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CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Business Law and Practice Syllabus

The Foundation Stage: Business Law and Practice syllabus for CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) in full: 4 chapters, 12 topics and 11 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 Foundation Stage: Business Law and Practice flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
12Topics
11Sub-topics
52Flashcards

Foundation Stage: Business Law and Practice syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Business Structures

    3 topics
    • Sole traders and partnerships
      • The Partnership Act 1890
      • Limited liability partnerships
    • Companies and corporate personality
      • Salomon v Salomon and the corporate veil
      • Private and public companies
    • Choosing an appropriate business medium
  2. Company Formation and Constitution

    3 topics
    • Incorporation under the Companies Act 2006
      • Memorandum, articles and registration
    • The company's constitution and shareholder agreements
    • Share capital and financing the company
      • Equity and debt finance
      • Fixed and floating charges
  3. Company Management and Governance

    3 topics
    • Directors' duties under the Companies Act 2006
      • Duty to promote the success of the company (s.172)
      • Conflicts of interest and care, skill and diligence
    • Shareholders' meetings, resolutions and rights
    • Minority shareholder protection and unfair prejudice
  4. Insolvency and Taxation Overview

    3 topics
    • Corporate insolvency
      • Liquidation, administration and receivership
    • Personal insolvency and bankruptcy
    • Business taxation fundamentals
      • Corporation tax, income tax and VAT in outline

CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Business Law and Practice flashcards — 52 questions with answers

  1. What is a sole trader, and what is the key consequence of its lack of separate legal personality?

    A sole trader is an individual carrying on business on their own account with no separate legal entity. Consequently, the owner and the business are legally the same, so the trader has unlimited personal liability for all business debts.

  2. Define a partnership under section 1 of the Partnership Act 1890.

    A partnership is 'the relation which subsists between persons carrying on a business in common with a view of profit'. No formality is required; it can arise from conduct.

  3. In an ordinary partnership, what is the nature and extent of partners' liability for partnership debts?

    Partners have unlimited personal liability. Liability is joint for debts/contracts and joint and several for wrongs (torts), meaning each partner can be pursued for the whole amount.

  4. Under the Partnership Act 1890, how are profits, losses and management rights shared absent contrary agreement?

    Profits and losses are shared equally regardless of capital contributed, every partner may take part in management, and no partner is entitled to a salary.

  5. How does a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) differ fundamentally from an ordinary partnership?

    An LLP (Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000) is a separate legal person with limited liability for its members. It must be incorporated by registration at Companies House, unlike an ordinary partnership.

  6. What case established the principle of separate corporate personality, and what did it decide?

    Salomon v A Salomon & Co Ltd [1897] established that a properly incorporated company is a separate legal person distinct from its shareholders, so the company's debts are its own, not the members'.

  7. List the main consequences that flow from a company's separate legal personality.

    The company can own property, sue and be sued in its own name, contract in its own name, has perpetual succession, and its members enjoy limited liability for the company's debts.

  8. In what limited circumstances may a court 'pierce the corporate veil'?

    Only exceptionally, where the company is used as a sham or facade to evade an existing legal obligation (the 'evasion principle' in Prest v Petrodel Resources Ltd [2013]). Mere use of the corporate form is not enough.

  9. Distinguish a private limited company from a public limited company on share-offer and minimum capital.

    A private company (Ltd) cannot offer shares to the public and has no minimum share capital. A public company (plc) may offer shares to the public and must have allotted share capital of at least £50,000 (with at least 25% paid up).

  10. Compare unlimited personal liability versus limited liability as a factor in choosing a business medium.

    Sole traders and ordinary partners face unlimited personal liability; company shareholders and LLP members enjoy limited liability (capped at unpaid amount on shares / agreed contribution). Limited liability protects personal assets but brings disclosure and compliance burdens.

  11. What are the main advantages of trading as a company rather than as a sole trader or partnership?

    Limited liability, separate legal personality, perpetual succession, easier transfer of ownership via shares, greater access to capital, and potential tax efficiency. Drawbacks include disclosure, formality and administrative cost.

  12. Which documents must be delivered to Companies House to incorporate a company under the Companies Act 2006?

    Form IN01 (application for registration), a memorandum of association, the articles of association (unless model articles are adopted), and the registration fee.

  13. What is the legal effect of the certificate of incorporation issued by the Registrar?

    It is conclusive evidence that the company is duly registered and validly incorporated under the Companies Act 2006, and from that date the company exists as a separate legal person.

  14. Under the Companies Act 2006, what is the role and content of the memorandum of association?

    It is a historical formality stating that the subscribers wish to form a company and agree to become members (and, if it has share capital, to take at least one share each). It no longer contains the objects or constitution.

  15. What are the 'model articles' under the Companies Act 2006?

    Default constitutional rules prescribed by regulations that automatically apply to a company on incorporation unless it registers bespoke articles or amends/excludes them.

  16. What is a pre-incorporation contract and who is personally liable on it under section 51 CA 2006?

    A contract purportedly made on behalf of a company before it exists. Under s.51 CA 2006 the person who purported to act for the company is personally liable on it, subject to any agreement to the contrary, because the company cannot ratify it.

  17. What documents form a company's constitution under section 17 of the Companies Act 2006?

    The articles of association together with any resolutions and agreements affecting the constitution (e.g. special resolutions amending the articles).

  18. What contractual effect do the articles have under section 33 of the Companies Act 2006?

    The articles bind the company and its members as if there were a contract under seal between them, but only in respect of membership rights ('qua member'). They do not confer rights on members in any other capacity (e.g. as a director).

  19. How are the articles of association altered, and what restriction protects existing rights?

    By special resolution (75% majority) under s.21 CA 2006. The alteration must be made bona fide in the interests of the company as a whole, and entrenched provisions may require more onerous procedures.

  20. What is a shareholders' agreement and what advantage does it have over the articles?

    A private contract between some or all shareholders governing their relationship. Unlike the articles it is confidential, can bind parties as individuals, can require unanimity for certain matters, and cannot be overridden by a simple special resolution.

Show the other 32 Foundation Stage: Business Law and Practice flashcards
  1. Define share capital and distinguish 'allotted' from 'paid-up' capital.

    Share capital is the capital a company raises by issuing shares. Allotted (issued) capital is the nominal value of shares actually issued; paid-up capital is the amount of that nominal value the shareholders have actually paid to the company.

  2. Distinguish ordinary shares from preference shares.

    Ordinary shares carry voting rights and a residual entitlement to dividends/capital. Preference shares typically carry a fixed (often cumulative) preferential dividend and priority on a return of capital, but usually no or limited voting rights.

  3. What is the difference between equity finance and debt finance for a company?

    Equity finance raises money by issuing shares (owners/members, dividends, no repayment obligation). Debt finance raises money by borrowing (loans, debentures) which must be repaid with interest and is often secured by a charge.

  4. Distinguish a fixed charge from a floating charge as forms of security.

    A fixed charge attaches to specific identified assets the company cannot freely deal with. A floating charge hovers over a fluctuating class of assets (e.g. stock) the company can use in the ordinary course until it 'crystallises' and attaches to the assets then held.

  5. What is the statutory rule on maintenance of capital and one of its key consequences?

    A company must not return capital to shareholders except by lawful procedures, to protect creditors. Consequently dividends may only be paid out of distributable profits, and a company generally cannot purchase its own shares except by permitted procedures.

  6. List the seven general statutory directors' duties under sections 171-177 of the Companies Act 2006.

    s.171 act within powers; s.172 promote the success of the company; s.173 exercise independent judgment; s.174 exercise reasonable care, skill and diligence; s.175 avoid conflicts of interest; s.176 not accept benefits from third parties; s.177 declare interest in a proposed transaction.

  7. What does the duty to promote the success of the company under section 172 CA 2006 require directors to consider?

    To act in good faith to promote the success of the company for the benefit of members as a whole, having regard to factors including the long term, employees' interests, supplier/customer relationships, the community/environment, the company's reputation, and fairness between members.

  8. What standard of care applies to a director under section 174 CA 2006, and is it objective or subjective?

    A dual standard: the care, skill and diligence of a reasonably diligent person with (a) the general knowledge, skill and experience reasonably expected of someone in that role (objective), and (b) the actual knowledge, skill and experience that the particular director has (subjective).

  9. Under section 175 CA 2006, how can a director's conflict of interest be authorised?

    The conflict may be authorised by the independent (non-conflicted) directors of the board, provided the company's constitution does not invalidate such authorisation (for private companies authorisation is allowed unless excluded; for public companies it must be expressly permitted).

  10. What is the consequence of a director breaching their fiduciary duties?

    Remedies are the same as for breach of the corresponding common law/equitable duty: e.g. account of profits, equitable compensation, rescission of contracts, restoration of property, and an injunction. Breach can be ratified by ordinary resolution of the members (s.239).

  11. Compare an ordinary resolution and a special resolution under the Companies Act 2006.

    An ordinary resolution requires a simple majority (over 50%) of votes cast. A special resolution requires at least 75% of votes cast and is needed for major matters such as altering the articles, changing the company name, or reducing capital.

  12. What is the written resolution procedure and which companies may use it?

    Under ss.288-300 CA 2006 a private company may pass members' resolutions in writing without a meeting. The required majority is calculated on total voting rights of eligible members (over 50% for ordinary, 75% for special). It cannot be used to remove a director or auditor before term.

  13. What notice is generally required to call a general meeting, and how may short notice be given?

    A general meeting must be called on at least 14 clear days' notice. Short notice is permitted if agreed by a majority in number of members holding at least 90% (95% for public/traded companies) of the nominal value of voting shares.

  14. How may a member requisition a general meeting under section 303 CA 2006?

    Members holding at least 5% of the paid-up voting capital may require the directors to call a general meeting. The directors must call it within 21 days, to be held within 28 days of the notice; if they fail, the requisitionists may call it themselves.

  15. What is the procedure to remove a director under section 168 of the Companies Act 2006?

    A director may be removed by ordinary resolution at a meeting, with special notice (28 days) given to the company. The director is entitled to written representations and to be heard at the meeting. The Bushell v Faith clause may, however, weight votes to entrench a director.

  16. What is a quorum for a general meeting, and what is the default position?

    A quorum is the minimum number of members who must be present for valid business. The default is two qualifying persons present (one for a single-member company), unless the articles provide otherwise.

  17. Distinguish voting on a show of hands from a poll vote.

    On a show of hands each member present has one vote regardless of shareholding. On a poll, votes are counted according to the number of shares held (one vote per share), giving weight to larger shareholdings. A poll can be demanded under the articles/s.321.

  18. What does section 994 of the Companies Act 2006 provide regarding unfair prejudice?

    A member may petition the court for relief where the company's affairs are being, have been, or will be conducted in a manner that is unfairly prejudicial to the interests of members generally or some part of the members, including the petitioner.

  19. What must a petitioner show for an 'unfair prejudice' claim under section 994, and what is the most common remedy?

    Conduct that is both unfair and prejudicial to the member's interests, judged objectively (often by reference to the articles or legitimate expectations in a quasi-partnership). The most common remedy is an order that the majority buy out the petitioner's shares at a fair value (s.996).

  20. What is a derivative claim under sections 260-264 of the Companies Act 2006?

    A claim brought by a member on behalf of the company in respect of a wrong (e.g. breach of duty by a director) done to the company. The member must obtain the court's permission to continue it, applying the statutory criteria including the s.172 success factor.

  21. What is the rule in Foss v Harbottle, and why does it matter for minority shareholders?

    Where a wrong is done to the company, the proper claimant is the company itself, and the court will not interfere with internal matters that could be ratified by the majority. This limits minority members' ability to sue, making the derivative claim and s.994 important exceptions.

  22. What is the concept of a 'quasi-partnership' company in minority protection?

    A company (usually small/private) formed on the basis of mutual trust and confidence, an understanding that members participate in management, and restrictions on share transfer. Courts may impose equitable considerations giving rise to legitimate expectations enforceable under s.994.

  23. Distinguish compulsory liquidation from creditors' voluntary liquidation.

    Compulsory liquidation is ordered by the court, typically on a creditor's petition for the company's inability to pay debts (s.122 IA 1986). Creditors' voluntary liquidation (CVL) is begun by the members by resolution when the company is insolvent, with creditors controlling the process.

  24. When is a company deemed unable to pay its debts under section 123 of the Insolvency Act 1986?

    Where it fails to satisfy a statutory demand for a sum exceeding £750 within 21 days, where execution of a judgment is returned unsatisfied, where it cannot pay debts as they fall due (cash-flow test), or where its liabilities exceed its assets (balance-sheet test).

  25. State the statutory order of priority for distributing assets in a company liquidation.

    1) Liquidator's costs/expenses; 2) preferential creditors (e.g. employee claims, certain HMRC debts); 3) the prescribed part for unsecured creditors out of floating-charge assets; 4) floating-charge holders; 5) unsecured creditors; 6) interest; 7) any surplus to shareholders. Fixed-charge holders are paid first from their secured asset.

  26. What is administration and what is its primary statutory objective?

    A rescue procedure under the Insolvency Act 1986 in which an administrator manages the company under a statutory moratorium. The primary objective is to rescue the company as a going concern; if not, to achieve a better result for creditors than liquidation; failing that, to realise property for secured/preferential creditors.

  27. Distinguish fraudulent trading from wrongful trading under the Insolvency Act 1986.

    Fraudulent trading (s.213) requires actual intent to defraud creditors and a dishonest carrying on of business. Wrongful trading (s.214) needs no dishonesty: a director is liable if they continued trading when they knew or ought to have known there was no reasonable prospect of avoiding insolvent liquidation and failed to minimise creditor losses.

  28. What are the main routes by which an individual may enter personal insolvency?

    Bankruptcy (by debtor's online application or a creditor's petition), an Individual Voluntary Arrangement (IVA), and a Debt Relief Order (DRO) for low-asset, low-debt individuals.

  29. What is an Individual Voluntary Arrangement (IVA) and how does it compare with bankruptcy?

    An IVA is a formal, binding agreement between a debtor and creditors to repay debts (often partly) over time, supervised by an insolvency practitioner. It avoids the stigma and asset loss of bankruptcy, requires creditor approval of 75% by value, but binds all unsecured creditors once approved.

  30. What are the key effects and typical duration of a bankruptcy order on an individual?

    The bankrupt's estate vests in the trustee for distribution to creditors, the bankrupt faces restrictions (e.g. on credit and acting as a company director), and is normally automatically discharged after one year, though a bankruptcy restrictions order can extend restrictions.

  31. Identify the main UK business taxes affecting companies and unincorporated businesses, naming the chargeable items.

    Companies pay corporation tax on income and chargeable gains. Sole traders/partners pay income tax on trading profits and capital gains tax on disposals. Both may charge VAT on taxable supplies, and employers/employees pay National Insurance contributions.

  32. How is a company's corporation tax liability fundamentally calculated, and how does dividend extraction differ from salary?

    Corporation tax is charged on the company's taxable total profits (income profits plus chargeable gains, after deductible expenses) at the prevailing rate. Salary is a tax-deductible expense for the company but bears income tax and NICs; dividends are paid from post-tax profits (not deductible) but are taxed on the shareholder at dividend rates with no NICs.

CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Business Law and Practice FAQ

What is in the CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Business Law and Practice syllabus?

CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Business Law and Practice is split into 4 chapters: Business Structures, Company Formation and Constitution, Company Management and Governance and Insolvency and Taxation Overview. Together they contain 12 topics and 11 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Business Law and Practice?

4 chapters, containing 12 topics and 11 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Business Structures, with 3 topics.

Are there flashcards for CILEX Professional Qualification (CPQ) Foundation Stage: Business Law and Practice?

Yes — a 52-card Foundation Stage: Business Law and Practice deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.