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Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Taxation and Regulation (REG) — Core Syllabus
The Taxation and Regulation (REG) — Core syllabus for Certified Public Accountant (CPA) in full: 5 chapters, 31 topics and 17 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Taxation and Regulation (REG) — Core flashcards with answers.
Taxation and Regulation (REG) — Core syllabus: all 5 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Ethics, Professional Responsibilities, and Federal Tax Procedures
5 topics- Circular 230 and practice before the IRS
- Tax return preparer responsibilities and penalties
- Substantial authority and reasonable basis standards
- Statutes of limitations for assessment and refund
- Taxpayer penalties and the audit/appeals process
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Business Law
6 topics- Agency relationships and authority
- Contracts
- Formation, consideration, and capacity
- Performance, breach, and remedies
- Uniform Commercial Code Article 2 (sales)
- Debtor-creditor relationships and secured transactions
- Bankruptcy under federal law
- Business structures and entity selection
- Formation and operation of partnerships and LLCs
- Corporate governance and shareholder rights
- Federal securities regulation (1933 and 1934 Acts)
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Federal Taxation of Individuals
8 topics- Gross income inclusions and exclusions
- Adjustments, deductions, and the standard deduction
- Itemized deductions
- Filing status and dependents
- Tax credits
- Child tax credit and earned income credit
- Education and dependent care credits
- Capital gains and losses for individuals
- Passive activity and at-risk limitations
- Alternative minimum tax for individuals
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Federal Taxation of Entities
6 topics- C corporation taxation
- Book-to-tax reconciliation (Schedule M-1/M-3)
- Dividends-received deduction and NOLs
- S corporation taxation and shareholder basis
- Partnership taxation
- Partner basis and at-risk amounts
- Distributions and guaranteed payments
- Formation, distributions, and liquidation of entities
- Tax-exempt organizations and unrelated business income
- Multijurisdictional and state apportionment basics
- C corporation taxation
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Property Transactions and Gifts and Estates
6 topics- Basis of acquired property
- Amount and character of gain or loss
- Section 1231, 1245, and 1250 recapture
- Capital versus ordinary asset classification
- Nonrecognition transactions
- Like-kind exchanges (Section 1031)
- Involuntary conversions
- Cost recovery — depreciation, amortization, and depletion
- MACRS and Section 179 expensing
- Bonus depreciation
- Federal gift tax
- Federal estate tax and the unified credit
Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Taxation and Regulation (REG) — Core flashcards — 51 questions with answers
What is Treasury Circular 230?
The set of Treasury Department regulations governing practice before the IRS by attorneys, CPAs, enrolled agents, enrolled actuaries, and other practitioners. It sets ethical and professional conduct rules; violations can lead to censure, suspension, disbarment, and monetary penalties.
Under Circular 230, who is authorized to practice before the IRS?
Attorneys, CPAs, enrolled agents, enrolled actuaries, enrolled retirement plan agents, and registered tax return preparers (limited). Unenrolled preparers have very limited representation rights.
Under Circular 230, what must a practitioner do upon learning of a client's error or omission on a return?
Promptly advise the client of the error/omission and of the consequences under the Code and regulations. The practitioner is NOT required to notify the IRS or correct it without client consent.
Under Circular 230, may a practitioner charge a contingent fee for preparing an original tax return?
Generally no. Contingent fees are prohibited for original returns, but are allowed for (a) IRS examination/challenge of a return, (b) claims for refund of interest/penalties, and (c) judicial proceedings.
What is the preparer penalty under IRC §6694(a) for an unreasonable position?
The greater of $1,000 or 50% of the income derived (or to be derived) by the preparer, when an understatement is due to a position lacking substantial authority (or reasonable basis if disclosed) that the preparer knew or should have known.
What is the preparer penalty under IRC §6694(b) for willful or reckless conduct?
The greater of $5,000 or 75% of the income derived by the preparer for understatements due to willful attempts to understate liability or reckless/intentional disregard of rules.
What is the 'substantial authority' standard for tax positions?
An objective standard, roughly a greater than 33%–40% likelihood of being sustained on the merits. It is higher than reasonable basis but lower than 'more likely than not' (>50%). Meeting it avoids the §6662 accuracy penalty even without disclosure.
What is the 'reasonable basis' standard for tax positions?
A relatively high standard significantly higher than 'not frivolous,' roughly a 20% or greater chance of success, based on authorities. A disclosed position meeting reasonable basis can avoid certain penalties.
Rank the tax position confidence standards from lowest to highest.
Frivolous/not frivolous < reasonable basis (~20%) < realistic possibility of success (~33%) < substantial authority (~40%) < more likely than not (>50%) < should/will (high certainty).
What is the general statute of limitations for the IRS to assess additional tax?
3 years from the later of the return's due date or the date it was actually filed.
When does the IRS get a 6-year statute of limitations for assessment?
When the taxpayer omits gross income exceeding 25% of the gross income reported on the return (substantial omission).
What is the statute of limitations for assessment when a return is fraudulent or never filed?
There is no statute of limitations — the IRS may assess tax at any time for a false/fraudulent return filed with intent to evade tax, or where no return was filed.
What is the statute of limitations for a taxpayer to claim a tax refund?
The later of 3 years from the date the return was filed or 2 years from the date the tax was paid.
What is the IRC §6662 accuracy-related penalty rate for substantial understatement or negligence?
20% of the underpayment attributable to the misconduct (negligence, substantial understatement, substantial valuation misstatement, etc.).
What constitutes a 'substantial understatement' of income tax for an individual under §6662?
An understatement exceeding the greater of 10% of the tax required to be shown on the return, or $5,000.
What is the civil fraud penalty under IRC §6663?
75% of the portion of the underpayment attributable to fraud.
What is the failure-to-file penalty rate and the failure-to-pay penalty rate?
Failure to file: 5% of unpaid tax per month (or part), up to 25%. Failure to pay: 0.5% per month, up to 25%. When both apply in a month, the failure-to-file penalty is reduced by the failure-to-pay penalty.
Outline the basic IRS audit and appeals process.
Return is examined (correspondence, office, or field audit) → Revenue Agent issues a 30-day letter with proposed adjustments → taxpayer may request an IRS Appeals Office conference → if unresolved, a 90-day letter (Statutory Notice of Deficiency) is issued → taxpayer may petition the U.S. Tax Court within 90 days without first paying.
In agency law, what is the difference between actual and apparent authority?
Actual authority is granted by the principal to the agent (express or implied). Apparent authority arises from the principal's conduct that leads a third party to reasonably believe the agent has authority, even if no actual authority exists.
When is a principal liable for an agent's torts under respondeat superior?
When the agent is an employee (servant) and commits the tort while acting within the scope of employment. Principals generally are not liable for torts of independent contractors.
Show the other 31 Taxation and Regulation (REG) — Core flashcards
What are the requirements for a valid, enforceable contract?
(1) Agreement (offer and acceptance), (2) consideration (bargained-for exchange of legal value), (3) capacity of the parties, and (4) a legal purpose. Some contracts also require a writing under the Statute of Frauds.
Which contracts must be in writing under the Statute of Frauds?
MY LEGS: Marriage consideration, contracts not performable within One Year, Land interests, Executor promises to pay estate debts personally, Goods $500 or more (UCC), and Suretyship (promise to answer for another's debt).
Under UCC Article 2, what is the 'battle of the forms' rule (§2-207) between merchants?
An acceptance with additional terms still forms a contract; between merchants the additional terms become part of the contract unless they materially alter it, the offer limits acceptance to its terms, or the offeror objects within a reasonable time.
What is required to create an enforceable security interest under UCC Article 9?
Attachment requires: (1) value given by the secured party, (2) the debtor has rights in the collateral, and (3) a security agreement authenticated by the debtor (or the secured party has possession/control of the collateral).
What is 'perfection' of a security interest and the most common way to achieve it?
Perfection gives the secured party priority rights against third parties. The most common method is filing a financing statement (UCC-1). Other methods include possession, control, or automatic perfection (e.g., PMSI in consumer goods).
What is a Purchase Money Security Interest (PMSI) and its special priority?
A PMSI secures the price of collateral the debtor buys (or financing used to buy it). A PMSI in consumer goods is automatically perfected. A PMSI in inventory has super-priority if perfected and the secured party notifies prior secured parties before the debtor receives the goods.
What is the general priority rule among perfected security interests in the same collateral?
First to file or perfect has priority. A perfected interest beats an unperfected one; between unperfected interests, first to attach wins.
What is the difference between Chapter 7 and Chapter 11 bankruptcy?
Chapter 7 is liquidation — a trustee sells the debtor's nonexempt assets and distributes proceeds, then most remaining debts are discharged. Chapter 11 is reorganization — the business (or individual) continues operating under a court-approved plan to repay creditors over time.
What is the difference between voluntary and involuntary bankruptcy petitions?
Voluntary: the debtor files. Involuntary: creditors file. If 12+ creditors, at least 3 with $18,600+ (aggregate, unsecured, noncontingent) must join; if fewer than 12 creditors, one creditor owed $18,600+ may file.
What is the 'automatic stay' in bankruptcy?
Upon filing, it immediately halts most creditor collection actions, lawsuits, lien enforcement, and foreclosures against the debtor and the estate, giving the debtor relief while the case proceeds.
In Chapter 7, what is the order of distribution priority for unsecured claims (key tiers)?
Secured creditors are paid from their collateral first. Then priority unsecured claims in order: (1) domestic support obligations, (2) administrative expenses, (3) certain wages/benefits, then other priorities, followed by general unsecured creditors, and finally the debtor.
Compare a sole proprietorship, partnership, and corporation on liability and taxation.
Sole proprietorship: owner has unlimited liability, taxed on owner's return. General partnership: partners have unlimited joint/several liability, pass-through taxation. Corporation: limited liability for shareholders; C corp has double taxation, S corp has pass-through taxation.
What are the key features of a Limited Liability Company (LLC)?
Limited liability for all members, flexible management, and pass-through taxation by default (can elect corporate taxation). Combines the liability protection of a corporation with the tax flexibility of a partnership.
What are the eligibility requirements to elect S corporation status?
Must be a domestic corporation with no more than 100 shareholders (only individuals, estates, certain trusts — no nonresident aliens or corporate/partnership shareholders), only one class of stock, and all shareholders must consent to the election.
What does the Securities Act of 1933 regulate?
The initial issuance/primary distribution of securities. It requires registration with the SEC (registration statement and prospectus) and full disclosure for public offerings, with antifraud provisions, unless an exemption applies.
What does the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 regulate?
The secondary trading of securities and ongoing reporting. It created the SEC, requires periodic reporting (10-K, 10-Q, 8-K) by registered companies, and includes antifraud provisions like Rule 10b-5 against insider trading and securities fraud.
What is required to prove a Rule 10b-5 violation?
(1) A material misstatement or omission (or deceptive device), (2) made with scienter (intent or recklessness), (3) in connection with the purchase or sale of a security, (4) reliance, (5) causation, and (6) damages.
Under the Securities Act of 1933, what is Regulation D used for?
It provides safe-harbor exemptions from registration for private/limited offerings (Rules 504, 506(b), and 506(c)), allowing issuers to raise capital from accredited investors (and limited nonaccredited investors) without full SEC registration.
Give examples of items excluded from gross income.
Gifts and inheritances, life insurance proceeds paid on death, municipal bond interest, qualified scholarships, return of capital, certain gain on sale of a principal residence ($250k/$500k), child support, and qualifying employer-provided health insurance.
Give examples of items included in gross income.
Wages and salaries, business income, interest and dividends, rents and royalties, alimony from pre-2019 divorces, gambling winnings, unemployment compensation, taxable Social Security, and cancellation of debt income (unless excluded).
What distinguishes deductions 'for AGI' (above the line) from deductions 'from AGI' (below the line)?
Deductions for AGI reduce gross income to arrive at AGI (e.g., IRA, HSA, self-employment tax/2, student loan interest). Deductions from AGI are the greater of the standard deduction or itemized deductions, plus the QBI deduction, taken after AGI.
What is the standard deduction and who must use itemized deductions instead?
A fixed dollar amount based on filing status that reduces taxable income with no proof needed. Taxpayers itemize when their total itemized deductions exceed the standard deduction. Married-filing-separately taxpayers must both use the same method.
List the major categories of itemized deductions (Schedule A).
Medical expenses exceeding 7.5% of AGI; state and local taxes (SALT) capped at $10,000; home mortgage interest and investment interest; charitable contributions; and casualty losses in federally declared disaster areas.
What is the AGI floor for deducting medical expenses, and the cap on the SALT deduction?
Medical expenses are deductible only to the extent they exceed 7.5% of AGI. State and local taxes (income/sales + property) are capped at $10,000 ($5,000 MFS).
List the five federal income tax filing statuses.
(1) Single, (2) Married Filing Jointly, (3) Married Filing Separately, (4) Head of Household, and (5) Qualifying Surviving Spouse (qualifying widow(er)).
What are the requirements to file as Head of Household?
Be unmarried (or considered unmarried) at year-end, pay more than half the cost of maintaining a household, and have a qualifying person (e.g., a dependent child or relative) live with you for more than half the year (a dependent parent need not live with you).
What are the tests for a 'qualifying child' dependent?
Relationship, Age (under 19, or under 24 if a full-time student, or any age if permanently disabled), Residency (lived with taxpayer more than half the year), Support (child did not provide more than half of own support), and not filing a joint return. Mnemonic: 'CARES.'
Distinguish a tax credit from a tax deduction.
A deduction reduces taxable income (benefit = deduction × marginal rate). A credit reduces tax liability dollar-for-dollar. Credits may be nonrefundable (limited to tax owed) or refundable (can generate a refund beyond tax owed).
What is the difference between the Child Tax Credit and the Child and Dependent Care Credit?
Child Tax Credit: up to $2,000 per qualifying child under 17 (partially refundable), phased out at higher AGI. Child and Dependent Care Credit: a percentage (20%–35%) of work-related care expenses for a dependent under 13 or a disabled dependent, nonrefundable.
How are net capital gains and losses treated for individuals?
Long-term gains (assets held more than 1 year) get preferential rates (0/15/20%); short-term gains are taxed as ordinary income. Net capital losses offset capital gains; up to $3,000 of net loss ($1,500 MFS) can offset ordinary income per year, with the excess carried forward indefinitely.
What are the passive activity loss (PAL) and at-risk limitation rules?
At-risk rules limit deductible losses to the amount the taxpayer has economically at risk in the activity. Passive activity rules then limit passive losses to passive income; disallowed passive losses carry forward and are released when the activity is fully disposed of in a taxable sale.
Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Taxation and Regulation (REG) — Core FAQ
What is in the Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Taxation and Regulation (REG) — Core syllabus?
Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Taxation and Regulation (REG) — Core is split into 5 chapters: Ethics, Professional Responsibilities, and Federal Tax Procedures, Business Law, Federal Taxation of Individuals, Federal Taxation of Entities and Property Transactions and Gifts and Estates. Together they contain 31 topics and 17 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Taxation and Regulation (REG) — Core?
5 chapters, containing 31 topics and 17 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Federal Taxation of Individuals, with 8 topics.
Are there flashcards for Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Taxation and Regulation (REG) — Core?
Yes — a 51-card Taxation and Regulation (REG) — Core deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.