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Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Behavioral Health, Psychiatry, and the Nervous System Syllabus
The Behavioral Health, Psychiatry, and the Nervous System syllabus for Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) in full: 4 chapters, 14 topics and 17 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 62 Behavioral Health, Psychiatry, and the Nervous System flashcards with answers.
Behavioral Health, Psychiatry, and the Nervous System syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Mood, Anxiety, and Trauma Disorders
4 topics- Depressive Disorders
- Major depression and dysthymia
- Suicide risk assessment
- Bipolar and Related Disorders
- Mania and mood stabilization
- Anxiety and OCD-Related Disorders
- Generalized anxiety and panic disorder
- Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders
- PTSD and acute stress disorder
- Depressive Disorders
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Psychotic, Cognitive, and Other Disorders
4 topics- Schizophrenia Spectrum
- Positive and negative symptoms
- Antipsychotic management
- Neurocognitive Disorders
- Delirium versus dementia
- Personality and Somatic Symptom Disorders
- Cluster A, B, and C personality disorders
- Eating and Sleep Disorders
- Anorexia and bulimia
- Insomnia and sleep apnea
- Schizophrenia Spectrum
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Substance Use and Addiction Medicine
3 topics- Alcohol Use Disorder
- Intoxication and withdrawal management
- Opioid and Stimulant Use
- Overdose and medication-assisted treatment
- Screening and Behavioral Intervention
- Motivational interviewing
- Alcohol Use Disorder
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Psychopharmacology and Therapy
3 topics- Antidepressants and Anxiolytics
- SSRIs, SNRIs, and serotonin syndrome
- Mood Stabilizers and Antipsychotics
- Lithium and atypical agents
- Psychotherapeutic Modalities
- Cognitive behavioral and supportive therapy
- Antidepressants and Anxiolytics
Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Behavioral Health, Psychiatry, and the Nervous System flashcards — 62 questions with answers
What are the DSM-5 criteria for a Major Depressive Episode?
At least 5 of 9 symptoms for >=2 weeks, including at least 1 of depressed mood or anhedonia. The SIG E CAPS symptoms: Sleep changes, loss of Interest (anhedonia), Guilt/worthlessness, low Energy, decreased Concentration, Appetite/weight change, Psychomotor changes, Suicidal ideation, plus depressed mood. Must cause distress/impairment and not be due to a substance/medical condition.
How is Persistent Depressive Disorder (dysthymia) distinguished from Major Depressive Disorder?
Persistent depressive disorder is depressed mood for most of the day, more days than not, for >=2 years (>=1 year in children/adolescents), with >=2 additional symptoms and no symptom-free period >2 months. It is chronic and typically milder than MDD, though MDD episodes can be superimposed (double depression).
What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for Major Depressive Disorder and how long until effect?
SSRIs are first-line. Therapeutic effect typically takes 4-6 weeks; an adequate trial is at least 6-8 weeks at a therapeutic dose before switching. Continue for 6-12 months after remission for a first episode.
What features distinguish a Major Depressive Episode with atypical features?
Mood reactivity (mood brightens to positive events) plus >=2 of: increased appetite/weight gain, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, and long-standing interpersonal rejection sensitivity. Historically responsive to MAOIs.
How is postpartum depression differentiated from postpartum 'baby blues' and postpartum psychosis?
Baby blues: mild mood lability resolving within ~2 weeks, no treatment needed. Postpartum depression: MDE with onset during pregnancy or within 4 weeks (DSM 'peripartum onset'), lasting weeks-months, needs treatment. Postpartum psychosis: delusions/hallucinations, risk of infanticide/suicide; a psychiatric emergency requiring hospitalization.
What are the DSM-5 criteria for a Manic Episode (Bipolar I)?
A distinct period of abnormally elevated/expansive/irritable mood and increased energy lasting >=1 week (or any duration if hospitalization required), plus >=3 DIG FAST symptoms (Distractibility, Indiscretion/impulsivity, Grandiosity, Flight of ideas, Activity increase, decreased Sleep need, Talkativeness). Causes marked impairment, psychosis, or hospitalization.
How do Bipolar I and Bipolar II disorders differ?
Bipolar I requires at least one manic episode (depression not required for diagnosis). Bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode AND at least one major depressive episode, with no history of a full manic episode.
What distinguishes a hypomanic episode from a manic episode?
Hypomania lasts >=4 consecutive days, has the same symptom criteria, but causes NO marked impairment, NO psychosis, and does NOT require hospitalization. Mania lasts >=1 week, causes marked impairment, and may include psychosis/hospitalization.
What is cyclothymic disorder?
For >=2 years (>=1 year in children), numerous periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms that do not meet full criteria for hypomanic or major depressive episodes, present at least half the time with no symptom-free period >2 months.
What is the first-line treatment for acute bipolar mania, and what must be avoided?
Mood stabilizers (lithium, valproate) and/or second-generation antipsychotics are first-line for acute mania. Antidepressant monotherapy should be avoided in bipolar disorder because it can precipitate a manic switch or rapid cycling.
What are the DSM-5 criteria for Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
Excessive anxiety/worry occurring more days than not for >=6 months about multiple events, difficult to control, with >=3 of 6 symptoms (restlessness, fatigue, difficulty concentrating, irritability, muscle tension, sleep disturbance). Only 1 symptom needed in children.
How is a panic attack defined and what characterizes Panic Disorder?
A panic attack is an abrupt surge of intense fear peaking within minutes with >=4 somatic/cognitive symptoms (palpitations, sweating, trembling, dyspnea, chest pain, derealization, fear of dying, etc.). Panic Disorder = recurrent unexpected panic attacks plus >=1 month of worry about attacks or maladaptive behavioral change.
What is the first-line treatment for panic disorder, and what is the role of benzodiazepines?
SSRIs/SNRIs plus CBT are first-line. Benzodiazepines provide rapid relief of acute attacks but are reserved for short-term/bridging use due to dependence risk; they are not preferred for chronic management.
What defines specific phobia versus social anxiety disorder?
Specific phobia: marked fear of a specific object/situation (heights, animals, blood) for >=6 months with immediate anxiety and avoidance. Social anxiety disorder: marked fear of social situations involving possible scrutiny/negative evaluation, leading to avoidance, for >=6 months.
What are the DSM-5 criteria for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
Presence of obsessions (recurrent intrusive thoughts) and/or compulsions (repetitive behaviors/mental acts to reduce anxiety) that are time-consuming (>1 hr/day) or cause significant distress/impairment. Insight specifiers range from good to absent/delusional.
What is the first-line treatment for OCD and how does dosing differ from depression?
SSRIs (often at higher doses than for depression) plus CBT with Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) are first-line. Clomipramine (a TCA) is an effective second-line option. Response may take 8-12 weeks.
How does OCD differ from obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)?
OCD involves ego-dystonic intrusive obsessions and compulsions that the patient finds distressing. OCPD is an ego-syntonic pervasive pattern of perfectionism, orderliness, and control without true obsessions/compulsions; the person sees their traits as appropriate.
What are the DSM-5 criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder?
Exposure to actual/threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence, followed by >1 month of symptoms across 4 clusters: intrusion (flashbacks/nightmares), avoidance, negative alterations in cognition/mood, and alterations in arousal/reactivity (hypervigilance, startle). Causes impairment.
How is Acute Stress Disorder distinguished from PTSD?
Acute stress disorder has the same type of trauma exposure and symptoms but the duration is 3 days to 1 month after the trauma. If symptoms persist beyond 1 month, the diagnosis becomes PTSD.
What is the first-line treatment for PTSD?
Trauma-focused psychotherapy (e.g., trauma-focused CBT, prolonged exposure, EMDR) is first-line. SSRIs/SNRIs (sertraline, paroxetine, venlafaxine) are first-line pharmacotherapy. Prazosin is used for trauma-related nightmares. Benzodiazepines should be avoided.
Show the other 42 Behavioral Health, Psychiatry, and the Nervous System flashcards
How do adjustment disorder, acute stress disorder, and PTSD differ in stressor and timing?
Adjustment disorder: emotional/behavioral symptoms within 3 months of an identifiable (not necessarily life-threatening) stressor, resolving within 6 months of stressor end. Acute stress disorder and PTSD require a trauma involving threatened death/serious injury/sexual violence; ASD lasts <1 month, PTSD >1 month.
What are the DSM-5 criteria for Schizophrenia?
>=2 of 5 symptoms for a significant portion of 1 month (at least one being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech), plus disorganized behavior or negative symptoms, with continuous disturbance/functional decline for >=6 months total.
How are schizophreniform disorder, brief psychotic disorder, and schizophrenia distinguished by duration?
Brief psychotic disorder: symptoms 1 day to <1 month with full return to baseline. Schizophreniform: 1-6 months. Schizophrenia: >=6 months (including prodromal/residual phases, with >=1 month of active symptoms).
What distinguishes schizoaffective disorder from a mood disorder with psychotic features?
Schizoaffective disorder requires >=2 weeks of delusions/hallucinations in the ABSENCE of a major mood episode, with mood episodes present for the majority of the illness. In mood disorder with psychotic features, psychosis occurs ONLY during mood episodes.
Compare positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia and their treatment response.
Positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech/behavior) respond well to antipsychotics, especially first-generation (D2 blockade). Negative symptoms (flat affect, alogia, avolition, anhedonia, asociality) respond poorly; second-generation agents and clozapine are somewhat more effective.
What is delusional disorder?
One or more delusions for >=1 month without other active-phase schizophrenia symptoms, with functioning not markedly impaired and behavior not obviously bizarre. Subtypes include erotomanic, grandiose, jealous, persecutory, and somatic.
How is delirium distinguished from dementia (major neurocognitive disorder)?
Delirium: acute onset, fluctuating course, impaired attention/consciousness, often reversible, with an underlying medical cause (infection, drugs, metabolic). Dementia: gradual onset, progressive, stable level of consciousness/attention (early), usually irreversible memory/cognitive decline.
What are the distinguishing features of Alzheimer disease neurocognitive disorder?
Gradual, progressive memory impairment (recent memory first), with cortical atrophy and beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary (tau) tangles. Treatment: cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine) and the NMDA antagonist memantine for moderate-severe disease.
How does vascular neurocognitive disorder typically present compared to Alzheimer disease?
Vascular dementia shows a stepwise, abrupt decline correlating with cerebrovascular events, with focal neurologic signs and a history of vascular risk factors, versus the smooth, gradual decline of Alzheimer disease.
What clinical features differentiate dementia with Lewy bodies from other dementias?
Lewy body dementia features fluctuating cognition, recurrent well-formed visual hallucinations, spontaneous parkinsonism, REM sleep behavior disorder, and severe sensitivity to antipsychotics. Cognitive decline often precedes or coincides with motor symptoms (versus Parkinson disease dementia where motor symptoms precede by >1 year).
What characterizes frontotemporal (Pick) neurocognitive disorder?
Early personality/behavioral changes (disinhibition, apathy, loss of empathy) and/or language deficits, with relatively preserved memory early. Onset is often younger (<65). Associated with tau (Pick bodies) or TDP-43 inclusions and frontal/temporal atrophy.
List the DSM-5 cluster A personality disorders and their key features.
Cluster A ('weird/odd'): Paranoid (pervasive distrust/suspicion), Schizoid (detachment, restricted emotion, no desire for relationships), Schizotypal (eccentric behavior, magical thinking, ideas of reference, odd perceptions).
List the DSM-5 cluster B personality disorders and their key features.
Cluster B ('wild/dramatic'): Antisocial (disregard for/violation of others' rights, age >=18 with conduct disorder before 15), Borderline (instability of affect, relationships, self-image; impulsivity; splitting; self-harm), Histrionic (excessive emotionality, attention-seeking), Narcissistic (grandiosity, need for admiration, lack of empathy).
List the DSM-5 cluster C personality disorders and their key features.
Cluster C ('worried/anxious'): Avoidant (social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, hypersensitivity to rejection but desires relationships), Dependent (excessive need to be cared for, submissive/clinging), Obsessive-compulsive (preoccupation with order, perfectionism, control).
What is the evidence-based first-line treatment for borderline personality disorder?
Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is the first-line and best-supported treatment. Psychotherapy is the mainstay; medications are adjunctive for specific symptoms (e.g., mood lability, impulsivity).
Differentiate somatic symptom disorder, illness anxiety disorder, conversion disorder, and factitious disorder.
Somatic symptom disorder: >=1 distressing somatic symptom with excessive thoughts/behaviors about it (>=6 months). Illness anxiety disorder: preoccupation with having/acquiring serious illness with minimal/no somatic symptoms. Conversion (functional neurological): neurologic symptoms incompatible with disease. Factitious: intentional falsification of illness to assume the sick role (no external reward).
How is malingering distinguished from factitious disorder?
Malingering is intentional production/feigning of symptoms motivated by EXTERNAL incentives (money, avoiding work/legal duty, obtaining drugs) and is not a psychiatric disorder. Factitious disorder involves feigning to assume the sick role with NO external reward (internal motivation).
Differentiate anorexia nervosa from bulimia nervosa.
Anorexia: restriction leading to significantly low body weight, intense fear of weight gain, distorted body image. Bulimia: recurrent binge eating with compensatory behaviors (vomiting, laxatives, exercise) at least weekly for 3 months, typically with normal or above-normal weight.
What are the major medical complications and refeeding risk in anorexia nervosa?
Complications include amenorrhea, osteoporosis, bradycardia/arrhythmias, lanugo, hypotension, and electrolyte abnormalities. Refeeding syndrome causes hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and cardiac failure; refeed slowly with electrolyte monitoring and phosphate repletion.
What is the first-line pharmacotherapy for bulimia nervosa, and which drug is contraindicated?
Fluoxetine (an SSRI) is first-line and FDA-approved for bulimia. Bupropion is CONTRAINDICATED in eating disorders due to increased seizure risk.
What characterizes narcolepsy and its core neurochemical deficit?
Excessive daytime sleepiness with sudden sleep attacks, often with cataplexy (sudden loss of muscle tone triggered by emotion), hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis. Caused by loss of hypothalamic orexin (hypocretin) neurons. Treated with stimulants/modafinil and sodium oxybate for cataplexy.
What defines obstructive sleep apnea and its first-line treatment?
Repetitive upper airway collapse during sleep causing apneas/hypopneas, loud snoring, daytime sleepiness, and morning headaches; risk factors include obesity and large neck circumference. Diagnosed by polysomnography (AHI). First-line treatment is CPAP plus weight loss.
What are the DSM-5 criteria for Alcohol Use Disorder severity?
A problematic pattern of alcohol use with >=2 of 11 criteria within 12 months (impaired control, social impairment, risky use, tolerance, withdrawal). Severity: mild = 2-3 criteria, moderate = 4-5, severe = >=6.
Describe the timeline and management of alcohol withdrawal, including delirium tremens.
Tremor/anxiety/autonomic symptoms at 6-24 hrs; withdrawal seizures at 12-48 hrs; alcoholic hallucinosis 12-24 hrs; delirium tremens (DTs) at 48-96 hrs with confusion, agitation, fever, tachycardia (can be fatal). Treatment: benzodiazepines (first-line), thiamine before glucose, and supportive care.
What medications are FDA-approved for maintenance treatment of Alcohol Use Disorder?
Naltrexone (opioid antagonist, reduces craving/reward; avoid with opioid use), acamprosate (modulates glutamate; good for those with hepatic disease/abstinent patients), and disulfiram (aversive aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor causing flushing/nausea with alcohol).
What is the presentation of opioid overdose and its antidote?
Opioid overdose: respiratory depression, pinpoint (miotic) pupils, decreased consciousness, decreased bowel sounds/constipation. Antidote is naloxone, an opioid antagonist; may precipitate acute withdrawal in dependent patients.
What are the medications for opioid use disorder maintenance therapy?
Methadone (full mu-opioid agonist, dispensed in licensed programs), buprenorphine (partial agonist, often combined with naloxone as Suboxone with a ceiling effect/lower overdose risk), and naltrexone (antagonist, requires opioid abstinence before starting).
What are the features of stimulant (cocaine/amphetamine) intoxication and withdrawal?
Intoxication: euphoria, dilated (mydriatic) pupils, tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, agitation/psychosis, and risk of MI/stroke/seizures. Withdrawal: 'crash' with hypersomnia, increased appetite, dysphoria, fatigue, and intense craving (no major life-threatening physiologic withdrawal). Management is largely supportive; benzodiazepines for agitation.
What is the recommended screening for depression and alcohol use in primary care (USPSTF/SBIRT)?
USPSTF recommends screening all adults for depression (e.g., PHQ-9) and for unhealthy alcohol use, with systems in place for diagnosis and treatment. SBIRT (Screening, Brief Intervention, Referral to Treatment) is the evidence-based framework for substance use, often using the AUDIT or CAGE questionnaire.
What is motivational interviewing and when is it used?
A patient-centered, collaborative counseling style that explores and resolves ambivalence to elicit behavior change, using open questions, affirmations, reflective listening, and summaries (OARS). It is especially effective for substance use and other behavior-change interventions and aligns with the stages-of-change model.
What is serotonin syndrome and how is it managed?
A potentially life-threatening syndrome from excess serotonergic activity (often SSRI + MAOI, or serotonergic drug combinations) with the triad of mental status changes, autonomic instability (hyperthermia, tachycardia), and neuromuscular hyperactivity (clonus, hyperreflexia, especially lower extremities). Treatment: stop offending agents, supportive care, and cyproheptadine.
What is the mechanism and key adverse effects of SSRIs?
SSRIs block presynaptic serotonin reuptake (SERT). Adverse effects: GI upset, sexual dysfunction, insomnia, initial increase in anxiety, hyponatremia (SIADH, especially elderly), and a discontinuation syndrome if stopped abruptly. They carry a black-box warning for increased suicidality in patients <25.
Compare bupropion, mirtazapine, and SNRIs as antidepressants.
Bupropion (NDRI): no sexual dysfunction/weight gain, helps smoking cessation, but lowers seizure threshold (avoid in eating disorders/seizures). Mirtazapine (alpha-2 antagonist): causes sedation and weight gain (useful for insomnia/poor appetite). SNRIs (venlafaxine, duloxetine): also treat neuropathic pain; venlafaxine can raise blood pressure.
What dietary and drug precaution is critical with MAOIs?
MAOIs require avoidance of tyramine-rich foods (aged cheese, cured meats, wine) to prevent hypertensive crisis, and they must not be combined with serotonergic drugs (SSRIs, meperidine) due to serotonin syndrome risk. A washout period (typically 2 weeks; 5 weeks for fluoxetine) is needed when switching.
What are the therapeutic monitoring requirements and toxicity signs of lithium?
Narrow therapeutic index (~0.6-1.2 mEq/L; toxicity >1.5). Monitor levels, renal function, and thyroid function. Toxicity: tremor, ataxia, confusion, seizures. Chronic effects: nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, hypothyroidism, Ebstein anomaly (teratogen). NSAIDs, thiazides, and ACE inhibitors raise lithium levels.
Compare valproate, carbamazepine, and lamotrigine as mood stabilizers.
Valproate: effective for mania/mixed/rapid cycling; risks hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, weight gain, and neural tube defects (teratogen). Carbamazepine: risk of agranulocytosis, SIADH, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, and CYP induction. Lamotrigine: best for bipolar depression maintenance; risk of Stevens-Johnson syndrome, so titrate slowly.
Compare first-generation (typical) and second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics.
Typicals (haloperidol, fluphenazine) are potent D2 blockers, controlling positive symptoms but causing more extrapyramidal symptoms and hyperprolactinemia. Atypicals (risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine) block D2 and 5-HT2A, treat negative symptoms somewhat better, with fewer EPS but more metabolic side effects (weight gain, diabetes, dyslipidemia).
What are the extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotics and their time course?
Acute dystonia (hours-days: muscle spasm/torticollis, treat with anticholinergics/diphenhydramine), akathisia (days-weeks: restlessness, treat with beta-blocker/lowering dose), parkinsonism (weeks-months: bradykinesia/rigidity/tremor), and tardive dyskinesia (months-years: involuntary orofacial movements, often irreversible; treat with VMAT2 inhibitors).
What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome and how is it managed?
A life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics (dopamine blockade) with FEVER (hyperthermia), Encephalopathy (altered mental status), Vitals instability (autonomic), Elevated CK/enzymes, and Rigidity ('lead-pipe'). Treatment: stop the antipsychotic, supportive cooling/hydration, and dantrolene or bromocriptine/dopamine agonists.
What are the unique indication and monitoring requirements of clozapine?
Clozapine is reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia and reduces suicidality; it is the most effective antipsychotic. It requires regular ANC monitoring due to agranulocytosis risk, and carries risks of myocarditis, seizures (dose-related), metabolic effects, and severe constipation/ileus.
What is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) and what conditions is it used for?
CBT is a structured, time-limited, goal-oriented therapy that identifies and restructures maladaptive thoughts (cognitive distortions) and behaviors. It is first-line/highly effective for depression, anxiety disorders, OCD (with ERP), PTSD, insomnia, and many others, often combined with medication.
Differentiate the major psychotherapeutic modalities: psychodynamic, interpersonal, dialectical behavior, and supportive therapy.
Psychodynamic: explores unconscious conflicts and past experiences/transference. Interpersonal (IPT): focuses on current relationships and role transitions to relieve depression. DBT: combines CBT with mindfulness/distress tolerance/emotion regulation for borderline PD and self-harm. Supportive: bolsters existing coping mechanisms and provides reassurance.
Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Behavioral Health, Psychiatry, and the Nervous System FAQ
What is in the Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Behavioral Health, Psychiatry, and the Nervous System syllabus?
Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Behavioral Health, Psychiatry, and the Nervous System is split into 4 chapters: Mood, Anxiety, and Trauma Disorders, Psychotic, Cognitive, and Other Disorders, Substance Use and Addiction Medicine and Psychopharmacology and Therapy. Together they contain 14 topics and 17 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Behavioral Health, Psychiatry, and the Nervous System?
4 chapters, containing 14 topics and 17 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Mood, Anxiety, and Trauma Disorders, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination (COMLEX-USA) Behavioral Health, Psychiatry, and the Nervous System?
Yes — a 62-card Behavioral Health, Psychiatry, and the Nervous System deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.