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CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Criminal Law Syllabus

The Foundation Stage: Criminal Law syllabus for CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) in full: 4 chapters, 16 topics and 22 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 57 Foundation Stage: Criminal Law flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
16Topics
22Sub-topics
57Flashcards

Foundation Stage: Criminal Law syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Principles of Criminal Liability

    4 topics
    • Actus reus
      • Conduct, consequence and circumstance
      • Omissions and duty to act
      • Causation: factual and legal
    • Mens rea
      • Intention: direct and oblique
      • Recklessness and the subjective test
      • Negligence and strict liability
    • Coincidence of actus reus and mens rea
    • Transferred malice
  2. Fatal and Non-Fatal Offences Against the Person

    4 topics
    • Murder
      • The definition and the requirement of malice aforethought
    • Voluntary manslaughter
      • Loss of control (Coroners and Justice Act 2009)
      • Diminished responsibility
    • Involuntary manslaughter
      • Unlawful act manslaughter
      • Gross negligence manslaughter
    • Non-fatal offences
      • Assault and battery
      • Assault occasioning actual bodily harm (s.47 OAPA 1861)
      • Wounding and grievous bodily harm (ss.20 and 18 OAPA 1861)
  3. Property Offences

    4 topics
    • Theft under the Theft Act 1968
      • Appropriation, property and belonging to another
      • Dishonesty and the Ivey test
      • Intention permanently to deprive
    • Robbery and burglary
    • Fraud under the Fraud Act 2006
      • Fraud by false representation, failing to disclose and abuse of position
    • Criminal damage
  4. General Defences and Inchoate Liability

    4 topics
    • Capacity defences
      • Insanity and automatism
      • Intoxication: voluntary and involuntary
    • Justificatory defences
      • Self-defence and prevention of crime
      • Duress and necessity
    • Participation and secondary liability
    • Inchoate offences: attempts, conspiracy and assisting/encouraging

CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Criminal Law flashcards โ€” 57 questions with answers

  1. What are the two essential elements that the prosecution must generally prove for criminal liability, and what does each mean?

    Actus reus (the guilty act โ€” the prohibited conduct, circumstances and/or consequences) and mens rea (the guilty mind โ€” the defendant's state of mind). Both must usually be present and coincide for liability.

  2. In criminal law, what are the three possible components of an actus reus?

    (1) Conduct (an act or, exceptionally, an omission), (2) Circumstances surrounding the conduct, and (3) Consequences/results that the conduct produces.

  3. What is the general rule on liability for omissions, and what are the recognised exceptions giving rise to a duty to act?

    General rule: there is no liability for a mere failure to act. Exceptions (a duty to act): statutory duty; contractual duty (Pittwood); special/close relationship (Gibbins & Proctor); voluntary assumption of responsibility (Stone & Dobinson); creating a dangerous situation (Miller); and public office (Dytham).

  4. What must the prosecution prove regarding factual causation, and which test is used?

    That the defendant's conduct was a factual cause of the result, applied via the 'but for' test (R v White): but for the defendant's act, would the result have occurred? If it would have occurred anyway, factual causation is not established.

  5. What is the test for legal causation in criminal law?

    The defendant's act must be a substantial (more than minimal/de minimis) and operating cause of the result. It need not be the sole or main cause, but it must significantly contribute (R v Smith).

  6. What is the 'thin skull' rule in causation?

    The defendant must take the victim as he finds them. If the victim has a particular vulnerability (physical, religious or otherwise) that worsens the harm, the defendant remains liable for the full consequences (R v Blaue โ€” refusal of blood transfusion on religious grounds did not break the chain).

  7. When will an intervening act (novus actus interveniens) break the chain of causation?

    When it is free, deliberate and informed (a voluntary third-party or victim act), or so independent and potent that it renders the original act merely part of the history. Medical negligence breaks the chain only if 'palpably wrong' and independent so the original wound is no longer operating (R v Cheshire, R v Jordan).

  8. What is direct intention in criminal law?

    The defendant's aim, purpose or desire is to bring about the prohibited consequence. The result is what the defendant set out to achieve.

  9. State the test for oblique (indirect) intention from R v Woollin.

    The jury is entitled to find intention where (1) death or serious bodily harm was a virtual certainty as a result of the defendant's actions, and (2) the defendant appreciated that this was the case. It is a rule of evidence permitting an inference, not a definition of intent.

  10. What is the test for subjective (Cunningham) recklessness?

    The defendant is reckless where he foresees a risk of the prohibited consequence/circumstance and nonetheless goes on to take that risk unreasonably (R v Cunningham, confirmed in R v G). The test is what this defendant actually foresaw, not what a reasonable person would foresee.

  11. What is the standard for criminal negligence (e.g. gross negligence), and how does it differ from recklessness?

    Negligence is judged objectively against the reasonable person standard โ€” it does not require the defendant to foresee the risk. Recklessness is subjective, requiring actual foresight of the risk by the defendant.

  12. What is the coincidence (contemporaneity) principle, and how do courts mitigate it via a continuing act?

    Actus reus and mens rea must coincide in time. Courts treat the actus reus as a continuing act so that mens rea formed at any point during its continuance suffices (Fagan v MPC โ€” wheel on the foot) or treat a series of acts as one transaction (Thabo Meli).

  13. Explain the doctrine of transferred malice.

    Where the defendant has mens rea for a crime against one victim/object but, by mistake or accident, the actus reus takes effect on a different victim/object of the same type, the mens rea is transferred to the actual victim (R v Latimer). Malice cannot transfer between different types of offence (R v Pembliton).

  14. What is the actus reus and mens rea of murder?

    Actus reus: the unlawful killing of a human being under the King's Peace. Mens rea: malice aforethought, meaning intention to kill (express) or intention to cause grievous bodily harm (implied).

  15. In the law of murder, what does 'grievous bodily harm' mean for the purposes of malice aforethought?

    'Really serious harm' (DPP v Smith). An intention to cause really serious harm is sufficient mens rea for murder even though the defendant did not intend to kill (R v Vickers).

  16. What are the three special/partial defences to murder, and what is their effect?

    Diminished responsibility, loss of control, and suicide pact. Each is a partial defence that, if successful, reduces liability from murder to voluntary manslaughter (avoiding the mandatory life sentence). They apply only to murder.

  17. State the four elements of diminished responsibility under s.2 Homicide Act 1957 (as amended by the Coroners and Justice Act 2009).

    (1) An abnormality of mental functioning, (2) arising from a recognised medical condition, (3) which substantially impaired the defendant's ability to understand the nature of his conduct, form a rational judgment, or exercise self-control, and (4) which provides an explanation for (causes/significantly contributes to) the killing. The defendant bears the burden of proof on the balance of probabilities.

  18. State the three components of the loss of control defence under ss.54โ€“55 Coroners and Justice Act 2009.

    (1) The defendant lost self-control, (2) caused by a qualifying trigger (fear of serious violence and/or things said or done amounting to circumstances of an extremely grave character giving the defendant a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged), and (3) a person of the defendant's sex and age, with a normal degree of tolerance and self-restraint and in the defendant's circumstances, might have reacted in the same/similar way.

  19. Under the loss of control defence, the loss of control need not be sudden โ€” but what two things are expressly excluded as qualifying triggers?

    Sexual infidelity is excluded as a qualifying trigger, and a defendant cannot rely on a trigger that he incited as an excuse to use violence (a considered desire for revenge also defeats the defence).

  20. What are the two distinct forms of involuntary manslaughter?

    (1) Unlawful act (constructive) manslaughter, and (2) gross negligence manslaughter. Both involve an unlawful killing without the malice aforethought required for murder.

Show the other 37 Foundation Stage: Criminal Law flashcards
  1. State the four elements of unlawful act (constructive) manslaughter.

    (1) The defendant committed an unlawful act (a criminal act, not an omission), (2) which was objectively dangerous (a sober and reasonable person would recognise a risk of some harm โ€” R v Church), (3) which caused the victim's death, and (4) the defendant had the mens rea for the unlawful act (no need to foresee death or harm).

  2. State the elements of gross negligence manslaughter from R v Adomako.

    (1) A duty of care owed by the defendant to the victim, (2) breach of that duty, (3) which caused the death, (4) a serious and obvious risk of death at the time of breach (R v Rose), and (5) the breach was so bad as to be 'gross' โ€” to amount to a crime in the jury's view.

  3. List the five principal non-fatal offences against the person in ascending order of seriousness, with their source.

    (1) Assault (common law), (2) Battery (common law), (3) Assault occasioning actual bodily harm โ€” s.47 Offences Against the Person Act 1861, (4) Malicious wounding/inflicting GBH โ€” s.20 OAPA 1861, (5) Wounding/causing GBH with intent โ€” s.18 OAPA 1861.

  4. State the actus reus and mens rea of a common law assault (technical/psychic assault).

    Actus reus: causing the victim to apprehend immediate unlawful personal violence. Mens rea: intention or (Cunningham) recklessness as to causing such apprehension. No physical contact is required.

  5. State the actus reus and mens rea of battery.

    Actus reus: the infliction of unlawful force on another person (any unlawful touching). Mens rea: intention or recklessness as to the infliction of unlawful force.

  6. What is the actus reus and mens rea of assault occasioning actual bodily harm (s.47 OAPA 1861)?

    Actus reus: an assault or battery that occasions (causes) actual bodily harm โ€” harm that is more than trivial/transient (R v Miller; includes identifiable psychiatric injury). Mens rea: the mens rea for the assault or battery only โ€” no need to foresee the ABH (R v Savage).

  7. Compare the mens rea required for s.20 and s.18 OAPA 1861.

    s.20 (malicious wounding/inflicting GBH): intention or recklessness as to causing some harm (need not foresee serious harm โ€” R v Mowatt). s.18 (wounding/causing GBH with intent): specific intent โ€” intention to cause GBH (recklessness as to GBH is insufficient). s.18 is therefore an offence of specific intent and carries life imprisonment.

  8. What is the legal definition of a 'wound' for the purposes of ss.18 and 20 OAPA 1861?

    A break in the continuity of the whole skin โ€” both the dermis and epidermis must be broken (JCC v Eisenhower). A mere internal rupturing of blood vessels or bruising is not a wound.

  9. State the statutory definition of theft under s.1 Theft Act 1968.

    A person is guilty of theft if he dishonestly appropriates property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it. Maximum sentence: 7 years.

  10. List the five elements of theft and identify which are actus reus and which are mens rea.

    Actus reus: (1) appropriation (s.3), (2) property (s.4), (3) belonging to another (s.5). Mens rea: (4) dishonesty (s.2) and (5) intention to permanently deprive (s.6).

  11. How is 'appropriation' defined under s.3 Theft Act 1968, and can it occur with the owner's consent?

    Appropriation is any assumption of the rights of an owner (s.3(1)). A single right is enough. It can occur even where the owner consents to the taking (R v Gomez) and even after receipt of an indefeasible gift (R v Hinks).

  12. Under s.4 Theft Act 1968, what cannot generally be stolen (the exclusions for land, wild plants and wild creatures)?

    Land cannot generally be stolen (with exceptions e.g. a trustee, or severing fixtures). Wild plants/fungi/flowers/foliage cannot be stolen unless picked for a commercial purpose; wild creatures cannot be stolen unless tamed, kept in captivity or reduced into possession.

  13. What is the modern (objective) test for dishonesty in theft, established in Ivey v Genting Casinos and confirmed in R v Barton?

    (1) Ascertain the defendant's actual (subjective) knowledge or belief as to the facts, then (2) decide whether, given that state of mind, the conduct was dishonest by the (objective) standards of ordinary decent people. The old second limb of R v Ghosh (did the defendant realise others would regard it as dishonest) is no longer applied.

  14. State the three situations under s.2(1) Theft Act 1968 where a defendant is NOT dishonest.

    Where the defendant appropriates property believing: (a) he has a legal right to deprive the other of it; (b) he would have the other's consent if the other knew of the circumstances; or (c) the person to whom the property belongs cannot be discovered by taking reasonable steps. A willingness to pay does not itself prevent dishonesty (s.2(2)).

  15. Explain 'intention to permanently deprive' and the s.6 'borrowing' extension.

    The defendant must intend the owner never to get the property back. Under s.6, borrowing/lending can amount to the intention if it is for a period and in circumstances equivalent to an outright taking โ€” e.g. returning the property only when all its goodness/virtue is gone (R v Lloyd), or treating it as one's own to dispose of regardless of the owner's rights (R v Velumyl).

  16. State the definition and elements of robbery under s.8 Theft Act 1968.

    A person is guilty of robbery if he steals (a completed theft, with all five elements), and immediately before or at the time of doing so, and in order to do so, he uses force on any person or puts or seeks to put any person in fear of being then and there subjected to force. Maximum sentence: life imprisonment.

  17. In robbery, what are the key requirements regarding the force used?

    The force (or threat of force) must be used (i) on a person, (ii) immediately before or at the time of the theft, and (iii) in order to steal. Even a small amount of force suffices (R v Dawson โ€” nudging), and force applied to property may transmit to the person (R v Clouden).

  18. State the two forms of burglary under s.9 Theft Act 1968.

    s.9(1)(a): entering a building (or part) as a trespasser with intent to steal, inflict GBH, or do unlawful damage (the ulterior intent must exist at entry). s.9(1)(b): having entered a building (or part) as a trespasser, stealing/attempting to steal or inflicting/attempting to inflict GBH (intent formed after entry suffices).

  19. For burglary, what must be proved about 'entry' and 'trespasser'?

    Entry must be effective (R v Brown) โ€” it need not be substantial. The defendant must be a trespasser: entering without consent/permission or in excess of permission given (R v Jones and Smith), and must know or be reckless as to the facts making him a trespasser.

  20. What is aggravated burglary under s.10 Theft Act 1968?

    Committing any burglary while having with one a firearm, imitation firearm, weapon of offence, or explosive ('WIFE': Weapon, Imitation firearm, Firearm, Explosive). Maximum sentence: life imprisonment.

  21. List the three ways of committing fraud under s.1 Fraud Act 2006.

    (1) Fraud by false representation (s.2), (2) fraud by failing to disclose information when under a legal duty (s.3), and (3) fraud by abuse of position (s.4). All are conduct offences โ€” no result/gain or loss need actually occur.

  22. State the elements of fraud by false representation under s.2 Fraud Act 2006.

    Actus reus: the defendant makes a false representation (untrue or misleading, as to fact or law, including the state of mind of any person; may be express or implied). Mens rea: (i) dishonesty, (ii) knowledge that the representation is or might be untrue/misleading, and (iii) intention to make a gain for himself/another or to cause loss/risk of loss to another. The gain/loss must be in money or property.

  23. Why is fraud under the Fraud Act 2006 described as a 'conduct' offence rather than a 'result' offence?

    Liability is complete once the prohibited conduct (e.g. making the false representation) is done with the required mens rea. No actual gain or loss, and no reliance or deception of any victim, needs to result โ€” the offence focuses on the defendant's conduct and intention.

  24. State the basic offence of criminal damage under s.1(1) Criminal Damage Act 1971.

    A person who without lawful excuse destroys or damages property belonging to another, intending to destroy/damage it or being reckless as to whether it is destroyed/damaged, is guilty of an offence. Maximum sentence: 10 years.

  25. What two lawful excuses are provided by s.5 Criminal Damage Act 1971, and how is belief assessed?

    (a) Belief that the owner had or would have consented; (b) belief that it was done to protect property belonging to oneself or another, where the means were reasonable. Under s.5(3) it is immaterial whether the belief is justified, provided it is honestly held (a subjective test).

  26. What is aggravated criminal damage under s.1(2) Criminal Damage Act 1971, and how does its mens rea differ from the basic offence?

    Destroying or damaging property (one's own or another's) intending or being reckless as to the damage AND intending or being reckless as to thereby endangering the life of another. It requires the additional element of intention/recklessness as to endangering life; the s.5 lawful excuses do NOT apply. Maximum sentence: life imprisonment.

  27. Compare the legal effect of insanity and automatism as capacity defences.

    Insanity (M'Naghten Rules) is a defence to most crimes resulting in a special verdict of 'not guilty by reason of insanity' (allowing a hospital/supervision order); the defendant bears the burden of proof. Non-insane automatism, caused by an external factor, results in a complete acquittal. The key distinction is the internal cause (insanity/disease of the mind) versus external cause (automatism).

  28. State the M'Naghten Rules test for insanity.

    At the time of committing the act, the defendant was labouring under such a defect of reason, from a disease of the mind, that he either (a) did not know the nature and quality of his act, or (b) if he did know it, did not know that what he was doing was wrong (legally wrong). The defendant bears the burden of proof on the balance of probabilities.

  29. How does intoxication affect liability, distinguishing specific and basic intent offences (DPP v Majewski)?

    Voluntary intoxication can negate the mens rea of a specific intent offence (e.g. murder, s.18), potentially reducing it to a basic intent fallback (e.g. manslaughter, s.20). It is no defence to a basic intent offence, because becoming voluntarily intoxicated is itself the reckless course of conduct supplying the mens rea. Involuntary intoxication is a defence if it negates mens rea.

  30. State the elements of duress by threats, and what is the 'Graham test'?

    (1) A threat of death or serious injury, (2) to the defendant or someone he is responsible for, (3) the defendant reasonably believed he had good cause to fear death/serious injury, (4) a sober person of reasonable firmness sharing the defendant's characteristics would have responded the same way (the two-limb Graham test โ€” subjective belief plus objective reasonable firmness), (5) no evasive action reasonably available, and (6) the defendant did not voluntarily lay himself open to the threat (e.g. by joining a violent gang). Duress is unavailable to murder, attempted murder and some treason (R v Howe).

  31. State the general requirements of self-defence/prevention of crime (justificatory defence).

    (1) The use of force must be necessary in the circumstances as the defendant honestly believed them to be (a subjective test โ€” s.76 Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008, even if mistaken), and (2) the degree of force used must be reasonable/proportionate in those circumstances (an objective test). If satisfied, it is a complete defence resulting in acquittal.

  32. Distinguish a principal offender from a secondary party (accessory) under s.8 Accessories and Abettors Act 1861.

    A principal is the person who directly commits the actus reus of the offence. A secondary party (accessory) is one who aids, abets, counsels or procures the principal to commit it. An accessory is tried and punished as a principal offender, but liability is derivative โ€” it depends on the principal offence being committed.

  33. What are the four conduct elements of secondary (accessorial) liability under s.8 Accessories and Abettors Act 1861?

    Aid (help/assist, e.g. providing tools), abet (encourage at the scene), counsel (advise/encourage before the offence), and procure (to produce by endeavour โ€” bring about, e.g. R v Attorney-General's Reference (No 1 of 1975), spiking a drink). The accessory must also have the mens rea: intention to assist/encourage and knowledge of the essential matters of the principal offence.

  34. What is the actus reus and mens rea of a criminal attempt under s.1(1) Criminal Attempts Act 1981?

    Actus reus: the defendant does an act which is 'more than merely preparatory' to the commission of the offence (R v Gullefer). Mens rea: an intention to commit the full offence (generally requiring intention even where recklessness suffices for the completed crime, though conditional intent and recklessness as to circumstances may suffice). Impossibility is no defence (s.1(2)).

  35. Define statutory conspiracy under s.1 Criminal Law Act 1977.

    An agreement between two or more persons that a course of conduct will be pursued which, if carried out as intended, will necessarily amount to the commission of an offence by one or more of them. The agreement itself is the actus reus; the offence is complete on agreement even if nothing further is done. There must be intention that the agreement be carried out.

  36. What are the three inchoate offences of assisting or encouraging crime under the Serious Crime Act 2007?

    s.44: doing an act capable of encouraging/assisting an offence, intending to encourage or assist it. s.45: doing such an act believing the offence will be committed and that the act will encourage/assist it. s.46: doing such an act believing one or more of a number of offences will be committed. These replaced the common law offence of incitement and require no actual commission of the anticipated offence.

  37. Compare the three inchoate offences (attempt, conspiracy, assisting/encouraging) in terms of what conduct triggers liability.

    Attempt: a single defendant does an act more than merely preparatory toward the full offence. Conspiracy: two or more defendants agree to pursue a criminal course of conduct (liability on agreement). Assisting/encouraging: a defendant does an act capable of assisting/encouraging another's offence. All three impose liability even though the substantive (full) offence is never completed.

CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Criminal Law FAQ

What is in the CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Criminal Law syllabus?

CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Criminal Law is split into 4 chapters: Principles of Criminal Liability, Fatal and Non-Fatal Offences Against the Person, Property Offences and General Defences and Inchoate Liability. Together they contain 16 topics and 22 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Criminal Law?

4 chapters, containing 16 topics and 22 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Principles of Criminal Liability, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Criminal Law?

Yes โ€” a 57-card Foundation Stage: Criminal Law deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.