🇬🇧 Association of Corporate Treasurers (ACT) Qualifications · subject
Association of Corporate Treasurers (ACT) Qualifications Corporate Finance and Capital Structure Syllabus
The Corporate Finance and Capital Structure syllabus for Association of Corporate Treasurers (ACT) Qualifications in full: 5 chapters, 20 topics and 36 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 Corporate Finance and Capital Structure flashcards with answers.
Corporate Finance and Capital Structure syllabus: all 5 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Time Value of Money and Valuation
4 topics- Discounting and compounding
- Present and future value of single sums and annuities
- Effective vs. nominal interest rates
- Bond pricing and yields
- Clean vs. dirty price and accrued interest
- Yield to maturity and current yield
- Duration and convexity as price sensitivity measures
- Equity valuation fundamentals
- Dividend discount and free cash flow models
- Relative valuation multiples
- Business and enterprise valuation
- Enterprise vs. equity value bridge
- DCF methodology and terminal value
- Discounting and compounding
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Cost of Capital
4 topics- Cost of debt
- Pre-tax and post-tax cost of debt
- Credit spread and benchmark rate components
- Cost of equity
- Capital Asset Pricing Model and beta
- Risk-free rate and equity risk premium
- Weighted average cost of capital (WACC)
- Market vs. book value weights
- WACC as hurdle rate and its limitations
- Hurdle rates and value creation
- Cost of debt
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Capital Structure and Financing Strategy
4 topics- Capital structure theory
- Modigliani-Miller propositions with and without tax
- Trade-off theory and financial distress costs
- Pecking order and signalling theory
- Optimal gearing and leverage
- Financial vs. operating leverage
- Target leverage and debt capacity
- Financial flexibility and credit ratings
- Rating agency methodologies and key ratios
- Maintaining rating headroom and the cost of downgrade
- Dividend and distribution policy
- Dividends vs. share buybacks
- Distribution constraints and capital allocation
- Capital structure theory
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Investment Appraisal and Capital Allocation
4 topics- Project appraisal techniques
- Net present value and internal rate of return
- Payback, discounted payback and profitability index
- Relevant cash flows and tax effects
- Incremental cash flows and sunk costs
- Capital allowances and tax shields
- Risk in appraisal
- Sensitivity, scenario and Monte Carlo analysis
- Adjusting discount rates for project risk
- Capital rationing and project selection
- Project appraisal techniques
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Mergers, Acquisitions and Restructuring
4 topics- M&A rationale and synergies
- Strategic, financial and operational synergies
- Value creation and the winner's curse
- Deal structuring and financing
- Cash, share and mixed consideration
- Acquisition financing and bridge facilities
- Treasury role in M&A integration
- Cash and banking integration
- Refinancing acquired debt and change-of-control clauses
- Corporate restructuring and disposals
- M&A rationale and synergies
Association of Corporate Treasurers (ACT) Qualifications Corporate Finance and Capital Structure flashcards — 52 questions with answers
What is the difference between compounding and discounting?
Compounding moves a cash flow forward in time to find a future value: $FV = PV(1+r)^{n}$. Discounting moves a future cash flow back to today to find present value: $PV = \frac{FV}{(1+r)^{n}}$. They are inverse operations using the same rate $r$.
State the formula for the present value of a single future cash flow.
$$PV = \frac{CF_{n}}{(1+r)^{n}}$$ where $CF_{n}$ is the cash flow at period $n$ and $r$ is the periodic discount rate.
What is the present value of an ordinary (level) annuity paying $C$ per period for $n$ periods?
$$PV = C\left[\frac{1-(1+r)^{-n}}{r}\right]$$ The bracketed term is the annuity factor.
What is the present value of a perpetuity, and of a growing perpetuity?
Level perpetuity: $PV = \frac{C}{r}$. Growing perpetuity (Gordon form): $PV = \frac{C_{1}}{r-g}$, valid only when $r > g$.
How do you convert a nominal annual rate compounded $m$ times per year into an effective annual rate (EAR)?
$$EAR = \left(1+\frac{r_{nom}}{m}\right)^{m} - 1$$ With continuous compounding, $EAR = e^{r_{nom}} - 1$.
How is the price of a coupon-paying bond determined?
It is the present value of all coupons plus the redemption value, discounted at the yield: $$P = \sum_{t=1}^{n}\frac{C}{(1+y)^{t}} + \frac{F}{(1+y)^{n}}$$ where $C$ is the coupon, $F$ is face value and $y$ is the yield per period.
What is the relationship between a bond's coupon rate, its yield to maturity, and whether it trades at par, premium or discount?
If coupon rate $=$ YTM the bond trades at par. If coupon $>$ YTM it trades at a premium (price above par). If coupon $<$ YTM it trades at a discount (price below par). Bond prices move inversely to yields.
Define yield to maturity (YTM) of a bond.
The single discount rate that equates the present value of a bond's future coupons and redemption payment to its current market price; it is the bond's internal rate of return assuming it is held to maturity and all coupons are reinvested at that same rate.
What is the current yield of a bond and how does it differ from YTM?
Current yield $= \frac{\text{annual coupon}}{\text{market price}}$. Unlike YTM it ignores capital gain/loss to redemption and the time value of money, so it is only an approximate income measure.
Define Macaulay duration and what it measures.
Macaulay duration is the present-value-weighted average time to receipt of a bond's cash flows: $$D = \frac{\sum_{t=1}^{n} t \cdot \frac{CF_{t}}{(1+y)^{t}}}{P}$$ It measures interest-rate sensitivity and the bond's effective average life.
How is modified duration used to estimate the price change of a bond for a small yield change?
$Modified\ Duration = \frac{Macaulay\ Duration}{1+y}$, and the price change is approximated by $$\frac{\Delta P}{P} \approx -ModDuration \times \Delta y$$
State the dividend discount (Gordon growth) model for the value of a share.
$$P_{0} = \frac{D_{1}}{k_{e} - g}$$ where $D_{1}$ is next year's dividend, $k_{e}$ is the cost of equity and $g$ is the constant dividend growth rate (requires $k_{e} > g$).
In the dividend growth model, how can the growth rate $g$ be estimated from fundamentals?
$g = b \times r$, the product of the retention ratio $b$ (proportion of earnings retained) and the return on reinvested equity $r$. This is the 'Gordon' sustainable-growth relationship.
What is the difference between equity value and enterprise value?
Enterprise value (EV) is the value of the whole operating business available to all capital providers. Equity value is the portion attributable to shareholders: $$Equity\ Value = EV - Net\ Debt - Minority\ Interests - Preferred + Associates$$
How do you move from enterprise value to equity value (bridge)?
Start with EV, subtract net debt (debt minus cash), subtract preferred stock and minority interests, and add the value of non-operating assets/associates. The result is equity value, which divided by shares gives value per share.
What are the three broad approaches to business valuation?
(1) Income/DCF approach – present value of future cash flows; (2) Market/relative approach – multiples of comparable companies or transactions; (3) Asset-based approach – net realisable or replacement value of assets less liabilities.
What is the EV/EBITDA multiple and why is it commonly used in valuation?
$EV/EBITDA = \frac{Enterprise\ Value}{EBITDA}$. It is capital-structure-neutral and excludes depreciation/amortisation and tax differences, allowing comparison of companies with different gearing and asset bases.
How is the cost of debt (before tax) of traded debt estimated?
It is the yield to maturity (redemption yield) on the company's existing debt of similar seniority and maturity, i.e. the market rate the firm would currently pay to borrow, not the historic coupon rate.
Why is the cost of debt adjusted for tax, and what is the after-tax formula?
Because interest is tax-deductible, the effective cost to the firm is reduced by the 'tax shield': $$k_{d}^{after-tax} = k_{d}(1 - T)$$ where $T$ is the marginal corporate tax rate.
State the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) used to find the cost of equity.
$$k_{e} = r_{f} + \beta(r_{m} - r_{f})$$ where $r_{f}$ is the risk-free rate, $\beta$ is the systematic risk of the share, and $(r_{m}-r_{f})$ is the equity market risk premium.
Show the other 32 Corporate Finance and Capital Structure flashcards
What does beta ($\beta$) measure in the CAPM?
Beta measures systematic (non-diversifiable) risk — the sensitivity of a share's returns to movements in the overall market. $\beta = 1$ moves with the market, $\beta > 1$ is more volatile than the market, $\beta < 1$ is less volatile.
What is the difference between an asset (unlevered) beta and an equity (levered) beta?
Asset beta reflects only business/operating risk. Equity beta also includes financial risk from gearing. Relevering: $$\beta_{e} = \beta_{a}\left[1 + (1-T)\frac{D}{E}\right]$$
State the formula for the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC).
$$WACC = \frac{E}{V}k_{e} + \frac{D}{V}k_{d}(1-T)$$ where $E$ and $D$ are the market values of equity and debt, $V = E + D$, $k_{e}$ is cost of equity and $k_{d}(1-T)$ is after-tax cost of debt.
Why should market values, not book values, be used for the weights in WACC?
WACC represents the return required by investors today, who price securities at market value. Book values are historic accounting figures that do not reflect current required returns or current capital structure, so they would distort the weighting.
Under what conditions is a company's WACC a valid discount rate for a project?
When the project has the same business risk as the existing firm and is financed so as to leave the firm's capital structure (gearing) broadly unchanged. If risk or financing differs, a project-specific risk-adjusted rate should be used.
What is a hurdle rate and how does it relate to value creation?
A hurdle rate is the minimum required rate of return a project must earn to be accepted, usually the risk-adjusted cost of capital. Value is created only when the return on invested capital exceeds the hurdle rate (i.e. $ROIC > WACC$).
Define economic value added (EVA) and when it is positive.
$$EVA = NOPAT - (WACC \times Invested\ Capital)$$ It is positive (value-creating) when net operating profit after tax exceeds the money cost of the capital employed, i.e. when $ROIC > WACC$.
State Modigliani–Miller Proposition I in a world with no taxes.
Without taxes, bankruptcy costs or other frictions, capital structure is irrelevant: the total value of the firm is independent of its debt/equity mix, $V_{L} = V_{U}$. Value depends on the operating assets, not how they are financed.
State Modigliani–Miller Proposition II (cost of equity rises with gearing).
$$k_{e} = k_{0} + (k_{0} - k_{d})\frac{D}{E}$$ The cost of equity increases linearly with the debt-to-equity ratio to compensate shareholders for the extra financial risk, leaving WACC unchanged (no-tax case).
How does Modigliani–Miller theory change once corporate taxes are introduced?
Interest is tax-deductible, creating a debt tax shield. The levered firm is worth more: $$V_{L} = V_{U} + (T \times D)$$ Implying WACC falls as gearing rises, suggesting (in theory) maximum debt is optimal.
Describe the trade-off theory of capital structure.
The optimal capital structure balances the tax-shield benefits of additional debt against the rising present value of financial distress and bankruptcy costs. The optimum is where the marginal benefit of the tax shield equals the marginal cost of distress.
What is the pecking order theory of financing?
Due to asymmetric information, firms prefer internal funds (retained earnings) first, then debt, and issue new equity only as a last resort. It implies there is no well-defined target gearing ratio; financing follows a hierarchy.
What is financial gearing (leverage) and how is it commonly measured?
Gearing measures the proportion of debt in the capital structure. Common measures: $$Gearing = \frac{Debt}{Debt + Equity} \quad \text{or} \quad \frac{Debt}{Equity}$$ using market or book values; also interest cover $= \frac{EBIT}{Interest}$.
What is operating gearing versus financial gearing?
Operating gearing reflects the proportion of fixed to variable operating costs — high fixed costs magnify the effect of sales changes on EBIT. Financial gearing reflects the use of fixed-cost debt — it magnifies the effect of EBIT changes on earnings per share.
Define the optimal capital structure.
The mix of debt and equity that minimises the firm's WACC and thereby maximises the total market value of the firm, balancing the benefits of the debt tax shield against the costs of financial distress and reduced flexibility.
What is financial flexibility and why do treasurers value it?
Financial flexibility is the firm's capacity to raise funds or adjust financing at reasonable cost to meet unexpected needs or exploit opportunities. Treasurers value spare debt capacity and committed facilities so the firm is not forced to raise capital on poor terms.
How do credit ratings relate to capital structure decisions?
Rating agencies assess default risk using gearing and coverage ratios. Higher debt can lower the rating, raising borrowing cost and reducing access to debt markets. Firms often target a minimum rating (e.g. investment grade, BBB-/Baa3 or above) as a capital-structure constraint.
What is the boundary between investment-grade and sub-investment-grade (junk) ratings?
Investment grade runs from AAA down to BBB- (S&P/Fitch) or Aaa to Baa3 (Moody's). Anything BB+/Ba1 or below is sub-investment grade ('high yield' or 'junk'), carrying materially higher spreads and reduced market access.
State and explain the residual theory of dividends.
Dividends are a residual: the firm first funds all positive-NPV projects from earnings, and only pays out what is left over. Under this view dividends fluctuate with investment needs and have no intrinsic value-signalling role.
According to Modigliani–Miller, why might dividend policy be irrelevant?
In perfect markets (no taxes or transaction costs), shareholders can create 'home-made dividends' by selling shares, or reinvest unwanted dividends. Value depends on investment/earning power, so the split between dividends and retentions does not affect firm value.
What is the signalling effect of dividends?
Because managers dislike cutting dividends, a dividend increase signals confidence in sustainable future earnings, while a cut signals difficulty. Markets therefore react to unexpected dividend changes — the 'information content' of dividends.
Compare paying dividends with a share buyback as a means of returning cash.
Both return cash to shareholders. Dividends are received by all holders and tend to be 'sticky'. Buybacks reduce the share count (raising EPS), are more flexible/discretionary, can have tax advantages, and signal that shares may be undervalued.
State the Net Present Value (NPV) decision rule for project appraisal.
$$NPV = \sum_{t=0}^{n}\frac{CF_{t}}{(1+r)^{t}}$$ Accept a project if $NPV > 0$ (it adds value); reject if $NPV < 0$. For mutually exclusive projects, choose the one with the highest positive NPV.
Define the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) and its decision rule.
IRR is the discount rate at which $NPV = 0$. Decision rule: accept the project if $IRR >$ cost of capital (hurdle rate). It represents the project's break-even required return.
What are the main weaknesses of IRR compared with NPV?
IRR can give multiple values with unconventional cash flows, assumes reinvestment at the IRR itself, ignores project scale, and can rank mutually exclusive projects incorrectly. NPV is preferred because it measures absolute value added in money terms.
What is the payback period and the discounted payback period?
Payback is the time taken for cumulative cash inflows to recover the initial outlay; it ignores the time value of money and post-payback cash flows. Discounted payback uses discounted cash flows, improving on this but still ignoring flows after the cut-off.
Which cash flows are 'relevant' in project appraisal?
Only incremental, future, after-tax cash flows that change as a result of the decision. Include opportunity costs and incremental working capital. Exclude sunk costs, allocated/unavoidable overheads, and non-cash items such as depreciation (except via its tax effect).
How is depreciation (capital allowances) treated in DCF appraisal?
Depreciation itself is a non-cash item and is excluded from cash flows. However, tax-allowable capital allowances reduce taxable profit, so the resulting 'tax shield' (capital allowance $\times$ tax rate) is included as a relevant cash inflow.
How can risk be incorporated into project appraisal?
Methods include: risk-adjusted discount rates (raising the hurdle rate for riskier projects), sensitivity analysis, scenario analysis, probability/expected-value and simulation (Monte Carlo), and certainty-equivalent cash flows. These quantify or adjust for variability in outcomes.
What is capital rationing, and how do single-period selections differ between divisible and indivisible projects?
Capital rationing is selecting projects when funds are limited. For divisible projects, rank by the profitability index ($PI = \frac{PV\ of\ inflows}{Initial\ outlay}$) and fund highest first. For indivisible projects, test combinations to maximise total NPV within the budget.
List common motives (rationale) for mergers and acquisitions and give two examples of synergy.
Motives include growth, market power, diversification, acquiring capabilities/economies of scale, and tax benefits. Synergies: revenue synergies (cross-selling, larger market) and cost synergies (eliminating duplicate functions, purchasing economies); financial synergies include lower cost of capital and use of surplus cash.
What is the difference between an asset purchase and a share purchase in deal structuring, and how do equity- versus debt-financed deals compare?
In a share purchase the buyer acquires the legal entity with all its liabilities; in an asset purchase the buyer cherry-picks specific assets/liabilities. Financing: equity (shares) avoids cash outflow and shares risk but dilutes ownership; debt/cash preserves control but increases gearing and the fixed-charge burden. The treasurer also addresses M&A integration — combining banking, funding, cash management and hedging — and corporate restructuring such as demergers, spin-offs and disposals to refocus the business and release value.
Association of Corporate Treasurers (ACT) Qualifications Corporate Finance and Capital Structure FAQ
What is in the Association of Corporate Treasurers (ACT) Qualifications Corporate Finance and Capital Structure syllabus?
Association of Corporate Treasurers (ACT) Qualifications Corporate Finance and Capital Structure is split into 5 chapters: Time Value of Money and Valuation, Cost of Capital, Capital Structure and Financing Strategy, Investment Appraisal and Capital Allocation and Mergers, Acquisitions and Restructuring. Together they contain 20 topics and 36 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Association of Corporate Treasurers (ACT) Qualifications Corporate Finance and Capital Structure?
5 chapters, containing 20 topics and 36 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Time Value of Money and Valuation, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Association of Corporate Treasurers (ACT) Qualifications Corporate Finance and Capital Structure?
Yes — a 52-card Corporate Finance and Capital Structure deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.