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Association for Project Management Qualification (APM PMQ) Risk, Issue and Change Management Syllabus

The Risk, Issue and Change Management syllabus for Association for Project Management Qualification (APM PMQ) in full: 3 chapters, 15 topics and 16 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 59 Risk, Issue and Change Management flashcards with answers.

3Chapters
15Topics
16Sub-topics
59Flashcards

Risk, Issue and Change Management syllabus: all 3 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Risk Management

    6 topics
    • The risk management process
      • Identify, assess, plan responses, implement
      • Continuous monitoring and review
    • Risk identification techniques
      • Brainstorming, checklists and prompt lists
      • Assumptions and constraints analysis
    • Qualitative and quantitative assessment
      • Probability and impact assessment
      • Probability/impact grid and risk scoring
    • Risk response strategies
      • Threat responses: avoid, reduce, transfer, accept
      • Opportunity responses: exploit, enhance, share, reject
      • Fallback plans and risk owners
    • The risk register and proximity
    • Benefits of risk management
  2. Issue Management

    4 topics
    • Distinguishing risks from issues
    • The issue management process
      • Capture, assess, escalate, resolve
    • The issue register and escalation routes
      • Tolerances and escalation to the sponsor
    • Roles in managing issues
  3. Change Control and Configuration Management

    5 topics
    • The change control process
      • Request, assess, decide, implement, review
      • Impact assessment on scope, time, cost, quality
    • The change request and change log
    • Roles in change control
      • Change authority and delegated limits
    • Configuration management
      • Configuration identification and status accounting
      • Version control and configuration audits
    • Relationship between change control and configuration management

Association for Project Management Qualification (APM PMQ) Risk, Issue and Change Management flashcards — 59 questions with answers

  1. In APM terms, what is a 'risk' (risk event)?

    An uncertain event or set of circumstances that, should it occur, would have an effect on the achievement of one or more project objectives. It may have positive (opportunity) or negative (threat) impact.

  2. What is the formal aim of risk management in a project?

    A structured process that allows individual risk events and overall risk to be understood and managed proactively, optimising success by minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

  3. Name the typical stages of the APM risk management process.

    1) Initiate (define context/scope), 2) Identify, 3) Assess (qualitative then quantitative), 4) Plan responses, 5) Implement responses, with ongoing Manage/review (communicate and monitor) throughout.

  4. What is the difference between 'risk event' and 'overall project risk'?

    A risk event is a single uncertain occurrence affecting objectives; overall (aggregated) project risk is the combined exposure of stakeholders to the consequences of all uncertainty across the whole project.

  5. Distinguish a threat from an opportunity in risk management.

    A threat is a risk with a negative effect on objectives; an opportunity is a risk with a positive effect. Both are managed through the same risk process with mirrored response strategies.

  6. List common risk identification techniques used in APM PMQ.

    Brainstorming, checklists, prompt lists, assumption/constraint analysis, lessons-learned reviews, SWOT analysis, interviews, Delphi technique, nominal group technique, and document/cause-and-effect analysis.

  7. What is the Delphi technique for risk identification?

    A method of gathering risk input anonymously from a panel of experts over several iterative rounds, with feedback between rounds, to reach consensus while avoiding dominant-personality bias.

  8. What is a prompt list in risk identification?

    A predetermined list of risk categories or sources (e.g. PESTLE, TECOP) used to stimulate thinking and ensure broad coverage so categories of risk are not overlooked.

  9. What does qualitative risk assessment involve?

    Subjectively assessing and prioritising individual risks by rating their probability and impact (e.g. high/medium/low), often plotting them on a probability-impact grid to determine priority.

  10. What does quantitative risk assessment involve?

    Numerically analysing the combined effect of risks on overall project outcomes (cost/time), using models such as Monte Carlo simulation, decision trees and sensitivity analysis to give probabilistic forecasts.

  11. What is a probability-impact grid (P-I matrix)?

    A matrix that plots each risk's likelihood against its severity of impact, producing a priority score so risks can be ranked and management attention focused on the most significant.

  12. How is the expected value (risk exposure) of a single risk calculated?

    $$EV = P \times I$$ where $P$ is the probability of the risk occurring and $I$ is its impact (often a monetary value).

  13. What is Monte Carlo simulation used for in quantitative risk analysis?

    A computer-based technique that runs many iterations using probability distributions for uncertain variables to produce a range of possible project outcomes (e.g. cost/duration) and their likelihoods.

  14. What is a decision tree in quantitative risk analysis?

    A diagrammatic technique mapping decision options and chance events with their probabilities and values, used to calculate the expected monetary value (EMV) of each path and choose the best option.

  15. What is sensitivity analysis in risk?

    A technique that tests how changes in individual uncertain variables affect the overall project outcome, identifying which risks the project result is most sensitive to (often shown on a tornado diagram).

  16. List the four response strategies for a threat (negative risk).

    Avoid (eliminate the threat/cause), Reduce/Mitigate (lower probability and/or impact), Transfer (assign to a third party, e.g. insurance/contract), and Accept (take no proactive action, possibly with contingency).

  17. List the four response strategies for an opportunity (positive risk).

    Exploit (make it certain to happen), Enhance (increase probability and/or impact), Share (partner with a third party to gain benefit), and Reject/Accept (take no proactive action).

  18. What is 'transfer' as a threat response, and give an example?

    Passing ownership of a risk and its impact to a third party best able to manage it, e.g. taking out insurance or using a fixed-price contract. The risk does not disappear but liability is moved.

  19. What is the difference between a 'fallback plan' and 'contingency'?

    Contingency is time/money/resource set aside for risks that may occur; a fallback (or secondary) plan is a predefined response invoked if the primary risk response fails or the risk still occurs.

  20. What is a 'secondary risk'?

    A new risk that arises as a direct consequence of implementing a risk response to an original (primary) risk.

Show the other 39 Risk, Issue and Change Management flashcards
  1. What is 'residual risk'?

    The level of risk that remains after a risk response has been implemented; the portion of the original risk exposure not removed by the chosen action.

  2. What is a risk owner?

    The individual responsible for managing a specific risk, including monitoring it and ensuring the agreed response actions are carried out and reported on.

  3. What is a risk actionee?

    The person assigned to carry out a specific risk response action on behalf of, and reporting to, the risk owner.

  4. What is the purpose of the risk register?

    A document that records identified risks, their assessment (probability/impact), proximity, chosen responses, owners/actionees and current status; the central tool for capturing and tracking risk information.

  5. List typical fields contained in a risk register.

    Risk ID, description (cause-event-effect), category, probability, impact, risk score/exposure, proximity, response strategy and actions, owner/actionee, and status.

  6. What does 'proximity' mean in the context of risk?

    How close in time a risk event is to occurring (i.e. when it might happen). It helps prioritise responses by indicating which risks need attention soonest, independent of probability/impact.

  7. Why is writing risks as 'cause, event, effect' (risk metalanguage) useful?

    It separates the source/condition (cause) from the uncertain event (risk) and its consequence (effect), giving clarity, avoiding confusing facts with risks, and aiding accurate assessment and response.

  8. State four benefits of effective risk management.

    Increased likelihood of meeting objectives; fewer surprises; better-informed decision making; improved stakeholder confidence; more efficient use of resources/contingency; and capture of opportunities.

  9. How does risk management support better decision making?

    By providing objective, structured information on uncertainty and exposure, it allows decisions (e.g. go/no-go, contingency, prioritisation) to be made with greater confidence rather than on gut feel.

  10. Define an 'issue' in project management.

    A problem, event or matter that is now occurring (has happened or is certain to happen) and threatens project objectives, requiring management action and resolution because it cannot be managed by the team within delegated authority.

  11. What is the key distinction between a risk and an issue?

    A risk is uncertain — it may or may not occur in the future; an issue is certain — it is happening now (or a risk that has materialised) and must be resolved through formal management action.

  12. Can a risk become an issue? Explain.

    Yes. When a risk event actually occurs, the uncertainty is gone and it becomes an issue requiring resolution; the risk register entry is closed and the matter is transferred to issue management.

  13. What is the issue management process?

    A structured process to identify/capture, assess, escalate (if needed), decide on and implement a resolution, then monitor and close issues — ensuring problems are dealt with promptly and consistently.

  14. List the typical steps in handling an issue.

    1) Identify and log the issue, 2) Assess its impact and urgency, 3) Determine options/recommend action, 4) Escalate or decide within authority, 5) Implement resolution, 6) Review and close (update issue register).

  15. What is the purpose of the issue register (issue log)?

    A document used to capture and track all issues, recording their description, impact, priority, owner, actions, escalation status and resolution, ensuring no issue is lost and progress is monitored.

  16. What information is typically recorded in an issue register?

    Issue ID, date raised, raised by, description, impact/severity, priority, owner, agreed actions, escalation route/status, target resolution date, and current status.

  17. What is an escalation route in issue management?

    A predefined path for raising an issue to a higher level of authority (e.g. project manager to sponsor/steering group) when it falls outside the current manager's delegated tolerance or authority to resolve.

  18. Why are escalation routes important for issue management?

    They ensure issues exceeding a manager's delegated authority/tolerance are passed promptly to those who can decide and act, preventing delay and ensuring decisions are taken at the right level.

  19. What role does the project manager play in managing issues?

    Owns the issue management process, ensures issues are logged and assessed, resolves those within their authority, escalates those beyond it, and reports issue status to the sponsor and stakeholders.

  20. What role does the sponsor play in managing issues?

    Takes decisions on escalated issues that exceed the project manager's authority or tolerances, provides direction and resources, and owns the business case affected by major issues.

  21. Define change control.

    The process through which all requests to change the baseline scope, deliverables, time or cost of a project are captured, evaluated, approved or rejected, and (if approved) implemented in a controlled way.

  22. Why is change control necessary on a project?

    To prevent uncontrolled change (scope creep), ensure changes are properly assessed for impact on the business case/objectives, maintain baseline integrity, and ensure decisions are authorised and documented.

  23. List the typical steps of the change control process.

    1) Request/capture change, 2) Log it, 3) Assess impact (cost, time, scope, quality, risk), 4) Recommend, 5) Decision (approve/reject/defer) by the appropriate authority, 6) Implement and update baseline/plans, 7) Review and close.

  24. What is a change request?

    A formal proposal to alter the project, documenting what change is sought, the reason/justification, and originator details, submitted for assessment and a decision through the change control process.

  25. What is the change log (change register)?

    A document that records all change requests and their status — including description, impact assessment, decision (approved/rejected/deferred), date and owner — providing an audit trail of changes.

  26. Who typically authorises changes in change control?

    The change authority — within delegated tolerances this may be the project manager; changes exceeding those tolerances (e.g. affecting the business case) are decided by the sponsor or a change control board.

  27. What is a change control board (change authority)?

    A group or nominated individual with delegated authority to review change requests and decide whether to approve, reject or defer them, especially those beyond the project manager's tolerance.

  28. What is the project manager's role in change control?

    To operate the process: ensure changes are logged and impact-assessed, approve changes within delegated authority, escalate larger changes to the sponsor/board, and update baselines and plans for approved changes.

  29. Define configuration management.

    The technical and administrative process of identifying, documenting, controlling, tracking the status of, and verifying the project's products (configuration items) and their versions throughout the life cycle.

  30. List the main activities of configuration management.

    Planning, identification (of configuration items), control (of versions/changes), status accounting (recording state), and verification/audit (confirming items match records).

  31. What is a configuration item?

    A product, deliverable or component (or a coherent group) that is treated as a single entity for configuration management purposes, with its own identification, baseline and version control.

  32. What is 'status accounting' in configuration management?

    Recording and reporting the current and historical state of each configuration item — its version, baseline and change history — so the status of all products is known at any time.

  33. What is a configuration audit/verification?

    A check that the actual configuration items match their records/specifications and that all changes have been properly authorised and recorded, ensuring integrity of the products.

  34. What is the relationship between change control and configuration management?

    Change control authorises whether a change happens; configuration management tracks and records the products and their versions affected by that change. Configuration management maintains the baseline that change control protects and updates.

  35. How do change control and configuration management work together when a change is approved?

    Change control approves the change, then configuration management updates the version/baseline of the affected configuration items and records the new status, keeping product records accurate and traceable.

  36. What is a 'baseline' in this context?

    A reference version of a plan, deliverable or configuration item that is fixed and agreed at a point in time, against which progress and any subsequent changes are measured and controlled.

  37. Why must risk, issue and change processes be linked?

    Because they overlap: a materialised risk becomes an issue, and resolving an issue or risk often requires a change. Linking them ensures consistent tracking, accountability and impact assessment across the project.

  38. What is 'risk appetite' versus 'risk tolerance'?

    Risk appetite is the amount of risk an organisation is willing to seek or accept in pursuit of objectives; risk tolerance is the threshold/boundary of acceptable variation around objectives before action or escalation is required.

  39. Give two reasons issues should be escalated rather than resolved locally.

    The issue exceeds the project manager's delegated authority or tolerance, or it requires resources, decisions or business-case changes that only the sponsor/governance board can authorise.

Association for Project Management Qualification (APM PMQ) Risk, Issue and Change Management FAQ

What is in the Association for Project Management Qualification (APM PMQ) Risk, Issue and Change Management syllabus?

Association for Project Management Qualification (APM PMQ) Risk, Issue and Change Management is split into 3 chapters: Risk Management, Issue Management and Change Control and Configuration Management. Together they contain 15 topics and 16 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Association for Project Management Qualification (APM PMQ) Risk, Issue and Change Management?

3 chapters, containing 15 topics and 16 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Risk Management, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for Association for Project Management Qualification (APM PMQ) Risk, Issue and Change Management?

Yes — a 59-card Risk, Issue and Change Management deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.