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Chartered IT Professional (CITP) Breadth of IT Knowledge and Technical Foundations Syllabus

The Breadth of IT Knowledge and Technical Foundations syllabus for Chartered IT Professional (CITP) in full: 4 chapters, 13 topics and 34 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 55 Breadth of IT Knowledge and Technical Foundations flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
13Topics
34Sub-topics
55Flashcards

Breadth of IT Knowledge and Technical Foundations syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Software Engineering and Development

    4 topics
    • Software Development Lifecycles
      • Waterfall, iterative and incremental models
      • Agile, Scrum and Kanban delivery
      • DevOps and continuous integration/delivery
    • Requirements and Design
      • Requirements elicitation and specification
      • Architectural and detailed design patterns
      • Modelling with UML and BPMN
    • Quality, Testing and Maintenance
      • Test strategy, levels and automation
      • Code review and static analysis
      • Technical debt and refactoring
    • Programming Paradigms
      • Object-oriented and functional approaches
      • Event-driven and concurrent programming
  2. Systems Architecture and Infrastructure

    3 topics
    • Enterprise and Solution Architecture
      • Architecture frameworks (TOGAF, Zachman)
      • Layered, microservices and event-driven styles
      • Integration and API design
    • Computing Platforms
      • Operating systems and virtualisation
      • Containers and orchestration
      • High-availability and fault tolerance
    • Cloud and Distributed Systems
      • IaaS, PaaS and SaaS models
      • Public, private and hybrid cloud
      • Scalability, elasticity and resilience
  3. Data, Databases and Analytics

    3 topics
    • Data Modelling and Management
      • Relational design and normalisation
      • NoSQL and polyglot persistence
      • Master data and data quality
    • Data Warehousing and Big Data
      • ETL/ELT pipelines and data lakes
      • Distributed processing frameworks
    • Analytics, AI and Machine Learning
      • Descriptive, predictive and prescriptive analytics
      • Machine learning model lifecycle
      • Data visualisation and decision support
  4. Networks and Communications

    3 topics
    • Network Fundamentals
      • OSI and TCP/IP layered models
      • Routing, switching and addressing
    • Enterprise and Wide-Area Connectivity
      • WAN, SD-WAN and VPN technologies
      • Wireless and mobile networking
    • Network Services and Performance
      • DNS, DHCP and directory services
      • Quality of service and capacity

Chartered IT Professional (CITP) Breadth of IT Knowledge and Technical Foundations flashcards — 55 questions with answers

  1. What are the typical sequential phases of the traditional Waterfall software development lifecycle (SDLC)?

    Requirements, Design, Implementation (coding), Testing (verification), Deployment, and Maintenance — each phase completed before the next begins, with no formal overlap.

  2. In SDLC models, how does the Agile/iterative approach fundamentally differ from Waterfall?

    Agile delivers software in short, repeated iterations (sprints) with continuous feedback and evolving requirements, whereas Waterfall is a single linear pass with fixed requirements defined up front.

  3. What does the V-Model add to the basic Waterfall lifecycle?

    It pairs each development/specification phase on the left with a corresponding testing phase on the right (e.g. requirements↔acceptance testing, design↔integration testing, module design↔unit testing), emphasising verification and validation throughout.

  4. In the Scrum framework, what are the three core roles?

    Product Owner (owns and prioritises the backlog), Scrum Master (facilitates the process and removes impediments), and the Development Team (self-organising group that builds the increment).

  5. What is the purpose of a spike, and how does the Spiral model handle risk?

    A spike reduces uncertainty by investigating high-risk technical or requirement questions early through prototyping/analysis before committing to full implementation; the Spiral model explicitly drives each iteration by risk evaluation.

  6. What distinguishes functional requirements from non-functional requirements?

    Functional requirements specify what the system must do (features, behaviours, outputs); non-functional requirements specify quality attributes and constraints — how well it must perform, e.g. performance, security, availability, usability, scalability.

  7. What is the MoSCoW technique used for in requirements engineering?

    Prioritising requirements into four categories: Must have, Should have, Could have, and Won't have (this time).

  8. In requirements engineering, what is the difference between verification and validation?

    Verification asks 'are we building the product right?' (conformance to specification); validation asks 'are we building the right product?' (meeting the user's actual needs).

  9. What is coupling and cohesion in software design, and what is the desirable combination?

    Coupling measures interdependence between modules; cohesion measures how focused a single module is. Good design aims for low (loose) coupling and high cohesion.

  10. Name the five SOLID principles of object-oriented design.

    Single Responsibility, Open/Closed, Liskov Substitution, Interface Segregation, and Dependency Inversion.

  11. What is the distinction between black-box and white-box testing?

    Black-box testing checks behaviour against specifications without knowledge of internal code; white-box (structural) testing exercises internal logic, paths and branches using knowledge of the source code.

  12. List the conventional levels of software testing from smallest to largest scope.

    Unit testing, Integration testing, System testing, and Acceptance testing (e.g. UAT).

  13. What is regression testing and when is it performed?

    Re-running existing tests after a change (bug fix, enhancement, or new feature) to confirm that previously working functionality has not been broken.

  14. What are the four categories of software maintenance defined by ISO/IEC 14764?

    Corrective (fixing faults), Adaptive (changes for new environments), Perfective (improving performance or maintainability), and Preventive (reducing future faults).

  15. What is the difference between an error, a fault (defect), and a failure in software quality terminology?

    An error is a human mistake; a fault (or defect/bug) is the resulting flaw in the code; a failure is the observable incorrect behaviour when that fault is executed.

  16. What is cyclomatic complexity and how is it calculated from a control-flow graph?

    A metric for the number of linearly independent paths through code, calculated as $M = E - N + 2P$, where $E$ is edges, $N$ is nodes, and $P$ is connected components.

  17. Contrast imperative and declarative programming paradigms.

    Imperative programming specifies how to achieve a result through explicit statements that change state; declarative programming specifies what result is wanted, leaving the how to the system (e.g. SQL, functional, logic programming).

  18. What are the four pillars of object-oriented programming?

    Encapsulation, Inheritance, Polymorphism, and Abstraction.

  19. What characterises the functional programming paradigm?

    Computation expressed as the evaluation of pure functions, avoiding mutable state and side effects, with first-class/higher-order functions, immutability, and often recursion instead of loops.

  20. What is the difference between compilation and interpretation of program code?

    A compiler translates the whole source program into machine/byte code ahead of execution; an interpreter translates and executes the source statement-by-statement at run time.

Show the other 35 Breadth of IT Knowledge and Technical Foundations flashcards
  1. In enterprise architecture, what four architecture domains does TOGAF define?

    Business architecture, Data architecture, Application architecture, and Technology architecture (the BDAT domains).

  2. What is the core processing cycle (ADM) at the heart of TOGAF?

    The Architecture Development Method — an iterative cycle: Preliminary, Architecture Vision (A), Business (B), Information Systems/Data & Application (C), Technology (D), Opportunities & Solutions (E), Migration Planning (F), Implementation Governance (G), and Architecture Change Management (H).

  3. Contrast a monolithic architecture with a microservices architecture.

    A monolith deploys all functionality as a single tightly-coupled unit; microservices decompose the system into small, independently deployable services that communicate over the network, enabling independent scaling and deployment at the cost of operational complexity.

  4. What is a service-oriented architecture (SOA) and what typically connects services within it?

    An architectural style structuring an application as loosely-coupled, reusable, network-accessible services with well-defined contracts, often integrated through an Enterprise Service Bus (ESB).

  5. What is the difference between vertical scaling and horizontal scaling?

    Vertical scaling (scaling up) adds more resources (CPU/RAM) to a single machine; horizontal scaling (scaling out) adds more machines/nodes and distributes load across them.

  6. Compare the three main cloud service models: IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS.

    IaaS provides virtualised infrastructure (compute, storage, network) you manage; PaaS provides a managed platform/runtime for deploying applications without managing the OS; SaaS delivers complete ready-to-use applications over the internet.

  7. What are the four cloud deployment models defined by NIST?

    Public cloud, Private cloud, Community cloud, and Hybrid cloud.

  8. State the five essential characteristics of cloud computing per NIST.

    On-demand self-service, Broad network access, Resource pooling, Rapid elasticity, and Measured service.

  9. What does the CAP theorem state about distributed data systems?

    In the presence of a network Partition, a distributed system can guarantee at most one of Consistency or Availability — you cannot have all three of Consistency, Availability, and Partition tolerance simultaneously.

  10. What is the difference between virtualisation (hypervisors) and containerisation?

    Virtualisation runs full guest operating systems on a hypervisor, each with its own kernel; containerisation packages applications with their dependencies sharing the host OS kernel, making containers lighter, faster to start, and more resource-efficient.

  11. What does ACID stand for in transaction processing?

    Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability.

  12. In relational data modelling, what is the difference between a primary key and a foreign key?

    A primary key uniquely identifies each row within its own table; a foreign key is a column (or set) in one table that references the primary key of another table, enforcing referential integrity.

  13. What conditions must a relation satisfy to be in Third Normal Form (3NF)?

    It must be in 2NF and have no transitive dependencies — every non-key attribute must depend only on the primary key, not on another non-key attribute.

  14. What does the term BASE describe, and how does it contrast with ACID?

    BASE = Basically Available, Soft state, Eventual consistency — the consistency model favoured by many NoSQL/distributed stores, trading strict immediate consistency (ACID) for higher availability and partition tolerance.

  15. Name the four common categories of NoSQL database.

    Key-value stores, Document stores, Column-family (wide-column) stores, and Graph databases.

  16. What is the difference between OLTP and OLAP systems?

    OLTP (Online Transaction Processing) handles many short, write-heavy transactional operations on current data; OLAP (Online Analytical Processing) supports complex, read-heavy analytical queries over large historical/aggregated data for decision support.

  17. In data warehousing, what is the difference between a star schema and a snowflake schema?

    A star schema has a central fact table linked to denormalised dimension tables; a snowflake schema normalises those dimensions into multiple related tables, reducing redundancy but adding joins.

  18. What does the ETL process stand for, and how does ELT differ?

    ETL = Extract, Transform, Load — data is transformed before loading into the warehouse. ELT loads raw data first then transforms it inside the target system, common with modern cloud data lakes/warehouses.

  19. What are the classic 'three Vs' of Big Data, and name two commonly added Vs?

    Volume, Velocity, and Variety; commonly extended with Veracity and Value (sometimes Variability).

  20. In the Hadoop ecosystem, what are the roles of HDFS and MapReduce?

    HDFS (Hadoop Distributed File System) provides fault-tolerant distributed storage across commodity nodes; MapReduce is the programming model that processes that data in parallel via a Map phase (filter/transform) and a Reduce phase (aggregate).

  21. What distinguishes supervised, unsupervised, and reinforcement learning?

    Supervised learning trains on labelled input-output pairs; unsupervised learning finds structure (e.g. clusters) in unlabelled data; reinforcement learning learns a policy through trial-and-error rewards from interacting with an environment.

  22. In machine learning, what is the difference between overfitting and underfitting?

    Overfitting means the model learns noise and fits training data too closely, generalising poorly (low bias, high variance); underfitting means the model is too simple to capture the underlying pattern (high bias, low variance).

  23. Define precision and recall for a binary classifier.

    Precision $= \frac{TP}{TP + FP}$ (fraction of predicted positives that are correct); Recall $= \frac{TP}{TP + FN}$ (fraction of actual positives correctly identified).

  24. What is the F1 score and why is it used?

    The harmonic mean of precision and recall, $F_{1} = 2 \cdot \frac{P \cdot R}{P + R}$, used to balance the two into a single metric, especially for imbalanced classes.

  25. What are the seven layers of the OSI reference model, from layer 1 to layer 7?

    Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application.

  26. How does the TCP/IP model map to the OSI model in terms of layers?

    TCP/IP has four layers: Link/Network Access (OSI layers 1–2), Internet (OSI layer 3), Transport (OSI layer 4), and Application (OSI layers 5–7).

  27. What is the key difference between the TCP and UDP transport protocols?

    TCP is connection-oriented, reliable, ordered and flow/congestion-controlled (with acknowledgements and retransmission); UDP is connectionless, lightweight and best-effort with no guarantee of delivery or ordering.

  28. How many bits are in an IPv4 address versus an IPv6 address?

    IPv4 uses 32 bits (about $4.3 \times 10^{9}$ addresses); IPv6 uses 128 bits (about $3.4 \times 10^{38}$ addresses).

  29. Given the CIDR notation /26 on an IPv4 network, how many usable host addresses are available?

    A /26 leaves 6 host bits, giving $2^{6} = 64$ total addresses and $2^{6} - 2 = 62$ usable hosts (subtracting network and broadcast addresses).

  30. What is the difference between a router and a switch in networking?

    A switch forwards frames within a single LAN using MAC addresses at OSI layer 2; a router forwards packets between different networks using IP addresses at layer 3, making path/routing decisions.

  31. Contrast circuit switching with packet switching in wide-area networks.

    Circuit switching reserves a dedicated end-to-end path for the duration of a session (e.g. traditional telephony); packet switching breaks data into independently routed packets that share network links statistically, improving utilisation and resilience.

  32. What is MPLS and what advantage does it bring to enterprise WANs?

    Multiprotocol Label Switching forwards traffic using short path labels rather than long network-address lookups, enabling fast, predictable forwarding, traffic engineering, and quality-of-service across a service-provider WAN.

  33. What is the role of DNS and DHCP as network services?

    DNS (Domain Name System) resolves human-readable domain names into IP addresses; DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automatically assigns IP addresses and network configuration to hosts.

  34. In network performance, what is the difference between bandwidth, throughput, and latency?

    Bandwidth is the maximum theoretical data rate of a link; throughput is the actual achieved data rate; latency is the time delay for data to travel from source to destination.

  35. What four traffic parameters does Quality of Service (QoS) typically manage to prioritise traffic?

    Bandwidth (allocation), Latency (delay), Jitter (variation in delay), and Packet loss.

Chartered IT Professional (CITP) Breadth of IT Knowledge and Technical Foundations FAQ

What is in the Chartered IT Professional (CITP) Breadth of IT Knowledge and Technical Foundations syllabus?

Chartered IT Professional (CITP) Breadth of IT Knowledge and Technical Foundations is split into 4 chapters: Software Engineering and Development, Systems Architecture and Infrastructure, Data, Databases and Analytics and Networks and Communications. Together they contain 13 topics and 34 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Chartered IT Professional (CITP) Breadth of IT Knowledge and Technical Foundations?

4 chapters, containing 13 topics and 34 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Software Engineering and Development, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for Chartered IT Professional (CITP) Breadth of IT Knowledge and Technical Foundations?

Yes — a 55-card Breadth of IT Knowledge and Technical Foundations deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.