πΊπΈ Chartered Financial Consultant (ChFC) Β· subject
Chartered Financial Consultant (ChFC) Insurance and Risk Management Syllabus
The Insurance and Risk Management syllabus for Chartered Financial Consultant (ChFC) in full: 4 chapters, 17 topics and 18 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Insurance and Risk Management flashcards with answers.
Insurance and Risk Management syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
-
Principles of Risk and Insurance
5 topics- Risk Identification and Measurement
- Risk Management Techniques
- Risk avoidance, reduction, retention, and transfer
- Insurable Risk Characteristics and the Law of Large Numbers
- Insurance Contract Principles
- Indemnity, insurable interest, and utmost good faith
- Subrogation and contribution
- Insurer Selection and Financial Strength Ratings
-
Life Insurance Planning
4 topics- Determining Life Insurance Needs
- Human life value approach
- Needs (capital needs) analysis approach
- Types of Life Insurance
- Term life insurance
- Whole life and universal life
- Variable and indexed universal life
- Policy Provisions, Riders, and Settlement Options
- Taxation of Life Insurance
- Death benefit and cash value taxation
- Modified endowment contracts (MECs)
- Determining Life Insurance Needs
-
Health, Disability, and Long-Term Care Insurance
4 topics- Health Insurance Plan Types
- HMO, PPO, and high-deductible health plans
- Health savings accounts (HSAs)
- Disability Income Insurance
- Definitions of disability and elimination periods
- Benefit periods and taxation
- Long-Term Care Insurance
- Activities of daily living and benefit triggers
- Hybrid LTC products
- Medicare and Medicaid Coverage
- Health Insurance Plan Types
-
Property, Casualty, and Liability Insurance
4 topics- Homeowners Insurance Coverage Forms
- Personal Automobile Policy
- Personal Liability and Umbrella Coverage
- Business Risk Coverage
- Commercial general liability
- Business owners policy (BOP)
Chartered Financial Consultant (ChFC) Insurance and Risk Management flashcards β 50 questions with answers
In risk management, distinguish between "pure risk" and "speculative risk."
Pure risk involves only the chance of loss or no loss (no possibility of gain), e.g., death, fire, illness β and is the only type that is insurable. Speculative risk involves a chance of loss, no loss, OR gain (e.g., gambling, stock investing) and is generally not insurable.
Define "peril" and "hazard," and name the three classes of hazard.
A peril is the direct cause of a loss (e.g., fire, theft, death). A hazard is a condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss. The three classes are: physical hazard (a physical condition, e.g., icy road), moral hazard (dishonesty/intent to cause loss for gain), and morale (attitudinal) hazard (carelessness/indifference because one is insured).
What two dimensions are used to measure risk, and how do they map to risk management techniques?
Loss frequency (how often a loss occurs) and loss severity (how large the loss is). Low frequency/low severity β retain; high frequency/low severity β retain or reduce; low frequency/high severity β transfer (insure); high frequency/high severity β avoid.
List the steps of the risk management process.
1) Identify loss exposures; 2) Measure/analyze the exposures (frequency and severity); 3) Select the appropriate risk management technique(s); 4) Implement the chosen technique(s); 5) Monitor and review/adjust the program.
Name the major risk management techniques (methods of handling risk).
Risk avoidance, risk reduction (loss control/prevention), risk retention (self-insurance, deductibles), risk transfer (insurance and non-insurance transfers such as hold-harmless agreements), and risk sharing.
What is the difference between risk avoidance and risk reduction?
Avoidance eliminates the exposure entirely by not undertaking the activity (probability of loss = 0). Reduction (loss control) accepts the activity but lowers loss frequency (prevention) or loss severity (e.g., sprinklers, seatbelts).
What is risk retention, and when is it most appropriate?
Retention means the individual/firm keeps the financial responsibility for a loss (e.g., deductibles, self-insurance). It is most appropriate for losses that are high in frequency but low in severity, or where the cost of insurance exceeds the expected loss.
List the ideal characteristics of an insurable risk.
1) Large number of similar/homogeneous exposure units; 2) Loss is definite (in time, place, amount) and measurable; 3) Loss is accidental and unintentional from the insured's standpoint; 4) Loss is not catastrophic to the insurer (no fundamental/correlated risk); 5) Premium is economically feasible; 6) Probability of loss is calculable.
State the law of large numbers and its role in insurance.
As the number of independent exposure units increases, the actual loss experience will more closely approach the expected (probable) loss. This lets insurers predict aggregate losses accurately and set actuarially fair premiums, even though any single outcome is uncertain.
What is adverse selection, and how do insurers control it?
Adverse selection is the tendency of higher-than-average-risk individuals to seek or continue insurance more than lower-risk individuals, threatening the insurer's loss predictions. Insurers control it through underwriting, medical exams, risk classification, exclusions, waiting periods, and rate differentiation.
List the four essential elements of a valid insurance contract.
1) Offer and acceptance (agreement); 2) Consideration (the premium and the insurer's promise to pay); 3) Competent parties (legal capacity); 4) Legal purpose (lawful object). Many states also require that the contract conform to legal form.
Define the principle of indemnity and the principle of insurable interest.
Indemnity: the insured should be restored to their pre-loss financial position but not profit from a loss (applies mainly to property/casualty). Insurable interest: the insured must stand to suffer a genuine financial loss; for property it must exist at the time of loss, for life insurance it must exist at policy inception (application).
Explain the doctrines of subrogation and contribution in insurance.
Subrogation: after paying a claim, the insurer assumes the insured's right to recover from the negligent third party (supports indemnity, prevents double recovery). Contribution (other insurance/pro rata): when multiple policies cover the same loss, each pays its proportionate share so the insured does not collect more than the loss.
Distinguish a representation, a warranty, and concealment in insurance contracting.
A representation is a statement believed true by the applicant; it must be materially false to void coverage. A warranty is a guarantee made part of the contract that must be literally true. Concealment is the intentional withholding of a material fact the applicant knew should be disclosed β it can void the policy.
What are the key distinguishing legal characteristics of an insurance contract (aleatory, unilateral, conditional, contract of adhesion, utmost good faith)?
Aleatory: unequal dollar exchange depending on chance. Unilateral: only the insurer makes a legally enforceable promise. Conditional: the insured must meet conditions (e.g., pay premium, file proof) for the insurer to pay. Contract of adhesion: drafted by the insurer, take-it-or-leave-it (ambiguities construed against the insurer). Utmost good faith: both parties rely on each other's honesty.
What do the major rating agencies measure, and name the four life-insurer rating agencies?
They measure an insurer's financial strength and claims-paying ability. The four agencies are A.M. Best, Standard & Poor's (S&P), Moody's, and Fitch. A.M. Best's top rating is A++ (Superior); S&P, Moody's, and Fitch top ratings are AAA/Aaa.
What two human-life-value and needs-based methods are used to determine life insurance needs?
The human life value approach estimates the present value of the insured's future net earnings lost to dependents. The needs approach (needs analysis) totals the family's cash needs at death (final expenses, debt payoff, income replacement, education, emergency fund) minus existing assets/resources to find the additional coverage required.
List the typical cash "needs" categories in a needs-analysis for life insurance.
Final expenses (funeral, medical, estate settlement), debt liquidation (including mortgage), an emergency/readjustment fund, dependent income (income replacement) needs, education fund for children, and any special needs (e.g., for a disabled dependent).
Compare term life insurance with permanent (cash-value) life insurance.
Term provides pure death-benefit protection for a set period, no cash value, low initial premium that rises with age β temporary needs. Permanent (whole, universal, variable) provides lifetime coverage, builds tax-deferred cash value, and has a level/flexible higher premium β permanent needs.
Distinguish whole life, universal life, and variable life insurance.
Whole life: fixed premium, guaranteed death benefit and guaranteed cash value, insurer bears investment risk. Universal life: flexible premiums and adjustable death benefit, cash value earns a current interest rate with a guaranteed minimum. Variable life: fixed premium with cash value invested in separate-account subaccounts; the policyowner bears investment risk and the death benefit/cash value fluctuate with performance.
Show the other 30 Insurance and Risk Management flashcards
What is the difference between Universal Life Option A and Option B death benefits?
Option A (Level): the death benefit stays level; as cash value grows, the net amount at risk decreases. Option B (Increasing): the death benefit equals the face amount PLUS the accumulated cash value, so the total payout increases as cash value grows (higher cost).
What are the standard life insurance dividend options for participating policies?
1) Cash payment; 2) Reduce premiums; 3) Accumulate at interest; 4) Paid-up additions (buy small amounts of additional paid-up insurance); 5) One-year term (fifth dividend option). Dividends are treated as a nontaxable return of premium.
What are the nonforfeiture options when a permanent policy is surrendered or lapses?
1) Cash surrender value (take the cash); 2) Reduced paid-up insurance (a smaller fully paid-up policy); 3) Extended term insurance (same face amount as term for as long as the cash value will buy). Extended term is usually the automatic default on lapse.
What are the standard life insurance settlement options for paying the death benefit?
1) Lump sum (cash); 2) Interest only (proceeds held, interest paid); 3) Fixed period (proceeds + interest paid over a set time); 4) Fixed amount (set payments until proceeds exhausted); 5) Life income/annuity options (paid over the beneficiary's life, with or without period certain or refund).
Describe these common life insurance riders: waiver of premium, guaranteed insurability, accelerated death benefit, accidental death benefit.
Waiver of premium: insurer pays premiums if the insured becomes totally disabled. Guaranteed insurability: lets the insured buy more coverage at specified dates without evidence of insurability. Accelerated death benefit: pays part of the face amount early if terminally/chronically ill. Accidental death benefit (double indemnity): pays an extra amount if death results from an accident.
What policy provisions protect the insured: incontestable clause, grace period, suicide clause, misstatement of age?
Incontestable clause: after the policy is in force ~2 years, the insurer cannot contest it for misstatements (except nonpayment). Grace period: ~31 days to pay an overdue premium without lapse. Suicide clause: no death benefit (premiums refunded) if suicide occurs within the first ~2 years. Misstatement of age/sex: the death benefit is adjusted to what the premium would have purchased at the correct age.
How are life insurance death benefits and cash-value growth taxed?
Death benefits paid to a beneficiary are generally received income-tax-free. Cash value grows tax-deferred. There is no income tax on policy loans or on withdrawals up to basis (premiums paid), unless the policy is a MEC; gains above basis on surrender are taxed as ordinary income.
What is a Modified Endowment Contract (MEC), and how does the 7-pay test affect taxation?
A MEC is a life policy funded too quickly β it fails the 7-pay test (premiums in the first 7 years exceed those needed to pay it up). MEC distributions (loans/withdrawals) are taxed LIFO (gain first, taxable as ordinary income) and a 10% penalty applies before age 59Β½. The death benefit remains income-tax-free.
What is the transfer-for-value rule in life insurance taxation?
If a life insurance policy is transferred/sold for valuable consideration, the death benefit becomes income-taxable (to the extent it exceeds the buyer's basis). Exceptions where it stays tax-free: transfers to the insured, a partner of the insured, a partnership in which the insured is a partner, or a corporation in which the insured is an officer/shareholder.
Distinguish the major managed-care/health plan types: HMO, PPO, POS, and indemnity/fee-for-service.
HMO: must use in-network providers and a primary-care gatekeeper for referrals; lowest cost, least flexibility. PPO: network with discounted rates but allows out-of-network at higher cost, no gatekeeper. POS: hybrid using a gatekeeper but allowing out-of-network referrals. Indemnity (fee-for-service): any provider, insurer reimburses a percentage after deductible β most flexible, highest cost.
Define and contrast an HDHP/HSA, an FSA, and an HRA.
HDHP/HSA: a high-deductible plan paired with a Health Savings Account β an employee-owned, portable, triple-tax-advantaged account. FSA: an employer flexible spending account funded by employee pre-tax salary deferrals, generally use-it-or-lose-it, not portable. HRA: a Health Reimbursement Arrangement funded solely by the employer to reimburse medical expenses.
What is the "triple tax advantage" of a Health Savings Account (HSA)?
1) Contributions are tax-deductible (or pre-tax through payroll); 2) Earnings grow tax-free; 3) Withdrawals for qualified medical expenses are tax-free. (Non-qualified withdrawals before age 65 are taxed and incur a 20% penalty.)
What key features define a disability income insurance policy: definition of disability, elimination period, benefit period?
Definition of disability: "own occupation" (cannot do your own job β most favorable), "any occupation" (cannot do any reasonable job β stricter), or split/modified. Elimination period: the waiting time before benefits begin (e.g., 30β90 days; longer = lower premium). Benefit period: how long benefits are paid (e.g., 2 years, 5 years, or to age 65).
How is disability income insurance taxed depending on who pays the premium?
If the individual pays premiums with after-tax dollars, benefits are received income-tax-free. If the employer pays the premiums (and does not include them in income), the disability benefits are taxable to the employee. Premiums split create proportionate taxation.
What are the residual benefit and cost-of-living adjustment (COLA) riders on disability policies?
Residual (partial) disability benefit: pays a proportionate benefit when the insured returns to work but suffers an income loss (e.g., β₯20% loss of earnings). COLA rider: increases benefits during a long-term claim to keep pace with inflation, protecting purchasing power.
What does long-term care (LTC) insurance cover, and what triggers benefits?
LTC insurance covers custodial/nursing care for chronic conditions β nursing home, assisted living, and home care. Benefits are typically triggered when the insured cannot perform 2 of the 6 Activities of Daily Living (eating, bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, continence) or has severe cognitive impairment, usually after an elimination period.
What is a "tax-qualified" LTC policy's tax treatment?
In a qualified LTC policy, benefits are generally received income-tax-free (subject to a per-diem cap that is indexed), and premiums are deductible as medical expenses subject to age-based limits and the AGI floor for itemized medical deductions.
Describe the four parts of Medicare (A, B, C, D).
Part A: hospital insurance (inpatient, skilled nursing, hospice) β premium-free for most. Part B: medical insurance (physician, outpatient) β requires a monthly premium. Part C: Medicare Advantage β private plans combining A, B, and often D. Part D: prescription drug coverage through private plans.
What is Medigap, and at what age does Medicare eligibility generally begin?
Medigap (Medicare Supplement) is private insurance that covers gaps in Original Medicare such as deductibles, copays, and coinsurance; standardized plans are labeled AβN. Medicare eligibility generally begins at age 65 (or earlier with certain disabilities or ESRD).
How does Medicaid differ from Medicare?
Medicare is a federal age/disability-based program (not income-tested) for those 65+ or disabled. Medicaid is a joint federal-state, means-tested (income and asset) program for low-income individuals; it is the primary payer of long-term custodial nursing-home care in the U.S.
Name the standard homeowners (HO) coverage forms and which perils approach each uses.
HO-2 (Broad β named perils), HO-3 (Special β open perils on dwelling/structures, named perils on contents β the most common), HO-4 (renters/tenants β contents only), HO-5 (Comprehensive β open perils on both dwelling and contents), HO-6 (condo unit-owners), HO-8 (modified, for older homes at actual cash value).
Identify the Section I property coverages (AβD) in a homeowners policy.
Coverage A: dwelling. Coverage B: other structures (detached garage, shed) β typically 10% of A. Coverage C: personal property/contents β typically 50% of A. Coverage D: loss of use / additional living expenses β typically 20β30% of A.
State the homeowners coinsurance / 80% replacement-cost rule and its formula.
To collect full replacement cost on a partial loss, the dwelling must be insured for at least 80% of its replacement cost. Otherwise the recovery is $$\text{Payment} = \left(\frac{\text{Amount of Insurance Carried}}{0.80 \times \text{Replacement Cost}}\right) \times \text{Loss} - \text{Deductible}$$ (capped at actual cash value or policy limit).
A home with a $400{,}000 replacement cost is insured for $280{,}000. A covered partial loss is $60{,}000 (deductible $1{,}000). Using the 80% coinsurance rule, what does the insurer pay?
Required amount = $0.80 \times 400{,}000 = 320{,}000$. Payment ratio = $\frac{280{,}000}{320{,}000} = 0.875$. Payment = $0.875 \times 60{,}000 = 52{,}500$, minus the $1{,}000 deductible = $\$51{,}500$.
What are Section II coverages (E and F) of a homeowners policy?
Coverage E: Personal Liability β pays for bodily injury or property damage to others for which the insured is legally liable, plus legal defense. Coverage F: Medical Payments to Others β pays small medical bills of non-residents injured on the premises regardless of fault (no-fault, low limit).
List the six coverage parts (AβF) of the Personal Auto Policy (PAP).
Part A: Liability (bodily injury and property damage to others). Part B: Medical Payments. Part C: Uninsured/Underinsured Motorists. Part D: Coverage for Damage to Your Auto (collision and "other than collision"/comprehensive). Part E: Duties After an Accident or Loss. Part F: General Provisions.
Distinguish collision coverage from "other than collision" (comprehensive) in the PAP, and explain split limits like 100/300/50.
Collision pays for damage to the insured's auto from impact/overturn. Other-than-collision (comprehensive) covers other causes (theft, fire, hail, glass, animal strike). Split liability limits 100/300/50 mean $100,000 bodily injury per person, $300,000 bodily injury per accident, and $50,000 property damage per accident.
What is the difference between a no-fault auto system and a tort/at-fault system?
In a tort/at-fault system, the negligent driver's insurer pays the other party's damages, and victims may sue. In a no-fault system, each driver's own insurer pays that driver's medical/economic losses (via PIP) regardless of fault, and the right to sue is restricted to serious-injury thresholds β reducing litigation.
What is a personal umbrella liability policy and how does it interact with underlying coverage?
An umbrella policy provides high excess liability limits (typically $1 million or more) above the underlying homeowners and auto liability limits, and can cover some perils the underlying policies exclude (subject to a self-insured retention). Insurers require specified minimum underlying limits before the umbrella attaches.
Name and contrast key business risk coverages: business owners policy (BOP), commercial general liability (CGL), business interruption, and key-person insurance.
BOP: a packaged property + liability policy for small businesses. CGL: covers the firm's liability for bodily injury, property damage, and personal/advertising injury to third parties. Business interruption (time-element): replaces lost income and continuing expenses while operations are suspended after a covered property loss. Key-person life insurance: business-owned coverage on an essential employee to offset the financial loss from that person's death.
Chartered Financial Consultant (ChFC) Insurance and Risk Management FAQ
What is in the Chartered Financial Consultant (ChFC) Insurance and Risk Management syllabus?
Chartered Financial Consultant (ChFC) Insurance and Risk Management is split into 4 chapters: Principles of Risk and Insurance, Life Insurance Planning, Health, Disability, and Long-Term Care Insurance and Property, Casualty, and Liability Insurance. Together they contain 17 topics and 18 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Chartered Financial Consultant (ChFC) Insurance and Risk Management?
4 chapters, containing 17 topics and 18 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Principles of Risk and Insurance, with 5 topics.
Are there flashcards for Chartered Financial Consultant (ChFC) Insurance and Risk Management?
Yes β a 50-card Insurance and Risk Management deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.