Bathing, Dressing, Toileting, Transferring, Continence, and Feeding.

  18. What activities are assessed by the Instrumental ADLs (IADLs)?

    Shopping, Housekeeping, Accounting/finances, Food preparation, Transportation, Telephone use, and Medication management (SHAFT mnemonic plus phone).

  19. What is the Medicare eligibility criterion for hospice care?

    A terminal illness with a life expectancy of 6 months or less if the disease runs its usual course, certified by two physicians, with the patient electing comfort-focused care over curative treatment.

  20. How does palliative care differ from hospice care?

    Palliative care provides symptom and comfort management at ANY stage of serious illness and can be given alongside curative treatment. Hospice is comfort-only care for terminally ill patients with prognosis of 6 months or less.

  21. What are the most common symptoms requiring management in end-of-life care, and a first-line treatment for terminal dyspnea?

    Pain, dyspnea, nausea, secretions, and delirium. First-line for terminal dyspnea: low-dose opioids (e.g., morphine).

  22. What is the difference between a living will and a durable power of attorney for health care?

    A living will specifies the patient's own treatment wishes (e.g., resuscitation) for future scenarios. A durable POA (health care proxy) designates a surrogate to make decisions when the patient lacks capacity.

  23. What are the four elements required to assess decision-making capacity?

    The patient can: (1) understand relevant information, (2) appreciate the situation/consequences, (3) reason/manipulate information rationally, and (4) communicate a choice.

  24. Define incidence vs prevalence.

    Incidence = number of NEW cases over a time period / population at risk. Prevalence = total EXISTING cases (new + old) / total population at a point in time.

  25. How are sensitivity and specificity calculated?

    Sensitivity = TP / (TP + FN) — ability to detect disease. Specificity = TN / (TN + FP) — ability to identify those without disease.

  26. How do positive and negative predictive values relate to disease prevalence?

    PPV = TP/(TP+FP) increases as prevalence rises; NPV = TN/(TN+FN) decreases as prevalence rises. Sensitivity/specificity are prevalence-independent.

  27. What measures of association are reported in cohort studies vs case-control studies?

    Cohort studies report relative risk (RR) and can measure incidence. Case-control studies report odds ratios (OR) because incidence cannot be directly measured.

  28. How are absolute risk reduction (ARR) and number needed to treat (NNT) calculated?

    ARR = control event rate − treatment event rate. NNT = 1 / ARR.

  29. What are the levels of disease prevention with an example of each?

    Primary: prevent disease onset (vaccination, smoking cessation). Secondary: early detection (screening, e.g., mammography). Tertiary: reduce complications of established disease (cardiac rehab, diabetic foot care).

  30. Define a confounding variable and one method to control for it.

    A confounder is associated with both the exposure and outcome, distorting the apparent association. Controlled by randomization, matching, restriction, stratification, or multivariable regression.

  31. What are the five domains of the social determinants of health (Healthy People framework)?

    Economic stability, Education access and quality, Health care access and quality, Neighborhood and built environment, and Social and community context.

Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Family Medicine, Primary Care, and Health Promotion FAQ

What is in the Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Family Medicine, Primary Care, and Health Promotion syllabus?

Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Family Medicine, Primary Care, and Health Promotion is split into 4 chapters: Preventive Medicine and Screening, Ambulatory and Chronic Disease Management, Geriatrics and Palliative Care and Population Health and Epidemiology. Together they contain 16 topics and 22 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Family Medicine, Primary Care, and Health Promotion?

4 chapters, containing 16 topics and 22 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Preventive Medicine and Screening, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Family Medicine, Primary Care, and Health Promotion?

Yes — a 51-card Family Medicine, Primary Care, and Health Promotion deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.