🇺🇸 Certified Public Accountant (CPA) · subject

Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Auditing and Attestation (AUD) — Core Syllabus

The Auditing and Attestation (AUD) — Core syllabus for Certified Public Accountant (CPA) in full: 5 chapters, 33 topics and 30 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Auditing and Attestation (AUD) — Core flashcards with answers.

5Chapters
33Topics
30Sub-topics
51Flashcards

Auditing and Attestation (AUD) — Core syllabus: all 5 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Ethics, Professional Responsibilities, and General Principles

    5 topics
    • AICPA Code of Professional Conduct
      • Conceptual framework approach and threats to compliance
      • Integrity, objectivity, and due care principles
      • Acts discreditable to the profession
    • Independence requirements
      • Covered members and financial interests
      • Non-attest services and prohibited relationships
      • SEC and PCAOB independence rules for issuers
    • Requirements of regulatory bodies
      • GAO Government Auditing Standards (Yellow Book)
      • Department of Labor rules for employee benefit plan audits
      • PCAOB versus AICPA standard-setting authority
    • Quality management at the engagement and firm level
    • Terms of engagement and engagement letters
  2. Risk Assessment and Engagement Planning

    7 topics
    • Audit risk model
      • Inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk
      • Risk of material misstatement at assertion level
    • Materiality determination and reassessment
    • Understanding the entity and its environment
    • Internal control components (COSO framework)
      • Control environment and entity-level controls
      • Information systems and IT general controls
      • Identifying and evaluating control deficiencies
    • Fraud risk assessment and brainstorming
      • Fraud triangle and presumed fraud risks
      • Management override of controls
    • Audit strategy and the overall audit plan
    • Using the work of specialists and internal audit
  3. Performing Further Procedures and Obtaining Evidence

    8 topics
    • Sufficient appropriate audit evidence and assertions
    • Tests of controls versus substantive procedures
    • Audit sampling
      • Attributes sampling for tests of controls
      • Variables and monetary-unit sampling for substantive tests
      • Sampling risk and evaluation of results
    • Analytical procedures and data analytics
    • Substantive testing of significant accounts
      • Cash, receivables, and revenue
      • Inventory observation and valuation
      • Estimates and fair value measurements
    • Confirmations and external evidence
    • Subsequent events and going concern evaluation
    • Written representations and the management representation letter
  4. Forming Conclusions and Reporting

    7 topics
    • Forming the audit opinion
      • Unmodified opinion structure
      • Qualified, adverse, and disclaimer of opinion
    • Key and critical audit matters
      • AICPA key audit matters
      • PCAOB critical audit matters
    • Emphasis-of-matter and other-matter paragraphs
    • Reports on internal control over financial reporting
    • Group audits and component auditors
    • Comparative statements and other information in annual reports
    • Communications with those charged with governance
  5. Other Engagements, Services, and SOC Reports

    6 topics
    • Reviews of financial statements (SSARS)
    • Compilations and preparation engagements
    • Attestation engagements (SSAE)
      • Examination, review, and agreed-upon procedures
      • Prospective financial information
    • System and Organization Controls (SOC) reports
      • SOC 1 controls relevant to financial reporting
      • SOC 2 trust services criteria
    • Interim financial information reviews
    • Single Audits under the Uniform Guidance

Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Auditing and Attestation (AUD) — Core flashcards — 51 questions with answers

  1. What are the six principles underlying the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct?

    Responsibilities, The Public Interest, Integrity, Objectivity and Independence, Due Care, and Scope and Nature of Services.

  2. Under the AICPA Conceptual Framework approach, what are the three steps a member uses to evaluate threats to compliance?

    Identify threats, evaluate the significance of each threat, and (if not at an acceptable level) apply safeguards to eliminate or reduce the threat.

  3. Name the seven broad categories of threats to compliance under the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct.

    Adverse interest, advocacy, familiarity, management participation, self-interest, self-review, and undue influence threats.

  4. Under the AICPA Code, what is the difference between independence in fact and independence in appearance?

    Independence in fact is the actual unbiased mental attitude in performing the engagement; independence in appearance is the avoidance of circumstances that would cause a reasonable, informed third party to conclude that integrity, objectivity, or skepticism was compromised.

  5. For which types of engagements is independence required, and for which is it not?

    Independence is required for audits, reviews, and other attest engagements (examinations, agreed-upon procedures). It is NOT required for compilations (disclosure required), tax, or consulting/nonattest services.

  6. Under the SEC/PCAOB independence rules, what is the partner rotation requirement for the lead and concurring (engagement quality) partners on an issuer audit?

    The lead and concurring partners must rotate off after 5 years and observe a 5-year 'time-out' (cooling-off) period.

  7. What is the one-year cooling-off period rule for SEC issuer audits?

    A member of the audit engagement team cannot accept a financial reporting oversight role (e.g., CEO, CFO, controller) with the audit client until at least one annual audit period has passed after they last participated in the audit.

  8. Under SEC independence rules, may an auditor of an issuer provide bookkeeping or financial system design/implementation services to that audit client?

    No. The SEC prohibits these (and several other nonaudit services such as internal audit outsourcing, actuarial, and management functions) for audit clients that are issuers.

  9. Who provides audit oversight and standard-setting for public companies (issuers) versus nonissuers in the U.S.?

    The PCAOB sets auditing standards and oversees audits of issuers; the AICPA's Auditing Standards Board (ASB) issues SAS (GAAS) for nonissuers.

  10. Under the AICPA Code, when does a covered member's direct financial interest impair independence?

    Any direct financial interest in an attest client impairs independence regardless of materiality. An indirect financial interest impairs independence only if material.

  11. What are the two components/objectives of a system of quality management at the firm level under SQMS No. 1?

    (1) Reasonable assurance the firm and its personnel fulfill responsibilities per professional standards and legal/regulatory requirements; and (2) reports issued are appropriate in the circumstances.

  12. Name the eight components of a firm's system of quality management under SQMS No. 1.

    The firm's risk assessment process, governance and leadership, relevant ethical requirements, acceptance and continuance of client relationships, engagement performance, resources, information and communication, and the monitoring and remediation process.

  13. What is the engagement quality review (EQR) and when is it required?

    An EQR is an objective evaluation of the significant judgments and conclusions of the engagement team by a qualified reviewer not on the team, completed before the report is released; it is required for audits of issuers and for engagements the firm's quality management policies designate.

  14. What is the difference between 'quality management at the firm level' and 'quality management at the engagement level'?

    Firm level (SQMS 1) establishes the overall system of quality management; engagement level (SAS 146 / AU-C 220) is the engagement partner's responsibility to manage and achieve quality on the specific engagement within that system.

  15. What are the typical preconditions for an audit that the auditor must establish before accepting an engagement?

    Determine the financial reporting framework is acceptable, and obtain management's agreement that it acknowledges its responsibilities for the financial statements, internal control, and providing the auditor access to information and personnel.

  16. List the key elements that must be included in an audit engagement letter.

    Objective and scope of the audit, responsibilities of the auditor and of management, identification of the applicable financial reporting framework, expected form and content of reports, and a statement that there is an inherent risk material misstatements may not be detected.

  17. State the audit risk model formula.

    $AR = IR \times CR \times DR$, where audit risk equals inherent risk times control risk times detection risk.

  18. In the audit risk model, what is the relationship between detection risk and the risk of material misstatement (RMM)?

    They are inversely related: as RMM ($IR \times CR$) increases, the acceptable level of detection risk decreases, requiring more or more effective substantive procedures.

  19. Define inherent risk and control risk.

    Inherent risk is the susceptibility of an assertion to material misstatement before considering controls; control risk is the risk that a material misstatement will not be prevented or detected and corrected on a timely basis by the entity's internal control.

  20. How does the auditor reduce detection risk when it must be set low?

    By increasing the nature (more effective/reliable procedures), timing (perform at year-end rather than interim), and extent (larger sample sizes) of substantive procedures.

Show the other 31 Auditing and Attestation (AUD) — Core flashcards
  1. Distinguish overall materiality, performance materiality, and the clearly trivial threshold.

    Overall (planning) materiality is the misstatement level affecting users' decisions for the statements as a whole; performance materiality is set below overall materiality to reduce aggregation risk for procedures; clearly trivial is a much smaller amount below which misstatements need not be accumulated.

  2. What common benchmarks are used to determine overall materiality?

    Commonly a percentage of a chosen benchmark such as income before tax (e.g., ~5%), total revenue, total assets, or net assets, selected based on the nature of the entity and users' focus.

  3. What should an auditor do if it becomes aware during the audit of information that would have caused a different (lower) initial materiality?

    Reassess and revise materiality (and performance materiality), and evaluate whether the nature, timing, and extent of further audit procedures remain appropriate given the revised amounts.

  4. What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative materiality?

    Quantitative materiality is based on size/dollar amount; qualitative materiality considers the nature of an item (e.g., misstatements affecting loan covenants, changing a loss to income, illegal acts, fraud) that may be material regardless of amount.

  5. What are the five risk assessment procedures used to understand the entity and its environment?

    Inquiries of management and others, analytical procedures, observation and inspection, and (per current standards) discussion among the engagement team plus information from client acceptance/continuance and prior engagements.

  6. List the five components of internal control under the COSO framework.

    Control Environment, Risk Assessment, Control (Information) and Communication, Monitoring Activities, and Control Activities. (Mnemonic: CRIME — Control environment, Risk assessment, Information & communication, Monitoring, Existing control activities.)

  7. How many principles support the five COSO components, and what is their role?

    There are 17 principles; all relevant principles must be present and functioning, and the five components must operate together in an integrated manner, for internal control to be effective.

  8. Define the COSO 'control environment' component.

    The set of standards, processes, and structures that provide the foundation for internal control — including integrity and ethical values, board oversight, organizational structure, commitment to competence, and accountability ('tone at the top').

  9. What is the fraud triangle, and what are its three elements?

    The fraud triangle explains conditions present when fraud occurs: incentive/pressure, opportunity, and rationalization/attitude.

  10. What are the two main types of misstatement arising from fraud the auditor considers?

    Fraudulent financial reporting (intentional misstatement of amounts/disclosures to deceive users) and misappropriation of assets (theft of an entity's assets, i.e., defalcation).

  11. What is the purpose of the required fraud 'brainstorming' session among the engagement team?

    To discuss how and where the financial statements might be susceptible to material misstatement due to fraud, emphasizing professional skepticism and how management could perpetrate and conceal fraud; it is required and may not be omitted.

  12. Which fraud risk is presumed significant on every audit, and how must the auditor respond?

    Improper revenue recognition is a presumed (rebuttable) fraud risk, and the auditor must address it. The risk of management override of controls is also always present, requiring procedures such as testing journal entries, reviewing estimates for bias, and evaluating significant unusual transactions.

  13. Distinguish the audit strategy from the audit plan.

    The overall audit strategy sets the scope, timing, and direction of the audit and guides development of the more detailed audit plan; the audit plan describes the nature, timing, and extent of risk assessment procedures, further audit procedures, and other required procedures.

  14. When using the work of a management's specialist, what must the auditor evaluate?

    The competence, capabilities, and objectivity of the specialist; obtain an understanding of the specialist's work; and evaluate the appropriateness of that work as audit evidence for the relevant assertion.

  15. Can the auditor use the work of the entity's internal audit function to obtain audit evidence, and does it reduce the auditor's responsibility?

    Yes, the external auditor may use internal audit work (or direct assistance) after evaluating its objectivity, competence, and systematic/disciplined approach, but the external auditor retains sole responsibility for the audit opinion.

  16. What are the two ways an external auditor may make use of the internal audit function?

    (1) Using the body of work already performed by internal audit as audit evidence; and (2) using internal auditors to provide direct assistance under the external auditor's direction, supervision, and review.

  17. What two qualities must audit evidence possess to support the auditor's opinion?

    It must be sufficient (a measure of quantity) and appropriate (a measure of quality — relevance and reliability).

  18. List factors that generally increase the reliability of audit evidence.

    Evidence from independent external sources, evidence from effective internal control, evidence obtained directly by the auditor, evidence in documentary/written form, and original documents over copies.

  19. List the assertions about classes of transactions and events during the period.

    Occurrence, completeness, accuracy, cutoff, and classification (and presentation).

  20. List the assertions about account balances at period end.

    Existence, rights and obligations, completeness, and valuation and allocation (accuracy, valuation, and allocation).

  21. Distinguish tests of controls from substantive procedures.

    Tests of controls evaluate the operating effectiveness of controls in preventing/detecting material misstatements (supporting a lower control risk); substantive procedures detect material misstatements at the assertion level and consist of tests of details and substantive analytical procedures.

  22. When are tests of controls required to be performed?

    When the auditor intends to rely on the operating effectiveness of controls to reduce substantive testing, or when substantive procedures alone cannot provide sufficient appropriate evidence (e.g., highly automated processing with little documentary evidence).

  23. What is the difference between a Type I and Type II error in attribute (controls) sampling?

    Type I (risk of assessing control risk too high / underreliance) leads to inefficiency; Type II (risk of assessing control risk too low / overreliance) leads to ineffectiveness because the auditor relies on controls that are not effective.

  24. What two sampling risks affect substantive tests of details?

    Risk of incorrect rejection (affects efficiency) and risk of incorrect acceptance (affects effectiveness — the more serious risk because it can lead to an incorrect audit opinion).

  25. In attribute sampling, how is the sample deviation rate compared to thresholds to reach a conclusion?

    The auditor computes the upper deviation rate (sample deviation rate plus allowance for sampling risk) and compares it to the tolerable deviation rate; if the upper deviation rate does not exceed the tolerable rate, the control can be relied upon.

  26. What three factors increase the required sample size in attribute sampling?

    A higher expected population deviation rate, a lower tolerable deviation rate, and a lower acceptable risk of overreliance (higher desired confidence) each increase sample size.

  27. What are the four basic analytical procedure techniques, and at which audit phases are analytics required?

    Trend analysis, ratio analysis, reasonableness/regression, and common-size (vertical) analysis. Analytical procedures are required during risk assessment (planning) and during the overall final review; they are optional as substantive procedures.

  28. How does data analytics enhance substantive testing compared with traditional sampling?

    Data analytics can test 100% of a population (full-population testing) to identify outliers, anomalies, and exceptions, improving precision and the auditor's ability to detect misstatements relative to testing only a sample.

  29. What is the positive versus negative confirmation, and when may negatives be used?

    A positive confirmation asks the recipient to respond whether or not they agree; a negative confirmation asks for a response only if they disagree. Negatives may be used only when RMM is low, controls are effective, many small homogeneous balances exist, and a low exception rate is expected.

  30. Why are external confirmations considered strong audit evidence, and which assertion do accounts receivable confirmations primarily test?

    They are obtained directly by the auditor from independent third parties, increasing reliability. AR confirmations primarily test the existence assertion (not completeness or valuation/collectibility).

  31. What should the auditor do when no response is received to a positive confirmation request?

    Send second (and possibly third) requests, and for remaining nonresponses perform alternative procedures such as examining subsequent cash receipts, shipping documents, and sales invoices to obtain evidence about the balance.

Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Auditing and Attestation (AUD) — Core FAQ

What is in the Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Auditing and Attestation (AUD) — Core syllabus?

Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Auditing and Attestation (AUD) — Core is split into 5 chapters: Ethics, Professional Responsibilities, and General Principles, Risk Assessment and Engagement Planning, Performing Further Procedures and Obtaining Evidence, Forming Conclusions and Reporting and Other Engagements, Services, and SOC Reports. Together they contain 33 topics and 30 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Auditing and Attestation (AUD) — Core?

5 chapters, containing 33 topics and 30 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Performing Further Procedures and Obtaining Evidence, with 8 topics.

Are there flashcards for Certified Public Accountant (CPA) Auditing and Attestation (AUD) — Core?

Yes — a 51-card Auditing and Attestation (AUD) — Core deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.