🇬🇧 Common Professional Examination (CPE) · subject
Common Professional Examination (CPE) Land Law (Property Law) Syllabus
The Land Law (Property Law) syllabus for Common Professional Examination (CPE) in full: 4 chapters, 15 topics and 16 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 Land Law (Property Law) flashcards with answers.
Land Law (Property Law) syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Estates, Interests and Registration
4 topics- Estates and Interests in Land
- Freehold and leasehold estates
- Legal and equitable interests
- The Concept of Land
- Fixtures and chattels
- Registered Land
- Land Registration Act 2002 and registrable dispositions
- Overriding interests
- Unregistered Land and Land Charges
- Estates and Interests in Land
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Co-ownership and Trusts of Land
4 topics- Joint Tenancy and Tenancy in Common
- The four unities and severance
- Trusts of Land
- TLATA 1996 and powers of trustees
- Resulting and Constructive Trusts of the Home
- Common intention constructive trusts (Stack v Dowden, Jones v Kernott)
- Resolution of Disputes and Sale
- Joint Tenancy and Tenancy in Common
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Leases
3 topics- Essential Characteristics of a Lease
- Certainty of term and exclusive possession (Street v Mountford)
- Leasehold Covenants
- Enforceability and the Landlord and Tenant (Covenants) Act 1995
- Termination of Leases
- Forfeiture and relief
- Essential Characteristics of a Lease
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Third Party Rights over Land
4 topics- Easements
- Re Ellenborough Park characteristics
- Creation: express, implied and prescription
- Freehold Covenants
- Running of burden and benefit at law and in equity
- Mortgages
- Creation, the equity of redemption and protection of the mortgagor
- Remedies of the mortgagee and the power of sale
- Licences and Proprietary Estoppel
- Easements
Common Professional Examination (CPE) Land Law (Property Law) flashcards — 52 questions with answers
What is the difference between a 'corporeal' and an 'incorporeal' hereditament in land law?
A corporeal hereditament is a physical, tangible thing attached to or part of the land (e.g. buildings, soil, fixtures). An incorporeal hereditament is an intangible right over land (e.g. an easement or profit). Both are 'real property' that historically passed to the heir.
Under s.205(1)(ix) Law of Property Act 1925, what is included in the statutory definition of 'land'?
Land includes the surface, buildings and parts of buildings, mines and minerals (whether or not held with the surface), corporeal hereditaments, and incorporeal hereditaments such as easements, rights and privileges in or over land.
State the Latin maxim describing the extent of ownership of land vertically, and its modern limitation.
'Cuius est solum, eius est usque ad coelum et ad inferos' (whoever owns the soil owns up to heaven and down to hell). Modern limits: ownership of airspace is restricted to the height necessary for ordinary use and enjoyment (Bernstein v Skyviews), and subsurface rights are limited by statute (e.g. Crown's right to gold/silver, oil under the Petroleum Act).
What is the legal test for distinguishing a 'fixture' from a 'chattel'?
Two tests: (1) the degree of annexation (how firmly attached, and damage caused by removal) and (2) the more important purpose of annexation (whether the item was attached to improve the land permanently or merely to enjoy it as a chattel). See Holland v Hodgson; Elitestone v Morris (a bungalow resting by weight held to be part of the land).
Name the only two legal estates in land capable of subsisting under s.1(1) Law of Property Act 1925.
(1) A fee simple absolute in possession (freehold); and (2) a term of years absolute (leasehold).
List the legal interests (rights in another's land) capable of existing at law under s.1(2) LPA 1925.
(a) An easement, right or privilege for an interest equivalent to a fee simple absolute in possession or a term of years absolute; (b) a rentcharge in possession; (c) a charge by way of legal mortgage; (d) certain other charges by statute; (e) rights of entry attached to a legal term of years or a legal rentcharge.
What is the effect of s.1(3) LPA 1925 on interests that do not qualify as legal estates or interests?
All other estates, interests and charges in or over land take effect as equitable interests only (e.g. restrictive covenants, estate contracts, beneficial interests under a trust, life interests, fee simples that are not absolute in possession).
What are the three certainties required to create a valid lease (term of years)?
(1) Certainty of parties; (2) certainty of premises; and (3) certainty of duration (the maximum term must be certain at the outset). Plus exclusive possession at a rent or for a term (Street v Mountford).
What is the key distinction established in Street v Mountford [1985] between a lease and a licence?
The grant of exclusive possession for a term at a rent creates a lease (tenancy), regardless of how the parties label it. A licence merely grants permission to occupy without exclusive possession. The label parties attach is not decisive; substance prevails over form.
What is the 'mirror principle' in registered land?
The register should reflect, accurately and completely, the totality of estates and interests affecting the registered land, so that a purchaser can rely on it as a true mirror of the title. (Subject to the imperfection created by overriding interests.)
What are the 'curtain principle' and the 'insurance/guarantee principle' in registered land?
Curtain principle: trusts are kept off the title (behind a curtain) so a purchaser need not look behind the register at beneficial interests, which are overreached. Insurance/guarantee principle: the State guarantees the accuracy of the register and pays indemnity for loss caused by errors or rectification.
Under the Land Registration Act 2002, what are the registrable dispositions that must be completed by registration to take effect at law (s.27)?
Key examples: a transfer of a registered estate; the grant of a lease over 7 years; the express grant of a legal easement; the grant of a legal charge (mortgage); and the grant of a rentcharge. Until registered, these take effect only in equity.
Distinguish between a 'notice' and a 'restriction' as methods of protecting interests on the Land Register under the LRA 2002.
A notice protects the priority of a burdening third-party interest (e.g. a restrictive covenant, estate contract, equitable easement) by entry against the registered title. A restriction regulates whether a disposition can be registered (e.g. requiring payment to two trustees to ensure overreaching), and is used to protect beneficial interests under a trust.
What are the two categories of overriding interests under the LRA 2002, and where are they found?
Schedule 1 (interests overriding first registration) and Schedule 3 (interests overriding registered dispositions). They bind a purchaser despite not appearing on the register.
Under Schedule 3 paragraph 2 LRA 2002, what are the requirements for an interest of a person in 'actual occupation' to override a registered disposition?
The person must have a proprietary interest in the land AND be in actual occupation at the time of the disposition. It will NOT override if: (a) the occupation would not have been obvious on a reasonably careful inspection AND the purchaser had no actual knowledge; or (b) inquiry was made of the occupier and they failed to disclose the right when they reasonably could have.
In Williams & Glyn's Bank v Boland [1981], what was established about a spouse's beneficial interest in the matrimonial home?
A non-legal-owner spouse with a beneficial interest under a trust who is in actual occupation has an overriding interest binding a mortgagee, even where the legal owner alone dealt with the bank. (Now subject to the obviousness/inquiry limits of Sch 3 para 2 and overreaching where two trustees are paid.)
What is the system for protecting third-party interests in UNREGISTERED land, and what statute governs it?
Land charges are registered against the name of the estate owner under the Land Charges Act 1972. Registration constitutes actual notice to the world; non-registration of a registrable charge generally makes it void against a purchaser.
List the main classes of land charge under the Land Charges Act 1972 (Classes C and D).
Class C: (i) puisne mortgage, (ii) limited owner's charge, (iii) general equitable charge, (iv) estate contract. Class D: (i) Inland Revenue charge, (ii) restrictive covenant (post-1925), (iii) equitable easement. Class F: a spouse's/civil partner's statutory home right.
What is the effect of FAILING to register a Class C(iv) estate contract or a Class D(ii) restrictive covenant in unregistered land?
An unregistered Class C(iv) or D(ii) land charge is void against a purchaser of a legal estate for money or money's worth (s.4 LCA 1972), even if the purchaser has actual knowledge of it (Midland Bank v Green - 'money or money's worth' need not be adequate).
In unregistered land, how is the priority of a purely equitable interest that is NOT registrable as a land charge determined?
By the doctrine of notice: a bona fide purchaser of a legal estate for value without notice (actual, constructive or imputed) takes free of the equitable interest ('equity's darling'). Constructive notice covers interests a reasonably prudent purchaser would have discovered on inspection of the land and title.
Show the other 32 Land Law (Property Law) flashcards
What are the 'four unities' required for a joint tenancy (AG Securities / AG v Cuthbertson - the unities of possession, interest, title and time)?
Unity of Possession (each entitled to possess the whole); Unity of Interest (interests identical in nature, extent and duration); Unity of Title (all derive title from the same document); Unity of Time (all interests vest at the same time). A tenancy in common requires only unity of possession.
What is the doctrine of survivorship (ius accrescendi) and to which co-ownership form does it apply?
On the death of a joint tenant, their interest automatically accrues to the surviving joint tenant(s); it cannot pass by will or intestacy. It applies only to joint tenancies, not tenancies in common (where each holds a distinct, devisable share).
Can the LEGAL estate in co-owned land ever be held as a tenancy in common? Why or why not?
No. By ss.1(6) and 36(2) LPA 1925 a legal estate cannot be held as a tenancy in common; co-owners always hold the legal estate as joint tenants (max four, and it cannot be severed). Only the equitable/beneficial interest can be a tenancy in common.
List the methods of severing a beneficial joint tenancy in equity.
(1) Written notice under s.36(2) LPA 1925; (2) an act of a joint tenant operating on their own share (e.g. sale or mortgage of the share); (3) mutual agreement; (4) mutual conduct/a course of dealing showing intention to treat the tenancy as a tenancy in common; (5) by acquiring another co-owner's interest; also unlawful killing severs by forfeiture. See Williams v Hensman.
What are the requirements for a valid written notice of severance under s.36(2) LPA 1925?
The notice must show an immediate, irrevocable intention to sever now (not at a future date). It must be given to all other joint tenants. It need not be signed in any particular form and need not be agreed to. Service is governed by s.196 LPA 1925 (deemed served if left at the last known abode/posted, even if not actually read - Kinch v Bullard).
Following the abolition of the old trust for sale, what statute now imposes a 'trust of land' on all co-owned land, and what is its key feature?
The Trusts of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act 1996 (TOLATA). All concurrent co-ownership now takes effect behind a trust of land. Trustees have all the powers of an absolute owner (s.6), there is no automatic duty to sell, and beneficiaries with an interest in possession have a right to occupy (ss.12-13).
Under s.14 TOLATA 1996, who may apply to the court and for what, and what factors guide the court (s.15)?
Any trustee or person with an interest in the trust property may apply for an order resolving disputes (e.g. an order for sale). Under s.15 the court considers: (a) the intentions of those who created the trust; (b) the purposes for which the property is held; (c) the welfare of any minor occupying or who might occupy as a home; and (d) the interests of any secured creditor.
How does the court approach an application for sale under s.14 TOLATA when made by a trustee in bankruptcy?
Section 335A Insolvency Act 1986 applies. After one year from the bankruptcy, the court assumes the interests of the creditors outweigh all other considerations unless the circumstances are 'exceptional'. Ordinary hardship to the family is not exceptional (Re Citro).
What is a 'resulting trust' of the family home and how is the beneficial share quantified under it?
A resulting trust arises where a person contributes to the purchase price but is not on the legal title; equity presumes they intended a beneficial share proportionate to their direct financial contribution to the purchase. Shares are fixed at the time of acquisition strictly by arithmetic contribution.
Following Stack v Dowden and Jones v Kernott, how is the beneficial interest in a jointly-owned family home (legal joint tenants) approached?
Equity follows the law: there is a strong presumption of a beneficial joint tenancy (equal shares). This can be displaced by showing a common intention that shares should be different, found from the parties' whole course of dealing. If a different intention is shown but no quantification, the court imputes a fair share having regard to the whole course of conduct.
What are the two ways to establish a common intention CONSTRUCTIVE trust under Lloyds Bank v Rosset (sole legal owner cases)?
(1) An express agreement, arrangement or understanding that the claimant should have a beneficial interest, on which the claimant relied to their detriment; or (2) in the absence of express agreement, an inferred common intention from direct financial contributions to the purchase price or mortgage instalments (and detrimental reliance).
What three elements must a claimant prove to establish a constructive trust based on common intention?
(1) A common intention (express or inferred) that the claimant has a beneficial interest; (2) detrimental reliance by the claimant on that common intention; and (3) it would be unconscionable to deny the claimant a share. Quantification then follows (Stack/Jones whole-course-of-dealing).
What are the four essential characteristics of an easement laid down in Re Ellenborough Park [1956]?
(1) There must be a dominant and a servient tenement; (2) the easement must accommodate (benefit) the dominant tenement; (3) the dominant and servient tenements must be owned/occupied by different persons; and (4) the right must be capable of forming the subject matter of a grant (capable of definition, a capable grantor/grantee, and within the general nature of recognised easements).
Why does an easement fail the 'capable of forming the subject matter of a grant' test if it amounts to exclusive/joint use ousting the servient owner?
An easement must not be so extensive as to leave the servient owner without any reasonable use of their land (the 'ouster' principle). A claim amounting to exclusive possession or joint use depriving the owner of reasonable use cannot be an easement (Copeland v Greenhalf; cf. Batchelor v Marlow; Moncrieff v Jamieson).
List the methods by which an easement may be created.
(1) Express grant or reservation (in a deed/registered disposition); (2) implied grant or reservation by necessity; (3) implied by common intention; (4) implied under the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows; (5) implied by statute under s.62 LPA 1925; and (6) by prescription (long use).
State the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows for the implied grant of easements.
On the sale of part of land, the buyer impliedly acquires as easements all quasi-easements which were (1) continuous and apparent, and/or (2) necessary for the reasonable enjoyment of the land sold, and which were (3) used by the common owner for the benefit of the part sold at the time of the grant.
How can s.62 LPA 1925 operate to create new legal easements on a conveyance?
Section 62 implies into a conveyance all liberties, privileges, easements, rights and advantages appertaining to the land. It can upgrade a mere licence or precarious permission enjoyed before the conveyance into a full legal easement, provided there was prior diversity of occupation (or, per Wood v Waddington, a continuous and apparent use).
What are the three methods of acquiring an easement by prescription, and the common requirement?
(1) Prescription at common law (use since time immemorial - 1189); (2) the doctrine of lost modern grant; and (3) the Prescription Act 1832 (20 or 40 years). All require use as of right - 'nec vi, nec clam, nec precario' (without force, without secrecy, without permission).
What is the running of the BURDEN of a restrictive (negative) freehold covenant in equity - state the rule in Tulk v Moxhay.
The burden of a restrictive covenant runs in equity if: (1) the covenant is negative/restrictive in substance; (2) it touches and concerns/benefits the covenantee's retained land; (3) it was made with the intention that the burden run with the servient land (presumed by s.79 LPA 1925); and (4) the purchaser of the servient land had notice (registration as a Class D(ii) land charge / notice on the register).
Why does the BURDEN of a POSITIVE freehold covenant not run with the land at law or in equity, and name a device used to circumvent this.
At law a covenant burden does not pass to successors (Austerberry v Oldham; Rhone v Stephens), and Tulk v Moxhay only applies to negative covenants. Devices to circumvent: chains of indemnity covenants; the benefit-and-burden principle (Halsall v Brand); a right of re-entry/rentcharge; a long lease; or commonhold/s.121 LPA mechanisms.
How may the BENEFIT of a freehold covenant pass at law to a successor of the covenantee?
At law the benefit runs if: (1) the covenant touches and concerns the land of the covenantee; (2) the covenantee held a legal estate in the benefited land; (3) the successor holds a legal estate (s.78 LPA 1925); and (4) there was intention for the benefit to run (presumed by s.78). Smith v River Douglas Catchment Board.
In equity, what are the three methods by which the BENEFIT of a restrictive covenant may pass to a successor?
(1) Annexation (express, or statutory under s.78 LPA 1925 per Federated Homes); (2) express assignment of the benefit with the land; and (3) a building scheme/scheme of development (Elliston v Reece, where mutual covenants bind a defined estate of plots).
What is the difference between a legal mortgage of registered land and the historic method, under the LPA 1925 and LRA 2002?
Historically a mortgage was by demise (a long lease) or by charge by way of legal mortgage. Under s.23 LRA 2002, the only method of legally mortgaging a registered estate is a 'charge by way of legal mortgage', completed by registration. The chargee gets the same protection as if granted a 3000-year lease.
What is the 'equity of redemption' and the rule against 'clogs and fetters' on it?
The equity of redemption is the mortgagor's residual ownership and right to redeem (recover the property free of the mortgage) on repayment, even after the legal contractual date has passed. Equity prevents any 'clog or fetter' on this right: terms that make redemption illusory, oppressive/unconscionable, or postpone redemption unreasonably may be struck down (Fairclough v Swan Brewery; cf. Knightsbridge Estates).
List the principal remedies available to a legal mortgagee on the mortgagor's default.
(1) Action on the personal covenant to repay (debt); (2) possession of the property; (3) sale (s.101 LPA 1925, exercisable when the power has arisen and become exercisable); (4) appointment of a receiver; and (5) foreclosure (now very rare).
When does a mortgagee's POWER OF SALE arise and when does it become EXERCISABLE under ss.101 and 103 LPA 1925?
The power of sale ARISES (s.101) when: the mortgage is by deed, the legal redemption date has passed, and there is no contrary intention. It becomes EXERCISABLE (s.103) when one of: (i) notice to repay served and 3 months' default; (ii) interest is 2 months in arrears; or (iii) breach of another mortgage provision.
What duties does a mortgagee owe when exercising the power of sale?
The mortgagee may choose its own timing but, once it decides to sell, must act in good faith and take reasonable care to obtain the true market value/proper price of the property at the date of sale (Cuckmere Brick v Mutual Finance). Proceeds are applied: costs of sale, then prior mortgages, then the selling mortgagee's debt, with any surplus held on trust for the next mortgagee/mortgagor.
What is a 'licence coupled with an interest' and is it revocable?
A licence coupled with a recognised proprietary interest (e.g. a profit à prendre or right to remove timber) granting the right to enter to enjoy that interest. It is irrevocable for as long as the interest subsists, is assignable with the interest, and binds third parties because of the proprietary interest it accompanies.
What are the five elements required to establish proprietary estoppel?
(1) An assurance or representation by the owner that the claimant has or will acquire a right in the land; (2) reliance by the claimant on that assurance; (3) detriment suffered as a result of the reliance; and then (4) it would be unconscionable for the owner to go back on the assurance (Thorner v Major; Gillett v Holt). The court then satisfies the equity with an appropriate remedy.
How does the court satisfy the equity arising from proprietary estoppel, and what is the guiding principle?
The court has a wide discretion to award the minimum remedy necessary to do justice / satisfy the equity, which is geared to avoid an unconscionable result and may be proportionate to the detriment suffered. Remedies range from transfer of the fee simple, to a lease/licence, an easement, a charge, or monetary compensation (Jennings v Rice; Guest v Guest).
Distinguish the three main ways a lease may be terminated.
(1) Effluxion of time (a fixed term simply expires); (2) notice to quit (for periodic tenancies, generally one full period's notice); (3) surrender (tenant yields the lease to the landlord) or merger (lease and reversion vest in one person); and (4) forfeiture (landlord re-enters for breach of covenant, requiring a forfeiture clause/right of re-entry).
What procedural steps must a landlord take to forfeit a lease for breach of a covenant OTHER than non-payment of rent, and what relief is available to the tenant?
Under s.146 LPA 1925 the landlord must serve a notice (i) specifying the breach, (ii) requiring it to be remedied if capable of remedy, and (iii) requiring compensation if demanded; and allow a reasonable time before re-entering. The tenant may apply for relief from forfeiture, which the court may grant on terms (typically remedying the breach and paying costs). Note s.146 does not apply to non-payment of rent.
Common Professional Examination (CPE) Land Law (Property Law) FAQ
What is in the Common Professional Examination (CPE) Land Law (Property Law) syllabus?
Common Professional Examination (CPE) Land Law (Property Law) is split into 4 chapters: Estates, Interests and Registration, Co-ownership and Trusts of Land, Leases and Third Party Rights over Land. Together they contain 15 topics and 16 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Common Professional Examination (CPE) Land Law (Property Law)?
4 chapters, containing 15 topics and 16 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Estates, Interests and Registration, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Common Professional Examination (CPE) Land Law (Property Law)?
Yes — a 52-card Land Law (Property Law) deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.