American Registry of Radiologic Technologists Certification (ARRT) Professional Practice, Ethics, and Registration Syllabus

What are the two main components of the ARRT Standards of Ethics?

The Code of Ethics (aspirational principles of professional conduct) and the Rules of Ethics (enforceable, mandatory standards of minimally acceptable conduct).

What is the key functional difference between the ARRT Code of Ethics and the Rules of Ethics?

The Code of Ethics is aspirational and not directly enforceable; the Rules of Ethics are specific, enforceable standards whose violation can lead to sanctions.

According to the ARRT Code of Ethics, the radiologic technologist acts to provide services with full respect for what?

The dignity of humankind, unrestricted by considerations of age, gender, race, creed, socioeconomic status, disability, or nature of illness/disease.

Per the ARRT Code of Ethics, a technologist should limit radiation exposure according to which principle?

The ALARA principle (As Low As Reasonably Achievable), employing appropriate techniques and protective measures.

Give three examples of conduct that constitutes a violation under the ARRT Rules of Ethics.

Fraud or deceptive practice; conviction of a crime; failure to report another's violation; practicing outside one's scope; patient abuse or neglect; substance abuse affecting practice; falsifying records (any of these).

Under the ARRT Rules of Ethics, what is a technologist's duty when they know of a violation by another credential holder?

They have an affirmative duty to report the known violation to ARRT; failing to report is itself a Rules of Ethics violation.

What ethical framework prioritizes 'do no harm,' and how is it named among the four biomedical ethics principles?

Nonmaleficence; the four principles are autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice.

Define the bioethical principles of beneficence and autonomy as applied to patient care.

Beneficence is acting in the patient's best interest/doing good; autonomy is respecting the patient's right to make informed decisions about their own care.

What is a commonly taught ethical decision-making model used by radiologic technologists when facing a dilemma?

A stepwise model: identify the problem, develop alternatives, select the best alternative (using ethical principles), defend the selection, and act/evaluate the outcome.

What is the difference between ethical and legal standards in radiologic practice?

Ethical standards are moral principles guiding what one should do; legal standards are enforceable laws and regulations defining what one must do—an act can be legal but unethical, or vice versa.

Define 'scope of practice' for a radiologic technologist.

The range of duties and procedures a technologist is educated, competent, credentialed, and legally authorized to perform under state law and institutional policy.

What is a 'professional boundary' violation in patient care, and give an example.

Crossing the appropriate professional relationship line for personal gain or gratification—e.g., dating a current patient, accepting inappropriate gifts, or sharing personal contact information for non-care reasons.

What should a technologist do when asked to perform a procedure outside their scope of practice or competency?

Decline to perform it, as practicing beyond one's scope/competency is both a legal and Rules of Ethics violation, and seek a qualified provider or proper authorization/training.

What is the role of state licensure relative to ARRT certification in defining scope of practice?

ARRT certification verifies competency, but the legal scope of practice is defined by state licensure/practice acts; technologists must comply with the laws of the state in which they practice.

What sanctions can ARRT impose after finding an ethics violation?

Denial, revocation, or suspension of certification/registration; reprimand; probation; or summary suspension—depending on severity.

Outline the general steps of the ARRT ethics complaint/disciplinary process.

A complaint is submitted; ARRT staff review for jurisdiction; the Ethics Committee investigates and the individual may respond; the committee issues a proposed decision; the individual may request a hearing before the Ethics Committee; and the Board of Trustees makes the final determination.

What is a 'summary suspension' in the ARRT disciplinary process?

An immediate suspension of a credential before full proceedings conclude, used when continued practice poses an imminent risk to public health and safety.

Who has the final authority over ethics decisions within ARRT's disciplinary structure?

The ARRT Board of Trustees, which renders the final decision after the Ethics Committee's review and any requested hearing.

What U.S. federal law primarily governs the privacy and security of patient health information?

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act), which includes the Privacy Rule and Security Rule protecting Protected Health Information (PHI).

Define 'Protected Health Information (PHI)' under HIPAA.

Individually identifiable health information—relating to a person's health condition, care, or payment—that is created, received, stored, or transmitted in any form by a covered entity.

What is informed consent, and what three elements must it include?

A patient's voluntary agreement to a procedure after being informed; it requires disclosure of the nature/purpose, the risks and benefits, and the available alternatives, given by a competent patient without coercion.

Distinguish a patient's right to refuse treatment from implied consent.

A competent patient may refuse any procedure (autonomy), even after starting; implied consent is consent inferred from a patient's actions or assumed in emergencies when a patient cannot communicate and treatment is needed to prevent harm.

Differentiate the legal terms assault and battery in radiologic practice.

Assault is the threat or attempt to touch/harm a patient causing apprehension; battery is the actual unauthorized physical contact (e.g., performing a procedure without consent).

Define the legal doctrine 'respondeat superior.'

'Let the master answer'—an employer is held vicariously liable for the negligent acts of an employee committed within the scope of employment.

Define the doctrine 'res ipsa loquitur' and give a radiology example.

'The thing speaks for itself'—negligence is inferred because the injury could not have occurred without negligence; e.g., a retained foreign object or a burn from equipment that was solely under the technologist's control.

List the four elements that must be proven to establish negligence (the 'four Ds' / duty framework).

Duty (owed to the patient), Dereliction/breach of that duty, Direct cause (the breach caused the injury), and Damages (actual harm resulted).

Distinguish intentional torts from unintentional torts (negligence) in healthcare.

Intentional torts are deliberate wrongful acts (assault, battery, false imprisonment, defamation, invasion of privacy); unintentional torts (negligence/malpractice) result from failure to exercise reasonable care.

What is the legal and professional rule for documentation: 'if it wasn't documented...'?

'If it wasn't documented, it wasn't done.' Accurate, complete, contemporaneous records are the primary legal evidence that care was provided.

What is the proper method for correcting an error in a paper medical record?

Draw a single line through the error (leaving it legible), write the correction, and add the date, time, and your initials/signature; never erase, white-out, or obliterate the original entry.

What is the minimum number of patient identifiers required by The Joint Commission, and which identifiers are acceptable?

At least two patient identifiers—such as full name and date of birth (or medical record number)—and never the patient's room number or physical location.

What is the 'time-out' procedure, and when is it performed in imaging/interventional settings?

A final verification, performed immediately before an invasive procedure, in which the team confirms correct patient, correct procedure, and correct site (and side/position) as part of the Universal Protocol to prevent wrong-site/wrong-patient errors.