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Common Professional Examination (CPE) Criminal Law Syllabus
The Criminal Law syllabus for Common Professional Examination (CPE) in full: 5 chapters, 18 topics and 26 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Criminal Law flashcards with answers.
Criminal Law syllabus: all 5 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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General Principles of Criminal Liability
3 topics- Actus Reus
- Conduct, result and circumstance elements
- Omissions and duty situations
- Causation in criminal law
- Mens Rea
- Intention: direct and oblique (Woollin)
- Recklessness (Cunningham subjective test)
- Negligence and strict liability
- Coincidence and Transferred Malice
- Actus Reus
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Fatal and Non-Fatal Offences Against the Person
4 topics- Murder
- The actus reus and malice aforethought
- Voluntary Manslaughter
- Loss of control (Coroners and Justice Act 2009)
- Diminished responsibility
- Involuntary Manslaughter
- Unlawful act manslaughter
- Gross negligence manslaughter
- Non-Fatal Offences
- Assault and battery
- Offences Against the Person Act 1861: ss 47, 20 and 18
- Murder
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Property Offences
4 topics- Theft
- Appropriation, property and belonging to another
- Dishonesty (Ivey v Genting) and intention to permanently deprive
- Robbery and Burglary
- Theft Act 1968 ss 8 and 9
- Fraud
- Fraud Act 2006: false representation, failure to disclose, abuse of position
- Criminal Damage
- Criminal Damage Act 1971 and lawful excuse
- Theft
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Defences
3 topics- Capacity Defences
- Insanity and automatism
- Intoxication (specific and basic intent)
- Necessity-Based Defences
- Self-defence and prevention of crime
- Duress by threats and of circumstances
- Consent
- Capacity Defences
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Inchoate Offences and Participation
4 topics- Attempts
- Criminal Attempts Act 1981 and the 'more than merely preparatory' test
- Conspiracy
- Statutory and common law conspiracy
- Encouraging or Assisting Crime
- Serious Crime Act 2007
- Secondary Participation
- Aiding, abetting, counselling and procuring (Jogee)
- Attempts
Common Professional Examination (CPE) Criminal Law flashcards โ 51 questions with answers
What are the two essential general components of a criminal offence that the prosecution must prove?
The actus reus (the prohibited conduct, circumstances or consequences) and the mens rea (the required guilty state of mind), which must coincide in time.
Define 'actus reus' and list its three possible forms.
The actus reus is the external/physical element of an offence. It can take the form of (1) conduct, (2) a result/consequence, or (3) a state of affairs/circumstance, and it must be voluntary.
What is the general rule on liability for omissions, and what are the recognised exceptions giving rise to a duty to act?
The general rule is no liability for failing to act. Exceptions arise where there is a duty: by statute; by contract (Pittwood); by a special/voluntary relationship (Gibbins & Proctor; Stone & Dobinson); by creating a dangerous situation (Miller); or by holding a public office (Dytham).
What are the rules of factual and legal causation in result crimes?
Factual causation uses the 'but for' test (White): but for the defendant's act, would the result have occurred? Legal causation requires the act to be an operating and substantial cause (Smith); it need not be the sole cause, but a novus actus interveniens can break the chain.
What three types of intervening act may break the chain of causation (novus actus interveniens)?
(1) A free, deliberate and informed act of a third party; (2) an act of the victim that is unforeseeable/'daft' (Roberts; Williams); and (3) extraordinary natural events. Medical treatment breaks the chain only if 'palpably wrong' and so independent it overwhelms the original wound (Cheshire; Jordan).
State the 'thin skull' rule in causation.
The defendant must take the victim as found. A pre-existing condition or characteristic (physical, or per Blaue religious belief affecting refusal of treatment) that makes the harm worse does not break the chain of causation.
Define 'mens rea' and name the main fault elements in the hierarchy.
Mens rea is the mental/fault element of an offence. The main states are intention (direct and oblique), recklessness, knowledge/belief, dishonesty, and negligence.
Distinguish direct intention from oblique (indirect) intention, and state the test for oblique intention.
Direct intention means the consequence is the defendant's aim or purpose. Oblique intention applies where the consequence is not the aim: per Woollin, the jury may find intention if death/serious harm was a virtual certainty of the act and the defendant appreciated that it was.
State the test for subjective (Cunningham) recklessness.
A defendant is reckless if they foresaw a risk of the prohibited consequence/circumstance and went on unreasonably to take that risk. Following R v G [2003], recklessness in criminal law is assessed subjectively (objective Caldwell recklessness is abolished).
What is the doctrine of transferred malice and what is its key limitation?
Where a defendant directs mens rea at one victim/object but the actus reus takes effect on another of the same type, the malice is transferred (Latimer). Limitation: malice cannot transfer between different types of offence/actus reus (Pembliton โ intent to hit a person could not supply mens rea for criminal damage).
How is the requirement that actus reus and mens rea coincide satisfied in continuing-act and single-transaction cases?
Coincidence can be satisfied by treating conduct as a continuing act so mens rea formed during it suffices (Fagan), or by treating a series of acts as one transaction so mens rea at any point covers the whole (Thabo Meli; Church).
State the definition of murder (the actus reus and mens rea).
Murder (common law, per Coke) is the unlawful killing of a human being under the King's/Queen's peace, with malice aforethought. The mens rea is intention to kill (express malice) OR intention to cause grievous bodily harm (implied malice) (Vickers; Cunningham).
What three special/partial defences reduce murder to manslaughter, and what is their effect?
Loss of control, diminished responsibility, and a suicide pact. They are partial defences available only to murder; if successful they reduce liability to voluntary manslaughter, removing the mandatory life sentence.
State the three components of the partial defence of loss of control (Coroners and Justice Act 2009, ss 54โ55).
(1) The defendant lost self-control; (2) the loss had a qualifying trigger โ fear of serious violence and/or things said/done amounting to circumstances of an extremely grave character giving a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged; and (3) a person of the defendant's sex and age with normal tolerance and self-restraint might have reacted similarly. The loss need not be sudden, and sexual infidelity alone is excluded as a trigger.
State the elements of diminished responsibility (Homicide Act 1957 s 2, as amended by the Coroners and Justice Act 2009).
An abnormality of mental functioning, arising from a recognised medical condition, that substantially impaired the defendant's ability to understand the nature of their conduct, form a rational judgment, or exercise self-control, and which provides an explanation for the killing (i.e. is a significant contributory factor). The burden is on the defence on the balance of probabilities.
Name the three types of involuntary manslaughter.
(1) Unlawful act (constructive) manslaughter; (2) gross negligence manslaughter; and (3) (sometimes recognised) reckless manslaughter.
State the four elements of unlawful act (constructive) manslaughter.
(1) An intentional act (not an omission) that is (2) criminally unlawful, (3) objectively dangerous โ a sober and reasonable person would foresee the risk of some harm (Church), and (4) which causes death. The defendant needs mens rea for the base unlawful act only, not for death (DPP v Newbury).
State the elements of gross negligence manslaughter (Adomako).
(1) A duty of care owed to the victim; (2) breach of that duty; (3) the breach causes death; and (4) the breach was so grossly negligent as to be criminal โ a serious and obvious risk of death that justifies a criminal conviction (Rose; Broughton).
List the five principal non-fatal offences against the person in ascending order of seriousness.
(1) Assault (common assault); (2) battery; (3) assault occasioning actual bodily harm (OAPA 1861 s 47); (4) malicious wounding/inflicting GBH (s 20); (5) wounding/causing GBH with intent (s 18).
State the actus reus and mens rea of common assault.
Actus reus: causing the victim to apprehend immediate unlawful personal violence. Mens rea: intention or (Cunningham) recklessness as to causing that apprehension. Words alone, and even silence, can suffice (Ireland; Constanza).
Show the other 31 Criminal Law flashcards
State the actus reus and mens rea of battery.
Actus reus: the infliction of unlawful force (any unlawful touching) on another. Mens rea: intention or recklessness as to the application of unlawful force.
For OAPA 1861 s 47 (ABH), what is the actus reus and what mens rea is required?
Actus reus: an assault or battery occasioning actual bodily harm (any hurt or injury interfering with health/comfort, more than trivial โ Miller; includes psychiatric harm and momentary loss of consciousness โ T v DPP). Mens rea: only that of the assault/battery; no further mens rea as to the ABH is needed (Savage; Parmenter).
Compare OAPA 1861 s 20 and s 18: actus reus and mens rea of each.
s 20: unlawfully and maliciously wound or inflict GBH; mens rea is intention or recklessness as to some harm (Cunningham/Parmenter). s 18: unlawfully and maliciously wound or cause GBH WITH INTENT to do GBH (or to resist/prevent lawful apprehension); mens rea is specific intent to cause GBH. A 'wound' requires breaking of both layers of skin (JCC v Eisenhower).
State the statutory definition of theft and its five elements (Theft Act 1968 s 1).
Theft is the dishonest appropriation of property belonging to another with the intention permanently to deprive. The five elements (ss 1โ6): (1) appropriation (s 3), (2) property (s 4), (3) belonging to another (s 5), (4) dishonesty (s 2), and (5) intention permanently to deprive (s 6).
What is 'appropriation' for theft (Theft Act 1968 s 3), and can it occur with the owner's consent?
Appropriation is any assumption of the rights of an owner (Morris โ assuming any one right suffices). Per Gomez, appropriation can occur even where the owner consents to the taking, and per Hinks even where there is a valid gift; consent does not negate appropriation.
How is dishonesty determined for theft, including the s 2 negative situations and the current test?
Theft Act 1968 s 2 lists situations that are NOT dishonest: belief in a legal right (s 2(1)(a)), belief the owner would consent (s 2(1)(b)), or belief the owner cannot be found by reasonable steps (s 2(1)(c)). Otherwise dishonesty is tested per Ivey v Genting (approved in Barton & Booth): (1) ascertain the defendant's actual state of knowledge/belief, then (2) ask whether their conduct was dishonest by the objective standards of ordinary decent people.
What does 'intention permanently to deprive' include under Theft Act 1968 s 6?
Beyond an outright intention to keep, s 6 extends to treating the thing as one's own to dispose of regardless of the other's rights, including borrowing for a period and in circumstances equivalent to an outright taking (e.g. returning a thing once its goodness/virtue is exhausted โ Lloyd).
State the definition and elements of robbery (Theft Act 1968 s 8).
A person is guilty of robbery if they steal (a complete theft, including all five elements) and, immediately before or at the time of doing so, and in order to do so, use force on any person or put/seek to put any person in fear of being then and there subjected to force. If the underlying theft fails (e.g. no dishonesty), there is no robbery (Robinson).
State the two forms of burglary under Theft Act 1968 s 9(1)(a) and s 9(1)(b).
s 9(1)(a): entering a building (or part) as a trespasser WITH INTENT to steal, inflict GBH, or do unlawful damage. s 9(1)(b): having entered as a trespasser, the defendant then steals/attempts to steal or inflicts/attempts to inflict GBH. The key difference is the timing of the ulterior intent (on entry vs after entry).
What are the elements common to both forms of burglary regarding entry and trespass?
There must be (1) an entry (which need not be 'effective and substantial' โ Ryan), (2) of a building or part of a building (including inhabited vehicles/vessels), (3) as a trespasser โ the defendant must know or be reckless as to the facts making the entry a trespass (entering in excess of permission counts โ Jones & Smith).
Name the three principal fraud offences under the Fraud Act 2006.
(1) Fraud by false representation (s 2); (2) fraud by failing to disclose information where under a legal duty (s 3); and (3) fraud by abuse of position (s 4). All require dishonesty and an intention to make a gain or cause a loss.
State the elements of fraud by false representation (Fraud Act 2006 s 2).
The defendant (1) dishonestly (2) makes a false representation (express or implied, as to fact or law, including state of mind), (3) knowing it is or might be untrue/misleading, (4) with intent to make a gain for themselves/another or to cause loss to another or expose another to a risk of loss. The offence is complete on making the representation; no gain/loss need actually result, and no victim need be deceived.
State the actus reus and the two forms of mens rea for criminal damage (Criminal Damage Act 1971 s 1(1)).
Actus reus: destroying or damaging property belonging to another (damage includes temporary/remediable impairment of value or usefulness โ Hardman; Roe v Kingerlee). Mens rea: intention OR (subjective, R v G) recklessness as to destroying/damaging property belonging to another, without lawful excuse.
What are the two statutory 'lawful excuse' defences to criminal damage (Criminal Damage Act 1971 s 5)?
(1) Honest belief that the owner would have consented had they known the circumstances (s 5(2)(a)); and (2) acting to protect property belonging to oneself or another, believing it was in immediate need of protection and the means adopted were reasonable (s 5(2)(b)). The belief need only be honestly held; it need not be reasonable (s 5(3)).
State the elements of aggravated criminal damage (Criminal Damage Act 1971 s 1(2)).
Destroying or damaging property (which may be the defendant's own) intending by the damage to endanger the life of another, or being reckless as to whether life would thereby be endangered. The danger to life must arise from the damage itself (Steer). The s 5 lawful excuse defences do NOT apply.
What is the test for the capacity defence of insanity (M'Naghten Rules)?
At the time of the act, the defendant was labouring under a defect of reason, from a disease of the mind, such that they did not know the nature and quality of their act, or, if they did, did not know it was legally wrong. The burden is on the defence on the balance of probabilities; a successful plea gives the special verdict 'not guilty by reason of insanity'.
Distinguish insane from non-insane automatism in terms of cause and outcome.
Both involve a total loss of voluntary control. Insane automatism stems from an internal cause/disease of the mind (e.g. epilepsy, diabetes via hyperglycaemia โ Hennessy) and yields the insanity special verdict. Non-insane automatism stems from an external cause (e.g. a blow, or hypoglycaemia from insulin โ Quick) and results in a complete acquittal.
How does voluntary intoxication affect liability, distinguishing specific and basic intent offences (DPP v Majewski)?
For specific intent offences (e.g. murder, s 18, theft), evidence of voluntary intoxication can negate the required intent (though it may leave liability for a lesser basic intent offence). For basic intent offences (e.g. s 20, s 47, battery, assault, criminal damage), voluntary intoxication is no defence โ getting intoxicated is itself the reckless course of conduct supplying the fault.
How does the defence of duress by threats operate, and what are its key elements (Graham/Hasan)?
Duress is a complete defence (except to murder, attempted murder, and some treason). Elements: (1) a threat of death or serious injury to the defendant or another; (2) a reasonable belief in the threat; (3) the threat caused the defendant to act; (4) a sober person of reasonable firmness sharing the defendant's characteristics would have responded the same way; (5) no safe avenue of escape; and (6) the defendant did not voluntarily expose themselves to the risk (e.g. joining a criminal gang).
What is duress of circumstances, and how does it relate to necessity?
Duress of circumstances is a complete defence where objective dangerous circumstances (rather than a person's threat) compel the defendant to commit a crime to avoid death or serious injury (Willer; Conway; Pommell). It mirrors the Graham/Hasan test and is closely related to the limited common law defence of necessity (Re A โ conjoined twins).
To which offences is the defence of duress NOT available?
Duress (by threats or circumstances) is not available to murder (as principal or secondary party โ Howe), attempted murder (Gotts), or certain forms of treason.
How does the law treat consent as a defence to non-fatal offences, and what is the general limit (R v Brown)?
Consent is generally a defence to assault and battery, but NOT to offences causing ABH or above unless they fall within recognised public-interest exceptions โ properly conducted sports, reasonable surgery, tattooing/piercing/personal adornment (Wilson), rough horseplay (Jones), and dangerous exhibitions. Sado-masochistic violence is not a valid exception (Brown).
When does a mistaken or fraudulently-obtained consent remain valid for non-fatal offences?
An honest belief in consent (even if unreasonable) can negate the mens rea of assault/battery (Aitken). Fraud vitiates consent only if it deceives as to the nature/quality of the act or the identity of the defendant (Tabassum; Richardson). Failure to disclose risks (e.g. of infection) may negate consent to the risk of serious harm (Dica; Konzani).
State the elements of a criminal attempt (Criminal Attempts Act 1981 s 1).
A person attempts an offence if, with intent to commit an indictable offence, they do an act which is more than merely preparatory to its commission. Mens rea is intention (the full intent for the substantive offence, including intent to kill for attempted murder โ Whybrow).
How do courts determine whether an act is 'more than merely preparatory' for attempt?
It is a question of fact for the jury. The defendant must have moved beyond planning/preparation and embarked on the commission of the offence proper โ e.g. 'on the job' (Gullefer; Jones โ getting in the car with a loaded gun sufficed; Geddes โ being in school toilets with kit was merely preparatory).
Can a person be liable for attempting the impossible under the Criminal Attempts Act 1981?
Yes. Per s 1(2)โ(3) and Shivpuri, impossibility is no defence to attempt: a defendant is judged on the facts as they believed them to be. So attempting to handle goods believed to be stolen, or to import drugs that turn out to be harmless, is still an attempt.
State the elements of statutory conspiracy (Criminal Law Act 1977 s 1).
An agreement between two or more persons to pursue a course of conduct which, if carried out as intended, will necessarily amount to or involve the commission of an offence by one or more of them. The mens rea is an intention that the agreement be carried out and the offence committed; the offence is complete on agreement even if nothing is done.
Who cannot form a conspiracy together under Criminal Law Act 1977 s 2?
A person cannot conspire with their spouse/civil partner alone, with a person under the age of criminal responsibility, or with the intended victim of the offence. There must be at least two qualifying parties to the agreement.
What are the three inchoate offences of encouraging or assisting crime under the Serious Crime Act 2007 (ss 44โ46)?
(1) s 44 โ doing an act capable of encouraging/assisting an offence INTENDING to encourage or assist it; (2) s 45 โ doing such an act BELIEVING the offence will be committed and that the act will encourage/assist it; (3) s 46 โ doing an act believing one or more of a number of offences will be committed. Liability is inchoate, so it arises whether or not the anticipated offence is actually committed.
What are the four ways a person can be a secondary party (accomplice) under the Accessories and Abettors Act 1861 s 8?
By aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of an offence. Broadly: aid = help at the scene; abet = encourage at the scene; counsel = encourage/advise before the offence; procure = bring about by endeavour (Attorney-General's Reference (No 1 of 1975) โ 'to produce by endeavour'). A secondary party is tried and punished as a principal.
What is the mens rea for secondary participation following R v Jogee [2016]?
The secondary party must (1) intend to assist or encourage the principal's conduct, and (2) do so with knowledge of the essential facts/circumstances and intention that the principal commit the offence with the requisite mens rea. Jogee abolished 'parasitic accessory liability': foresight of the principal's crime is now only evidence of intent, not a separate basis of liability.
Common Professional Examination (CPE) Criminal Law FAQ
What is in the Common Professional Examination (CPE) Criminal Law syllabus?
Common Professional Examination (CPE) Criminal Law is split into 5 chapters: General Principles of Criminal Liability, Fatal and Non-Fatal Offences Against the Person, Property Offences, Defences and Inchoate Offences and Participation. Together they contain 18 topics and 26 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Common Professional Examination (CPE) Criminal Law?
5 chapters, containing 18 topics and 26 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Fatal and Non-Fatal Offences Against the Person, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Common Professional Examination (CPE) Criminal Law?
Yes โ a 51-card Criminal Law deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.